1 To 70 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Kinetochore is the site where attached:
A

MICROTUBULES

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2
Q
  1. What involved in the formation of the spindle and the creation of a guide and electromotive force
    separating the chromatids?
A

MICROTUBULES

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3
Q
  1. Long microtubules which connect opposite poles are called:
A

POLAR

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4
Q
  1. Determine amorphous bodies located near the nuclear envelope, and containing a centriole:
A

CENTROSOMES

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5
Q
  1. Kinetochore is located in:
A

CENTROMERE

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6
Q
  1. Kinetochore is attached the first to lateral side and then to the free end of :
A

MICROTUBULES

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7
Q
  1. The mitotic cycle, which ends with the division of cells into 2 daughter is called:
A

M phase

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8
Q
  1. What phase called the period of preparation for mitosis where is occured the synthesis and replication of
    DNA ?
A

S PHASE

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9
Q
  1. What organoid is involved in the process of cell division?
A

CENTRIOLES

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10
Q
  1. Select the correct sequence of phases of mitosis:
A

PROPHASE->METAPHASE->ANAPHASE->TELOPHASE

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11
Q
  1. Select a set of periods which all are called the interphase:
A

G1 S G2 (PLUS G0)

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12
Q
  1. Select the correct process which is the most characteristic of a dividing cell:
A

DIVERGENCE OF CHROMOSOME / CHROMOSOME DISJUNCTION

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13
Q
  1. In what phase of cell cycle is possible to study karyotype?
A

METAPHASE

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14
Q
  1. Select the correct process which is the most characteristic for presynthetic period of interphase:
A

REPLICATION OF DNA

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15
Q
  1. What biological importance has mitosis
A

PRESERVING THE CONSTANCY NO OF CHROMOSOMES

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16
Q
  1. In what phase of the mitotic cycle, chromosomes are located in the center of the cell and their centromeres
    attached with the spindle thread?
A

M PAHSE

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17
Q
  1. Determine the amount of DNA in the G2-period of the cell cycle:
A

4c

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18
Q
  1. What is included in the mitotic apparatus?
A

MICROTUBULE AND CENTRIOLE

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19
Q
  1. How is cAMP formed?
A

BY THE ENZYME ADENYLATE CYCLASE FROM ATP

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20
Q
  1. How is cGMP formed?
A

IT IS SYNTHESISED FROM GTP BY ENZYME GRANULATED CYCLASE

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21
Q
  1. What is the function of phosphorylation in the signal transmission?
A

ALL OPTIONS ARE CORRECT

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22
Q
  1. What is the importance of inositoltriphosphate (IP3)?
A

BINDING WITH CALCIUM CHANNELS OF PLASMOLEMMA AND E.R TRANSLATES THEM
INTO OPEN STATE

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23
Q
  1. What cellular mechanism responds to its own signal of the cell (the cell produces a signaling molecule
    and at that time carries on its surface the receptors necessary for respond of the secreted ligand)?
A

AUTOCRINE

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24
Q
  1. What are the main mechanisms of intracellular signaling?
A

PHOSPHORYLATION AND DEPHOSPHORYLATION

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25
Q
  1. What type of secondary messengers is formed from a specialized membrane lipid inositolphospholipid
    by the enzyme phospholipase C?
A

DAG AND ACETO3PHOSPHATE

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26
Q
  1. What is the importance of diacylglycerol (DAG)?
A

SECONDARY MESSENGER OR ACTIVATE PROTEIN KINASE C

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27
Q
  1. What is the role of Ca2+ as the secondary messenger?
A

ACTIVATION OF THYMEDULIN

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28
Q
  1. The main protein of microtubule is…
A

TUBULIN

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29
Q
  1. The main protein of actin filament is …
A

ACTIN

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30
Q
  1. Identify the protein which is a molecular motor:
A

MYOSIN

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31
Q
  1. The component of cytoskeleton and the core domain forming by curled spiral domains is called …..
A

