1. Upper GI Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Congenital abnormalities
• Ageneis (absence) of the esophagus is extremely ____
• ____, incomplete development, is more common
• In esophageal atresia, a thin, noncanalized cord replaces a segment of the esophagus causing ____ obstruction
• Most common, esophageal atresia with a ____ between the lower portion of the esophagus and the respiratory tree.
• Fistulas can lead to aspiration and ____
• Developmental abnormalities of the esophagus are associated with ____ defects, genitourinary malformations, and neurologic disease

A
rare
atresia
mechanical
fistula
suffocation
congenital heart
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2
Q

VACTERL association
• VACTERL association is a disorder that affects many body systems
• VACTERL stands for ____ defects, anal atresia, ____ defects,
trachea-esophageal fistula, ____ anomalies, and limb abnormalities
• People diagnosed with VACTERL association typically have at least ____ of these characteristics
• Occurs in 1 in 10,000 to 40,000 newborns

A

vertebral
cardiac
renal
three

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3
Q

Obstruction
• Esophagus can be impeded by structural obstruction or functional obstruction
• Functional obstruction results from disruption of the coordinated waves of ____ contractions that follow swallowing
• Dysmotility may result in the development of ____ diverticulae
• Diverticulae are small pouches that form and push outward through weak spots in wall of ____
• For example, epiphrenic (diaphragm) diverticulum located immediately above the ____
• ____ diverticulum

A
peristaltic
small
esophagus
lower esophageal sphincter
zenker
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4
Q

Zenker diverticulae
• Impaired relaxation and spasm of the ____ muscle after swallowing can result in increased pressure within the ____ pharynx and development of a diverticulum
• Zenker diverticulae is located immediately above the ____
• Occurs at this point because of the weakness between the ____ muscle as they descend on the posterior wall of the esophagus to become ____
• Uncommon, but typically develop after age ____
• Larger Zenker diverticulae may accumulate significant amounts of food, producing a mass and symptoms that include regurgitation and ____

A
cricopharyngeus
distal
UES
inferior constrictor
longitudial
50
halitosis
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5
Q

Structural obstruction
• Structural obstruction can be caused by ____ or cancer
• Presents as progressive ____ that begins with inability to swallow solids
• Over time, ingestion of liquids is also affected
• Types
• Benign esophageal stenosis is narrowing of the lumen caused by fibrous
thickening of the ____
• Most often due to inflammation and scarring that may be caused by chronic ____, irradiation, or injury
• Esophageal mucosal ____

A

strictures
dysphagia
submucosa
GER

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6
Q

Esophageal mucosal webs
• Ledge like protrusions of mucosa that can cause obstruction; ____ lesions that protrude less than ____ mm
• Esophageal rings or Schatzki rings are similar to webs, but are ____, and ____
• Typically occur in women older than age ____
• In the upper esophagus, esophageal webs seen with ____-deficiency anemia, glossitis, and cheilosis are part of ____ syndrome

A
semi circumferential
5
circumferential
thicker
40
iron
plummer-vinson
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7
Q

Plummer Vinson syndrome

  • Rare condition characterized by iron-deficiency anemia, seen in conjunction with glossitis and ____, and esophageal mucosal webs
  • Condition has been associated with high frequency of both oral and esophageal ____
  • Most reported patients have been ____ of Northern European background between age 30 and 50 years
  • ____ is often present, marked atrophy of the tongue, and ____ sensations are common clinical presentations
A
dysphagia
squamous carcinoma
women
angular cheilitis
burning
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8
Q

Achalasia
• Failure of relaxation of the ____ while peristaltic waves moving food through; food bolus is not propulsed into the stomach
• In early stages, achalasia is ____. However, longstanding achalasia has a risk of developing ____ (16 to 33 fold increased risk)
• Overtime esophagus ____ to accommodate the swallowed food
• Chronic inflammation and ulceration persist and fibrotic stricture results
• Symptoms include ____ for solids and liquids, difficulty in belching, and chest pain

A
LES
reversible
SCC
dilates
dysphagia
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9
Q

