1: INTRODUCTION TO PHLEBOTOMY Flashcards

1
Q

Phlebotomy is also known as _____________ act of opening a vein by using incision or puncture methods to draw blood for analysis or as part of therapeutic or diagnostic measures under the physician’s request

A

venesection

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2
Q

which means vein

A

phlebos

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3
Q

which means to cut

A

temnein

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4
Q

used crude tools to cut vessels and drain blood from the body

A

Stone Age

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5
Q

a form of “Bloodletting”

A

Ancient Egyptians (1400 B.C.)

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6
Q

balance of the four humors, removing the excess by bloodletting

A

Hippocrates (460 - 377 B.C.)

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7
Q

used to treat illness and performed by barber-surgeons

A

Middle ages

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8
Q

treated as major therapy

A

17th and 18th century

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9
Q
  • Ventosa
  • alternative medicine
  • application of special heated suction cups on the patient’s skin
  • incision using a fleam or lancet
A

Cupping

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10
Q
  • known as Hirudotherapy
  • uses leeches for bloodletting
  • used for microsurgical replantation
A

Leeching

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11
Q

obtain samples of blood for testing; collect blood from donors for those in need of blood transfusions, sometimes handle other types of specimens, such as urine, sputum, stool, and hair

A

Phlebotomist

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12
Q
  • For diagnosis and treatment using blood samples
  • For transfusion, to remove blood at the donor center
  • For removal of blood for polycythemia or therapeutic purposes
  • Patient - Client Interaction
    > Reassuring and pleasant
    > Able to communicate well
    > Maintain positive customer relations
    > Understand the diversity of the patients and be able to adjust accordingly
A

Role of Phlebotomist

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13
Q

Credentials

A

Certification, Licensure, Continuing Education

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14
Q

Qualities of Professionalism

A

(1) Professional appearance
(2) Self-confidence
(3) Integrity
(4) Compassion
(5) Self-motivation
(6) Dependability
(7) Ethical Behavior

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15
Q

Communication in the Healthcare Setting

A

Verbal, Nonverbal, Active Listening

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16
Q

Elements in the Healthcare Communication

A
  • Empathy
  • Control
  • Respect
  • Confirmation
  • Trust
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17
Q

Areas of the Hospital (12)

A

*Electrocardiology (EKG)
*Electroencephalography (EEG)
*Radiology
*Pharmacy
*Physical therapy
*Occupational therapy
*Nursing
*Laboratory
*Environmental services
*Administration
*Food service
*Medical records

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18
Q

Phases of Sample Testing

A

Pre-Examination, Examination, Post-Examination

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19
Q
  • Previously know as pre-analytical phase
  • Includes all processes from collecting the sample to having it ready for testing
A

Pre-Examination

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20
Q

Clinician’s request
Patient identification and information
Correct sample collection
Correct primary sample identification
Correct use of all equipment
Sample preparation or centrifugation
Proper preparation of sample aliquots
Maintaining sample integrity

A

Pre-Examination

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21
Q
  • Previously known as analytical phase
  • Includes all processes done to sample to achieve result
A

Examination

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22
Q

Sample testing
Maintaining testing equipment
Maintaining reagents

A

Examination

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23
Q
  • Previously known as postanalytical phase
  • Process in which the results of the testing are communicated to the health care provider or physician
A

Post-Examination

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24
Q

Reporting of results
Ensuring accuracy and reliability of delivery of results
Follow-up to repeat testing or address physician’s concerns
Storage of sample after the examination