INTERMIDIET FILAMENT

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32
Q
  1. Identify microtubule organizing centre:
A

CENTROSOME

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33
Q
  1. Cadherin molecules interact with other molecules of neighboring cells. It is called….
A

HETROPHILIC INTERACTION

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34
Q
  1. Identify one of three main proteins of the intermediate filaments:
A

KERATIN , vimetin , desmin

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35
Q
  1. The growing end of microtubules is called:
A

PLUS END

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36
Q
  1. Identify the protein which is a molecular engine:
A

KINESIN

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37
Q
  1. The main vimentin-like protein of intermediate filaments in muscle tissue is:
A

DESMIN

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38
Q
  1. Proteins associated with microtubules perform the function:
A

THE REGULATION OF DISSEMBLING MICROTUBULE

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39
Q
  1. Identify the first phase of microtubule assembly:
A

NUCLEATION(DELAYED PHASE)

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40
Q
  1. Identify a junctional component of cytoskeleton participating to intercellular adhesion :
A

ACTIN FILAMENT

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41
Q
  1. What is the essence of the cytogenetic method in studying human heredity?
A

STUDY CHROMOSOME WITH MICROSCOPE

42
Q
  1. What are the indications for the biochemical research?
A

The lag is physical development hepatosplenomegaly, intolerance to any food

43
Q
  1. What method of studying heredity used in the diagnosis of chromosomal diseases?
A

Cytological

44
Q
  1. What does the term “siblings” mean?
A

Children of one parent’s couple

45
Q
  1. Why do you use the twin methods for studying human heredity?
A

To assess the relative rule of heredity and environment in the development of trait

46
Q
  1. What proportion of children in the first generations will exhibit a dominant trait, if one parent is heterozygous with dominant allele and the other is homozygous with recessive?
A

50%

47
Q
  1. What does the term “proband” mean?
A

The person whom conducts the study of pedigree

48
Q
  1. Identify the characters accepted for designation in the pedigrees of female family members:
A

Circle

49
Q
  1. What percentage of children will inherit the pathology, if both parents are heterozygous with dominant
    allele controlling hereditary disease?
A

75%

50
Q
  1. What is the essence of the biochemical method?
A

The use of a system of qualitative and quantitative tests, which allows to catch the
disturbed content of metabolic products

51
Q
  1. What is the disadvantage of human as an object of genetic research?
A
52
Q
  1. Identify chromosomal disease associated with increasing number of sex chromosomes:
A

Klinfelters syndrome.

53
Q
  1. Isochromosome is …..
A

CHROMOSOME WITH REPETITIVE GENETIC MATERIAL IN BOTH SHOULDERS

54
Q
  1. What syndrome is characterized by following symptoms: microcephaly, sloping forehead, narrow eye slits,
    nose defect, low-set ears and deformed, cleft lip and cleft palate, polydactyly (extra digits), heart defects,
    kidney defects?
A

Patau syndrome

55
Q
  1. The Cri du chat syndrome was firstly described by….?
A

J.Lejeune,in 1963

56
Q
  1. Identify the possible formula of karyotype according to the following symptoms: short, a short neck,
    barrel-shaped rib cage, delayed sexual development.
A

45,X0

57
Q
  1. What kind of syndrome below caused by the rearrangement in chromosome?
A

Wof-hirschkorn syndrome

58
Q
  1. What intervals of age significantly increase in childbirth the risk of chromosomal abnormalities?
A

Age 35- 40

59
Q
  1. Determine the karyotype of Klinefelter syndrome:
A

47,XXY

60
Q
  1. Determine the karyotype of Edwards syndrome:
A

47,XX,18+

61
Q
  1. Determine chromosomal disease which is associated with decreasing in the number of sex
    chromosomes:
A

Turners syndrome

62
Q
  1. The occurence of ring chromosomes is…
A

The linkage of the two terminal deletions in both shoulders of the chromosome.