Pathophysiology

• A nearly complete loss of ____ganglion cells in the ____ esophagus and ____
• Initiation of neuronal degeneration may be an ____ process triggered by indolent viral infection with a genetically susceptible host
• ____ infiltrate that destroys ganglion cells
• Patients with achalasia are more likely to have concomitant ____
diseases
• Primary achalasia is the result of ____ esophageal degeneration
• Secondary achalasia may arise in ____ disease
• Chagas disease is an ____ parasitosis of South America, infection by ____

A
myenteric plexus
distal
LES
autoimmune
T cell
autoimune
distal
chagas
endemic
trypansoma cruzi
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10
Q

Chemical and infectious esophagitis

  • The stratified squamous mucosa of the esophagus may be damaged by a variety of irritants including alcohol, corrosive acids, excessively hot fluids, and heavy smoking
  • Symptoms range from pain upon swallowing (____) to hemorrhage, stricture, or perforation
  • In children, esophageal chemical injury is often secondary to accidental ingestion of ____ products
  • Esophageal injury may be caused by ____, radiation therapy, or ____ disease
  • Esophageal infections in healthy individuals are ____, but are most often due to ____
A
odynophagia
household cleaning
chemotherapy
GVHD
uncommon
herpes simplex
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11
Q

Candida esophagitis and herpes esophagitis
• Characterized by adherent, ____ pseudomembranes composed of densely matted fungal ____ and ____ cells covering the esophageal mucosa
• Candida esophagitis can complicate the ulcers of herpes or appear in the ____ of viral infection, usually seen in immunosuppressed individuals
• Herpes virus typically cause ____ out ulcers
• Can arise in both ____ and immunocompetent
individuals
• May present with ____, retrosternal chest pain, and fever

A
gray-white
hyphae
inflammatory
absence
punched
immunosuppressed
odynophagia
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12
Q

Reflux esophagitis
• Reflux of gastric contents into the ____ is the most frequent cause of esophagitis; the associated clinical condition is termed ____
• GERD is accompanied by regurgitation, heartburn, pain, and dysphagia
• Reflux esophagitis may progress to superficial ____ and circumferential fibrosis and stricture formation and ____ to the surrounding structures

A

lower esophagus
GERD
ulceration
fixation

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13
Q

Pathogenesis
• Most common cause of GERD is transient ____ relaxation
• Conditions that can contribute to GERD include ____ and tobacco use, obesity, central nervous system ____, pregnancy, hiatal hernia, ____ gastric emptying, and increased gastric volume
• Hiatal hernia is the protrusion of the ____ into the thorax and can give rise to symptoms, such as ____ and regurgitation of gastric juices
• Reflux ____ are central to the development of mucosal injury
• In severe cases, reflux of bile from the ____ may exacerbate the
damage
• ____ of the mucosa may be the only alteration

A
LES
alcohol
depressants
delayed
stomach
heartburn
gastric juices
duodenum
redness
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14
Q

Clinical features
• GERD is most common in individuals older than age ____ but can occur in children and ____
• The most frequent clinical symptoms are ____, dysphagia, and regurgitation of sour-tasting gastric contents
• Rarely, chronic GERD is punctuated by attacks of severe chest pain that may be mistaken for ____
• Treatment is with ____, which reduces ____ and provides temporary relief
• Complications of reflux esophagitis include ____, stricture development, and ____

A
40
infants
heartburn
heart disease
proton pump inhibitors
gastric acidity
ulceration
barrett esophagus
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15
Q

Eosinophilic esophagitis
• An allergic ____ disorder that seems to be increasing in frequency
• Symptoms include ____ in adults or ____-like symptoms in children
• Thought to be a result of local ____ to food- or blood-borne allergens, and that ____ cells play an important role
• The characteristic histologic feature is large numbers of intraepithelial ____ in the superficial epithelium
• Unlike GERD, ____ is not prominent and high doses of proton pump inhibitors usually do not provide ____

A
eosinophilic
dysphagia
GERD
hypersensitivity
antigen-presenting
eosinophils
acid reflux
relief
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16
Q