A

Post-Examination

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25
A _________ is an establishment that has permanent inpatient beds with 24-hour nursing service along with therapeutic & diagnostic services managed by organized medical staff or personnel. It houses the clinical laboratory services (clinical laboratory) where tests requested by physicians are performed.
hospital
26
Two Major Divisions of Clinical Analysis Area
1. Anatomical and Surgical Pathology Area 2. Clinical Analysis Area
27
Clinical Analysis Areas (7 Areas)
1. Hematology 2. Coagulation 3. Chemistry 4. Serology 5. Urinalysis 6. Microbiology 7. Blood bank/Immunohematology
28
blood & blood forming tissues
Hematology
29
checks the hemoglobin level and the red cell count.
Hematocrit (Hct)
30
tests the value to rule out anemia.
Hemoglobin (Hgb)
31
used to measure the erythropoietic activity.
Red Blood Cell (RBC) count
32
checks the leukocyte response
White Blood Cell (WBC) count
33
used to monitor chemotherapy and radiation conditions.
Platelet (Plt ct) count
34
monitors changes in the appearance or quantity of specific cell types
Differential White Count (Diff)
35
shows the changes in RBC size, weight and Hgb content
Indices
36
gives the weight of the hemoglobin in the cell.
Mean Corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)
37
shows the size of the cell.
Mean Corpuscular volume (MCV)
38
gives information on the concentration of the hemoglobin per unit volume of RBCs.
Mean Corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)
38
measures the size differences of the RBCs
Red blood distribution width (RDW)
39
used to monitor liver disease.
Alanine amino tranferase (ALT)
40
checks levels especially for prenatal screening
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
40
determines level to check obstructions and bone disease.
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
41
measures the level which could indicate cirrhosis and hepatitis.
Ammonia
42
checks the enzyme level which could indicate liver disease, cholesystitis, etc.
Amylase
43
performs most lab test for plasma, white blood, urine, etc.
Chemistry
44
measures the level which is indicative of liver dysfunction.
Aspartate Amino-Transferase (AST)
45
shows the level in the bloodstream that shows red blood destruction
Bilirubin
46
evaluates acid-base balance by measuring the pH, partial pressure of the carbon dioxide and oxygen.
Blood Gases (ABG)
46
evaluates acid-base balance by measuring the pH, partial pressure of the carbon dioxide and oxygen.
Blood Gases (ABG)
47
evaluates acid-base balance by measuring the pH, partial pressure of the carbon dioxide and oxygen.
Blood Gases (ABG)
48
checks elevated levels which leads to impaired renal function.
Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)
49
a cardiac marker for congestive heart failure
B-type Natriuretic Peptide (BNP)
50
detects low level of CRP
C-reactive protein High sensitivity (hs-CRP)
51
used for early detection of malignancy in colorectal cancer.
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
52
used for monitoring effects of the renal failure.
Calcium
53
indicates risk of cardiovascular diseases.
Cholesterol (total)
54
shows adrenal hypofunction and hyperfunction
Cortisol
55
used to check muscle damage.
Creatine Kinase (CK)
56
checks for cases that indicate renal impairment or muscular dystrophy.
Creatinine
57
monitors therapeutic range to avoid toxic levels for drugs.
Drug Analysis
58
shows the sodium values that determines disorder of the kidney and adrenals
Electrolytes (sodium, potassium, chloride, CO2)
59
used to check diabetic problems, liver disease or malnutrition.
Glucose
60
used for diagnosis of liver specifically hepatobiliary problems.
Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT)
61
determines the Glycohemoglobin level that shows the diabetic control over the past months.
Hemoglobin A1C
62
Lactate dehydrogenase
checks lung, kidney and liver dysfunction.
63
shows the level that could lead to pancreatitis, pancreatic carcinoma
Lipase
64
a test that screens patients for presence of prostate cancer.
Prostate specific antigen
65
used to check liver and kidney disorders.
Total Protein
66
serves as index to evaluation of atherosclerosis and lipid metabolism disorder.
Triglycerides
67
used for early diagnosis of small myocardial infarcts.
Troponin-I
68
used to check levels that indicates gout and renal problems.
Uric Acid tests
69
done to check for anemia and diseases of the small intestine.
Vitamin B12 and folate tests
70
Immunology/Serology
serum and autoimmune reactions
71
shows autoimmune disorders such as systematic lupus erythematosus
Antinuclear antibody (ANA)
72
indicates streptococcal infection
Antistreptolysin O (ASO) titer
73
checks cases of atypical pneumonia
Cold agglutinins
74
shows presence of antibodies to specific organisms
Febrile agglutinins
75
confirms syphilis
FTA-ABS
76
when positive it is indicative of syphilis but it needs confirmation
Rapid plasma reagin (RPR)
77
indicates rheumatoid arthritis
Rheumatoid factor (RF)
78
screens Human immunodeficiency virus
Anti-HIV
79
is a confirmation test
Cytomegalovirus antibody (CMV)
80
checks for presence of heterophil antibody which indicates infectious mononucleosis
Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)
81
checks for presence of hepatitis antigen in the surface of the red cells
Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)
82
indicates inflammation when levels are increased
C-reactive protein (CRP)
83
tests are present when patient is pregnant
Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
84
indicates presence of blood melanin, bilirubin or urobilin in the urine specimen
Color
85
shows presence of fat, chyle bacteria which affects the turbidity
Clarity
86
suggests renal tubular involvement or ADH deficiency
Specific Gravity
87
Hematuria could be due to hemorrhage, infection or trauma
Blood
88
helps differentiate between obstructive and hemolytic jaundice
Bilirubin
89
Glucosuria maybe a result of diabetis melitus, renal impairments
Glucose
90
uncontrolled diabetes mellitus or starvation
Ketones
91
indicates urinary tract infection if there is a lot of neutrophils
Leukocyte
92
indicates in acid-base balance
pH
93
Proteinura is an indicateor of renal dysfunction or disorder
Protein
94
positive results could mean bacterial infection
Nitrite
95
increases in amount when patient suffers from hepatic issues
Urolibinogen
96
shows the status of the urinary tract, hematuria, pyuria, etc.
Microscopic Evaluation
97
microorganisms in body fluids or tissues
Microbiology
98
is used to monitor treatment for TB
Acid-fast bacili (AFB)
99
checks presence of bacteria which indicates bacteremia or septicemia
Blood culture
100
shows presence of Helicobacter pylori
CLO test
101
indicates infection if there is growth in the pathogenic microorganism
Culture & Sensitivity (C&S)
102
used to determine the type fungi if present
Fungus culture and identification
103
done to allow antimicrobial therapy while waiting for culture results
Gram stain
104
checks for blood in the stool which could result from gastrointestinal bleeding
Occult blood
105
solves "etiology unknown" intestinal disorders
Ova and parasites
106
blood for transfusion
Bloodbank/Immunohematology
107
agglutination means presence of abnormal antibodies in the blood
Antibody (Ab) screen
108
determines transfusion incompatibility
Direct antihuman globulin test (DAT)
109
shows the blood group (ABO) and type (Rh)
Type and RH
110
shows the blood group and screens for antibodies in the recipient's blood
Type and crossmatch
111
detects antibodies and antigen in both recipient's and donor's blood
Compatibility testing
112
Established in the emergency room
Stat Labs