63
Q
  1. What syndrome are characterized by the following symptoms: slanted eyes, a round face with a flat profile,
    small nose, A missing nose bone, epicanthus folds, Small ears , a large tongue that may protrude from the
    mouth, heart defects, clinodactyly?
A

Down’s syndrome

64
Q
  1. 18 trisomy was firstly described by:
A

Edwards, in 1960

65
Q
  1. Identify the possible formula of karyotype according to the following symptoms: tall, incomplete pubertal
    development with eunuchoid body habitus, Enlarged breast tissue (gynecomastia), less facial and body
    hair compared with other teens, sexual infantilism
A

47,XXY

66
Q
  1. What kind of syndrome below caused by the rearrangement in chromosome?
A

Cri du chat syndrome

67
Q
  1. Polyploidy is…
A

Increasing of haploid set of chromosomes

68
Q
  1. Determine the formula of karyotype in Cri du chat syndrome:
A

46,xx,5P-

69
Q
  1. Determine the formula of karyotype in Wolf–Hirschhorn syndrome:
A

46,XX,4p-

70
Q
  1. Give the definition of chromosomal diseases:
A

These are caused by genomic mutations or structural changes in individual chromosome.

71
Q
  1. What kind of structural aberrations can be the reasons of chromosomal diseases?
A

Deletion, duplication, inversion, translocation

72
Q
  1. What changes in karyotype observed in Patau syndrome? ?
A

Trisomy, whole extra copy of chromosome no. 13 in the body’s cell

73
Q
  1. An electronic micrograph presents a cell that has no nucleole and nuclear membrane. Chromosomes has free position, centrioles migrate to the poles. What phase of cell cycle is it typical for?
A

Prophase

74
Q
  1. Normal, actively dividing cells of human red bone marrow are analyzed. What number of cells’ chromosomes is typical for G1 period?
A

46

75
Q
  1. Life cycle of a cell includes the process of DNA autoreduplication. As a result of it monochromatid chromosomes turn into bichromatid ones. What period of cell cycle does this phenomenon fall into?
A

S phase

76
Q
  1. During the examination of a two month boy a pediatrician noticed that the child’s cry sounds like cat’s mewing; he revealed also microcephalia and valvular defect. By means of cytogenetic method he determined the child’s karyotype ― 46 ХY, 5р-. At what stage of mitosis was the patient’s karyotype analyzed?
A

Metaphase

77
Q
  1. Studying the mitotic cycle phases of an onion root the researchers revealed a cell with chromosomes lying in equatorial plane in form of a star. What phase of mitosis is it?
A

Metaphase

78
Q
  1. While studying maximally spiralized chromosomes of human karyotype the process of cell division was stopped in the following phase:
A

Metaphase

79
Q
  1. Moving of the daughter chromatids to the poles of the cell is observed in the mitotically dividing cell. On what stage of the mitotic cycle is this cell?
A

Anaphase

80
Q
  1. According to the law of constant chromosome number, each species of most animals has a definite and constant number of chromosomes. The mechanismus providing this constancy in sexual reproduction of the organisms is called:
A

meiosis

81
Q
  1. During the postsynthetic period of mitotic cycle the synthesis of tubulin proteins was disturbed. These proteins take part in construction of division spindle. It can lead to the disturbance of:
A

Chromosome disjunction

82
Q
  1. An individual is characterized by rounded face, broad forehead, a Mongolian type of eyelid fold, flattened nasal bridge, permanently open mouth, projecting lower lip, protruding tongue, short neck, flat hands, and stubby fingers. What diagnosis can be put to the patient?
A

Down’s syndrome

83
Q
  1. A 2-year-old boy is diagnosed with Down syndrome. What chromosomal changes may be the cause of this disease?
A

Trisomy 21

84
Q
  1. A patient has mental retardation, small height, brachydactyly, mongoloid slant. Analysys of his karyotype revealed trisomy 21. What chromosomal anomaly is it?
A