Esophageal varices

  • Varices are tortuous dilated ____ lying primarily within the submucosa of the ____ and proximal stomach
  • Varices develop in the vast majority of cirrhotic patients, most commonly in association with ____ disease
  • Present in nearly half of patients with cirrhosis
  • 25-40% develop variceal bleeding
  • Patients with risk factors may be treated prophylactically with ____ to reduce portal blood flow
  • Variceal hemorrhage is an emergency that can be treated ____; despite interventions, 30% or more patients die as a direct consequence of hemorrhage
  • More than 50% of patient who survive a first variceal bleed have ____ hemorrhage within 1 year
A
veins
distal esophagus
alcoholic liver
beta-blockers
medically
recurrent
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17
Q

Barrett esophagus

• Complication of chronic GERD where the esophageal squamous mucosa is replaced with ____
• May occur up to 10% of individuals with symptomatic GERD
• Most common in ____ males and presents between 40 and 60 years of
age
• Though has been reported in children with ____, a condition that can induce gastroesophageal reflux

  • The greatest concern in Barrett esophagus is that there is an increased risk of esophageal ____
  • Vast majority of esophageal adenocarcinomas are associated with Barrett, however, most individuals with Barrett esophagus do not develop cancer
  • Usually occurs in the ____ of the esophagus and may invade the ____
A
metaplastic intestinal mucosa
white males
cystic fibrosis
adenocarcinoma
distal third
gastric cardia
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18
Q

Clinical
• Esophageal adenocarcinomas discovered in evaluation of GERD or surveillance of Barrett esophagus
• Commonly present with pain or difficulty in ____, progressive weight loss, hematemesis, chest pain, or vomiting
• By the time symptoms appear, the tumor has usually spread to submucosal ____
• Prognosis of advanced stage adenocarcinoma in Barrett esophagus is ____ with a 5-year survival rate of less than 20%

A

swallowing
lymphatic vessels
poor

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19
Q

Barrett Esophagus

Diagnosis

  • Requires ____ abnormality
  • Evidence of patches of red, velvety mucosa extending upward from the gastroesophageal junction (____) intermixed with smooth pale squamous mucosa (normal esophageal)
  • And microscopically, identification of ____ cells in a biopsy from the area of abnormality
  • Goblet cells are mucin-producing specialized cells of the intestinal mucosa
  • When dysplasia is present it is classified as low grade or high grade
  • Multifocal high grade dysplasia is treated as ____ due to its high risk of progression to invasive ____
A
endoscopic
metaplastic
goblet
carcinoma
carcinoa
20
Q

Barrett esophagus

Treatment
• Once diagnosed, management can involve periodic endoscopy with biopsy for dysplasia surveillance, especially for ____ grade dysplasia
• Invasive carcinoma requires ____, which include surgical resection or esophagectomy
• The vast majority of biopsies for Barrett esophagus are ____ for dysplasia, and most patients never develop dysplasia or ____

A

low
intervention
negative
adenocarcinoma

21
Q

Quick review: malignant tumors
• In neoplasia, the malignant cells usually resemble their ____ allowing for identification
• Carcinomas that grown in a glandular pattern are called ____
• Carcinomas that produce squamous cells are called ____

A

origin
adenocarcinomas
squamous cell carcinomas

22
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma

  • Esophageal squamous cell carcinoma occurs in adults older than age ____ and affects ____ four times more frequently
  • Less common than Barrett related ____
  • ____ and alcohol are two well-known risk factors
  • Other risk factors include ____, Plummer-Vinson syndrome, and history of previous irradiation
  • A pocket of extremely high esophageal squamous cell carcinoma incidence in western Kenya includes patients younger than ____ years of age
  • Link to mursik, traditional fermented mild that contains ____ (carcinogen)
A
45
males
adenocarcinoma
smoking
achalasia
30
acetaldehyde
23
Q

SCC

Clinical
• Squamous cell carcinoma begins as an in situ lesion termed ____
• Early lesions appear as small, ____ plaque-like thickenings
• Grossly, squamous cell carcinoma is usually ____, often ulcerated with demarcated margins
• Most symptomatic tumors are generally very large at diagnosis and have already invaded the esophageal wall
• The sites of lymph node metastases vary with ____
• Cancers in the upper third of the esophagus favor ____ lymph nodes • Those in the middle third favor ____ nodes
• Those in the lower third spread to ____ nodes

A
squamous dysplasia
gray-white
circumferential
location
cervical
mediastinal and paratracheal
gastric and celiac
24
Q
  • The abundance of ____ supply of the esophagus is responsible for the high frequency of lymph node metastases
  • ____ metastases occur early in the course of the disease and are the main reason for treatment failure
  • ____ therapy has been the most common form of treatment of the upper two-thirds of the esophagus and ____ has been the usual approach for carcinoma of the lower third
  • Overall prognosis is very ____
  • 3- and 5-year survival rate of 30% and 15% respectively
A
lymphatic
nodal
radiation
surgery
poor
25
Q

Pyloric stenosis
• Greatly thickened pyloric muscle that partially obstructs the gastric outflow
• Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is three to five times more
common in ____; occurs once in 300 to 900 live births
• ____ confer an increased risk of congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
• ____ or azithromycin exposure, either orally or via mother’s milk, in the first ____ weeks of life has been linked to increased disease incidence
• Clinically, 3rd and 6th week of life presents as new-onset ____, projectile, nonbilious vomiting after feeding, and frequent ____ for re- feeding

A
males
turner syndrome and trisomy 18
erythromycin
2
regurgitation
demands
26
Q

Acute gastritis
• May results from ingestion of ____, salicylates, other anti- inflammatory drugs, ____, and chemotherapy
• Gastritis can occur when ____ mechanisms of the stomach to acidic pH levels are disrupted
• Non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs inhibit ____ dependent synthesis of prostaglandins involved in stimulating mucus and bicarbonate
• Patients present with abrupt onset of abdominal ____, nausea, vomiting, and gastrointestinal bleeding
• Bleeding can be ____ and self-resolving or life-threatening

A
alcohol
radiation
protective
cyclooxygenase
pain
minimal
27
Q

Stress-related mucosal disease
• More that 75% of critically ill patients develop gastric lesions during the first ____ days of illness
• Occurs in patients with severe ____ stress
• Stress ulcers are most common in individuals with ____, sepsis, or severe
trauma
• Curling ulcers are associated with severe ____ or trauma and located in the ____
• Cushing ulcers arise in patients with ____ disease and carry high incidence of ____

• Compared with gastritis due to aspirin- or alcohol-related injury, ____ related related gastritis is associated with greater morbidty and mortality

A
3
physiologic
shock
burns
proximal duodenum
intracranial
perforation
hypoperfusion
28
Q

Helicobacter pylori gastritis

  • Chronic form of gastritis cause by ____
  • Transmission of infection is ____, with poor sanitary conditions and overcrowding being risk factors
  • Infected persons have a three- to six-fold greater risk of developing ____ over that of uninfected persons
  • Signs and symptoms include abdominal ____, nausea, vomiting, and ulcer-related bleeding
A

gram-negative rods
human to human
gastric cancer
pain

29
Q

Clinical and pathologic features

  • Endoscopic findings can include gastric mucosal ____, erosions, and nodularity
  • H. pylori commonly colonizes predominantly the ____; less commonly seen in the acid-producing mucosa of the ____
  • Therapy consists of either ____ or a ____ combined with two antibiotics; achieves up to 95% cure rate
  • ____, clarithromycin, and ____ or amoxicillin
A
erythema
antrum
fundus and body
metronidazole
tetracycline
30
Q

Autoimmune gastritis
• Immune-mediated chronic gastritis that primarily affects the ____, sparing the antrum
• Antibodies are directed against ____ cells and ____; loss of parietal cells result in lowered or absent stomach acid (____, achlorhydria), and ____ deficiency
• Absence of acid stimulates G-cell ____ release (hypergastrinemia) and results in ____ cell hyperplasia
• Rarely, this can progress to the development of low-grade neuroendocrine (carcinoid) ____

A
body and fundus
gastric parietal
intrinsic factor
hypochlorhydria
vitamin B12
gastrin
endocrine
tumors
31
Q

Autoimmune gastritis

Clinical and pathologic features
• Patients are usually older white ____ in their 50s
• Endoscopic exam reveals atrophic gastric mucosa, i.e. effacement of ____
folds
• Patients present with abdominal pain, weight loss, diarrhea, malabsorption, and neurologic complications related to severe ____ deficiency
• Can present with other immune-related disorders such as insulin-mediated ____, Hashimoto thyroiditis, or ____ insufficiency
• Autoimmune gastritis carries a twofold to threefold increase in the prevalence of ____
• Therapy involves administering ____ injections