Down’s Disease

85
Q
  1. There are trisome, translocational and mosaic forms of Down’s syndrome. What method of human genetics can be applied to differentiate the said forms of Down’s syndrome?
A

Cytogenetics

86
Q
  1. An 8 month old child has non-closed palate, a number of eye defects, microcephaly, disorder of cardiovascular system. Cytogenetic analysis revealed 47 chromosomes with an additional 13th chromosome. What diagnosis can be made on the basis of clinical observations and cytogenetic examinations?
A

Patau’s Syndrome

87
Q
  1. Healthy parents with unremarkable family history have the child with multiple developmental defects. Cytogenetic analysis revealed the trisomy 13 in the somatic cells (Patau syndrome). What phenomenon has caused the defects?
A

Abnormal gametogenesis

88
Q
  1. Medical examination at the military registration and enlistment office revealed that a 15- year-old boy was high, with eunuchoid body proportions, gynecomastia, female pattern of pubic hair distribution. The boy had also fat deposits on the thighs, no facial hair, high voice, subnormal intelligence quotient. Which karyotype corresponds with this disease?
A

47, XXY

89
Q
  1. An 18-year-old boy applied to a geneticist. The boy has asthenic constitution: narrow shoulders, broad pelvis, nearly hairless face. Evident mental deficiency. The provisional diagnosis was Klinefelter’s syndrome. What method of clinical genetics will enable the doctor to confirm this diagnosis?
A

Cytogenetic

90
Q
  1. Detection of X-chromatin in somatic cells is used for the quick diagnosis of hereditary diseases associated with a change in the sex chromosome number. Vast majority of a man’s cells have three X-chromatin bodies. What is the man’s karyotype?
A

49, XXXY

91
Q
  1. A 32 y.o. man is tall, he has gynecomastia, adult woman pattern of hair distribution, high voice, mental deficiency, sterility. Provisional diagnosis is Klinefelter’s syndrome. In order to specify diagnosis it is necessary to analize:
A

Karyotype

92
Q
  1. Cytogenetic examination of a patient with dysfunction of the reproductive system revealed normal karyotype 46, ХY in some cells, but most cells have Klinefelter’s syndrome karyotype – 47, ХХY. Such phenomenon of cell inhomogeneity is called:
A

Mosaicism

93
Q
  1. A 28-year-old female patient consulted a gynecologist about sterility. Examination revealed underdeveloped ovaries and uterus, irregular menstrual cycle. Study of sex chromatin revealed 2 Barr’s bodies in most somatic cells. What chromosome disease is the most probable in this case?
A

Triple X syndrome

94
Q
  1. Mother and father are healthy. Mother underwent amniocentesis for fetal karyotyping. The fetal karyotype turned out to be 45, XO. What syndrome can be expected in a newborn baby?
A

Turner Syndrome

95
Q
  1. Numerical chromosomal disorders include:
A

Downs, Turner, Edward, Patau, Klinefelter

96
Q
  1. The structural chromosomal disorders include:
A

Cri du Chat, Wolf-Hirshhorn

97
Q
  1. Feature that is characteristic of autosomal recessive inheritance:
A

The main features of autosomal dominant inheritance pattern include: Males and females are affected in roughly equal proportions. People in more than one generation are affected. Men and women are both able to pass on the condition to their sons and daughters.

98
Q
  1. Feature that ischaracteristic of autosomal dominant inheritance:
A

Males and females are affected in roughly equal proportions. People in more than one generation are affected. Men and women are both able to pass on the condition to their sons and daughters.

99
Q
  1. Genealogical study of a family with hereditary enamel hypoplasia has revealed that the
    disease occurs in every generation. In women, the anomaly occurs more frequently than in men. Male patients only pass this trait to their daughters. What type of inheritance takes place in this case?
A

X linked dominant

100
Q
  1. Hypertrychosis of auricles is caused by a gene that is localized in Y-chromosome. Father has this feature. What is the probability to give birth to a boy with such anomaly?
A

100%