A
women
rugal
vitamin B12
diabetes
adrenal
gastric adenocarcinomas
vitamin B12
32
Q

Anemias of autoimmune gastritis

• Pernicious anemia is a condition where lack of vitamin B12 leads to decreased production of ____ cells
• Late manifestation of autoimmune gastritis, taking ____ to 30 years to develop • Caused by progressive loss of ____ cells, which are necessary for intrinsic
factor production, which is necessary for absorption of B12

  • Iron deficiency anemia is a condition where decreased iron leads to decreased ____ production
  • Reduced gastric acid plays a role in iron deficiency because gastric acid releases ____ from bound protein
  • Gastric acid also reduces ferric iron to ____ state, necessary for absorption
A
red blood
20
parietal
red blood cells
iron
ferrous
33
Q

Peptic ulcer disease

  • Chronic mucosal ulceration affecting the stomach can develop as a complication of ____
  • Common sites are the ____ or proximal duodenum
  • Nearly all peptic ulcers are associated with ____ infection or ____
  • H. pylori treatment reduces ulcer ____
  • Presents as ____ burning or aching pain that tend to occur 1 to ____ hours after meals during the day
  • With deeper ulcers the pain may involve the chest, and be misinterpreted as ____ in origin
A
chronic gastritis
stomach
H. pylori
NSAIDs
recurrence
epigastric
3
cardiac
34
Q

Ménétrier disease
• Rare ____ disorder characterized by enlargement of ____, protein-losing gastropathy, and ____
• Caused by an overexpression of ____
• Patients present with ____ resulting from protein loss
across the gastric mucosal barrier
• Histologically, there is marked ____ with cystic dilation and parietal cells are replaced by ____ cells

A
acquired
gastric rugae
hypochlorhydria
transforming growth factor-alpha
hypoproteinemia
foveolar hyperplasia
mucous
35
Q

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
• Caused by ____-secreting tumors that cause hyperplasia of parietal and increased acid production (due to ____)
• Persistent secretion of acid gives rise to ____ peptic ulcers
• Unlike Ménétrier disease, not associated with ____ loss
• Clinically, however, the two diseases may look ____ under endoscopy, e.g. hypertrophic rugal folds
• The hypergastrinemia of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome can result in the development of ____ (carcinoid) tumors

A
gastrin
hypergastrinemia
recurrent
protein
similar
neuroendocrine
36
Q

Fundic gland polyps
• Occur in the ____ and present as multiple small polypoid projections
• These polyps can occur individuals with
• ____ syndrome
• Long term ____ use
• ____ (will be discussed more in lower GI lecture series)

• Dysplasia or cancer may occur in familial adenomatous polyposis- associated fundic gland polyps, but sporadic polyps carry no ____ risk

A
gastric body and fundus
zollinger-ellison
proton pump
familial adenomatous polyposis
cancer
37
Q

Gastric adenoma

  • Usually solitary lesions found in the ____ that occur on a background of chronic gastritis with atrophy and intestinal metaplasia
  • Unlike for colon, gastric adenomas are not the major precursor for ____
  • Most gastric adenocarcinomas are not associated with an ____
  • However, gastric adenomas are a precursor to some gastric ____
  • Like fundic gland polyps, the incidence of adenomas is increased in individuals with ____
  • Endoscopy cannot distinguish gastric adenomas from other benign ____
  • Reported frequency of ____ arising within an adenoma ranges up to 40% • Risk of carcinoma is greater in larger ____, e.g. greater than ____ cm
A
antrum
adenocarcinoma
adenoma
carcinomas
familial adenomatous polyposis
gastric polups
carcinoma
polyps
2
38
Q

Fundic gland polyp versus gastric adenoma

• Clinically, fundic gland polyps can be mistaken for an ____
• Gastric adenomas are more common in the ____, whereas fundic
gland polyps are seen in the ____
• This distinction is important because fundic gland polyps carry virtually no risk of developing ____, whereas adenomas carry a significant risk for ____

A
adenoma
antrum
body and fundus
carcinoma
malignancy
39
Q

Gastric adenocarcinomas

• Adenocarcinoma is the most common malignancy of the ____, comprising more that 90% of all gastric cancers
• Majority of gastric carcinomas are located in the ____ and ____ advanced stages
• Metastases are often detected at time of ____
• Sites most commonly involved include the ____ lymph node
(Virchow node)

  • Gastric dysplasia and adenomas are precursor lesions associated with ____
  • In the United States gastric cancer rates dropped by more than 85% during the 20th century
  • Overall reduction cause is closely linked to decreases in ____ prevalence
A
stomach
pylorus
antrum
diagnosis
supraclavicular sentinel
adenocarcinoma
H. pylori
40
Q

Gastric adenocarcinoma

Risk factors
• Migration studies suggest importance of ____ factors on gastric cancer rates
• Immigrants from high-incidence countries retain the same rates of their ____ country, while subsequent generations acquire incidence rates of their ____ countries
• Environmental factors such as ____ and smoking have been linked to gastric cancer
• Diets rich in ____, nitrates, salt, smoked foods, and complex carbohydrates are associated with increased gastric cancer risks
• ____ recognized as established cause of gastric cancer

A
environmental
original
new
diet
nitrites
H. pylori
41
Q

Gastric adenocarcinoma

Prognosis
• Depth of ____ and extent of nodal and distant ____ at time of diagnosis are the strongest prognostic indicators
• Local invasion into the ____ and ____ is common
• With surgical resection of early gastric cancer, 5 year survival is ____%
• In contrast, 5 year survival rate for advanced gastric cancer is less than ____

A
invasion
metastases
dudodenum
pancreas
90
20
42
Q

Neuroendocrine (carcinoid) tumors

  • Three types of gastric neuroendocrine tumors
  • Type I, tumors arising in the setting of ____
  • Type II, tumors associated with____ syndrome and also ____, type I
  • Type III, ____ lesions

• Elevated levels of ____ are associated with Types I and II; whereas, type III is
unassociated with ____
• Patients with neuroendocrine tumors can present with “____ syndrome” which is caused by the overproduction of neuroendocrine hormones
• ____, diarrhea, asthma, facial edema, and headache

• In general, carcinoid tumors associated with hypergastrinemia (types I and II) are relatively ____, whereas sporadic (type III) require ____ surgical management

A

autoimmune chronic gastritis
zollinger-ellison
multiple endocrine neoplasia
sporadic

gastrin
hypergastrinemia
carcinoid
flushing

benign
aggressive

43
Q

Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST)
• GISTs are the majority of ____ neoplasms of the stomach
• Most GISTs in adults are accompanied by sporadic mutations of the
____ gene
• These GISTs respond to ____ (Gleevac)
• In contrast, tumors without these mutations are generally ____

  • Response can be total ____ of the tumor
  • But recurrence can be in the form of ____ that has acquired resistance
  • Most common site of metastases of GISTs are the ____, peritoneum, and ____
A

nonepithelial
KIT
tyrosine kinase inhibitor imatinib
resistant

regression
tumor
liver
lungs

44
Q

Review: KIT gene
• GISTs have a change in KIT gene which makes a protein that causes
cells grow and divide, i.e. receptor tyrosine kinases
• These receptor tyrosine kinase proteins are also called ____ or ____
• The KIT gene is usually ____ in interstitial cells of Cajal, which are the cells from which GISTs develop
• KIT gene is only active if there is a need for ____ interstitial cells of Cajal
• In GISTs the KIT gene is mutated and always active, so the cells are always ____ and dividing

A
c-KIT
CD117
inactive
more
growing
45
Q

GISTs can present with hereditary syndromes

• Neurofibromatosis type 1
• Characterized by ____, freckling, and neurofibromas, malignant
peripheral ____ tumors, and ganglioneuromas
• Defect in ____ gene

• Familial GIST
• Inherited ____ mutation characterized by younger age of GIST occurrence and
with multiple GISTs, pigmentation

  • Carney’s triad
  • Characterized by multiple stomach GISTs at a ____ age, paragangliomas, and ____
  • Inherited mutation in ____ gene
A

cafe-au-lait
nerve sheath
NF1

KIT
younger
pulmonary chondromas
succinate dehydrogenase (SDH)