10-10.1.6 Flashcards
(97 cards)
1
Q
How many weapons stations are on the P-8a?
A
11 weapons’ stations
5 weapons bay (5-9)
4 wing stations (1,2,10,11)
2 fuselage (3,4)
2
Q
How many buoys are carried on the aircraft?
A
129 A-sized sonobuoys
96 in the storage racks
30 in the SRLs
3 in the SSLs
3
Q
Where are smoke and SUS launched?
A
Free fall chute only
4
Q
What is the free fall chute used for?
A
Smoke
SUS
Venting buoy
5
Q
What types of BRUs do we carry and where are they located?
A
BRU-76/A on wings
BRU-75/A on the fuselage
BRU-75/A in the weapons bay
6
Q
What size ejector hooks are on the 76/As?
A
14-inch
30-inch
7
Q
What size ejector hooks are on the 75/As?
A
14-inch hooks only
8
Q
What is the weight class for the 76/As and 75/As?
A
2,000 lbs weight class for 76s 1,000 lbs weight class for 75s
9
Q
How many SCUs are associated with the fuselage weapons stations?
A
One
10
Q
How many SCUs are associated with the wing stations?
A
Four SCUs
One per rack
11
Q
How many SCUs are associated with the weapons bay?
A
3 SCUs
12
Q
How many SCUs are associated with the sonobuoy system?
A
2 SCUs for buoy launches
13
Q
How many channels are associated with the SMC and why?
A
Two channels for redundancy
14
Q
How many SCUs are there?
A
10 SCUs
Four for wings
Three for weapons bay
Two for buoys
One for fuselage
15
Q
Weapons bay characteristics
A
BRU-75/A
1,000-lbs weight class
14-inch hooks
Three SCUs
16
Q
Fuselage station characteristics
A
BRU-75/A
1,000-lbs weight class
14-inch hooks
One SCU
17
Q
Wing station characteristics
A
BRU-76/A
2,000-lbs weight class
14-inch, 30-inch hooks
Four SCUs
18
Q
What is the relationship between the SMC and the SCUs?
A
SMC is the bus controller for the SCUs
I.e. SCUs are remote terminals
19
Q
What does SMC stand for?
A
Stores Management Computer
20
Q
Where is the SMC located?
A
E820
21
Q
What is the relationship between the HPACS and BRUs?
A
HPACS provide air pressure to the BRU accumulators
22
Q
Relate the following terms:
Pressure detect circuit
Pressure transducer
BRU accumulator
A
Transducer checks pressure in the accumulator is within 3,800-5,999 psi
If limits are exceeded, the pressure detect circuit will disable the BRU
23
Q
What is the warning associated with BRU pressure limits?
A
Pressure below 3800 psi or above 5999 psi will result in the inability to fire the BRU and a subsequent hung store.
24
Q
What is the note regarding fuselage stations?
A
The fuselage stations 3 and 4 are not currently authorized for use.
25
BRU-76/A carries and ejects a weapon weighting up to...
2,500 lbs
26
What does CRU stand for?
Connector retention unit
27
What is the function of the CRU?
Connection point for lanyard
Extension/retraction of the umbilical
The CRU provides a hard point for the lanyard to effect the release of the connector from the weapon and also allows extension/retraction of the umbilical connector during loading and following release.
28
An accumulator located in the BRU stores 40 cubic inches of compressed air at _____ psi from the pneumatic system.
(BRU-76/A)
5,000 psi
29
How are the sway braces different between BRU-76/As vs 75/As?
BRU-75/A (weapons bay/fuselage) the sway braces are on the ejector pistons
BRU-76/As (wings) the sway braces are mounted on the rack structure
30
What does RIFL stand for?
Reversible in-flight lock
31
What is the function of the RIFL?
Internal 'safe' device
32
Explain what happens once the RIFL solenoid is energized.
RIFL solenoid is energized
RIFL Pneumatic Actuator extends
Mechanical safety is removed
Three electrical switches are closed
Enabling receipt of the Release signals from the SMS
And sending the RIFL Armed status signal to the SMS
BRU is then armed and ready to release a weapon
33
What is the function of the pitch valves?
Adjusts airflow between forward/aft ejectors allowing for safe store separation
The pitch valves provide yaw control, necessary pitch rates, release attitudes, and end-of-stroke velocities to ensure safe store separation during weapon launch and jettison. This separation is accomplished by adjusting the air flow to the forward and aft ejectors individually.
34
What is the warning regarding firing pneumatics ejectors without a store in place
Firing pneumatic ejectors without a store in place may result in catastrophic failure of the ejector and may cause serious injury or death to personnel.
35
What is the function of the Accumulator (in the BRUs)?
Provides pressure for weapon separation
Stores 40 cubic inches of compressed air at 5,000 psi. Compressed air actuates the release mechanism and pneumatic pistons to facilitate weapon launch.
36
What is the function of the Release Solenoid?
Actuates hook release
Release Solenoid — Initiates weapon launch by pneumatically actuating hook release. The RIFL must be armed before the release solenoid can initiate weapon release.
37
What is the function of the Pressure Transducer?
Monitors accumulator pressure and reports to SMS.
38
The FIRL solenoid energizes when the following conditions are met:
BRA
BRU Power Switch is in the ON position
RIFL 1 and/or RIFL 2 signals are present
Accumulator pressure is in range
39
When the RIFL actuator extends, it closes three electrical switches. What is the function of the three electrical switches?
Two of these switches allow Release 1 and 2 signals to pass to the release solenoid, and one sends RIFL armed status to the SMS.
40
What is the function of the bellcrank?
Controls the hook release mechanism.
When all safeties have been released, the release solenoid actuates a piston that pushes the bellcrank down, facilitating hook release.
41
What is the function of the mechanical blockers?
Prevent inadvertent weapon launch
42
During a weapon download, the RIFL download handle is set to download (not vertical). What happens to the primary and secondary mechanical blockers?
Primary blockers are disengaged, allowing the bellcrank to release hooks but
Secondary blockers remain in place, inhibiting release solenoid actuation
43
What are the two levels of saving provided by the blockers?
Primary blockers - prevent hook release
| Secondary blockers - prevent release solenoid actuation (I.e pneumatic piston activation)
44
What are the pitch valve settings for BRU-75/As vs BRU-76/As?
75/A - 1-1
| 76/A - 3-3
45
What is the warning regarding incorrect pitch valve settings?
Multiple, sequential wing store ejections with incorrect wing BRU pitch valve settings (i.e., other than 3-3) may result in wing structural damage or failure.
46
What is the function of the vent valve (red circle near pitch valve settings on BRU)?
Manual pressure release for maintenance
47
What is the function of the pressure gauge on the BRU?
Visual read out for BRU accumulator
48
What signals are sent through the BRU power ON switch?
RIFL 1 and/or 2
| Arming power
49
If the BRU is powered OFF, can you jettison stores?
No
| No release or jettison for station
50
What is the name of the black and red 'handle' on the BRU?
RIFL download handle (black)
| RIFL status indicator (red)
51
What does RIFL status indicator set to SAFE/LOCKED mean?
Primary and secondary mechanical blockers are engaged
| Hooks can't be released, ejector pistons can't fire
52
What does the RIFL status indicator set to LOAD mean?
Primary blockers are disengaged (hooks can be released)
Secondary blockers are engaged
(Ejector piston cannot fire)
53
What does the RIFL status indicator set to ARMED mean?
Primary and secondary blockers are disengaged for weapon release
(This position only occurs during launch or jettison)
54
What is the note regarding RIFL ARMED (RIFL status indicator)?
Armed does not mean BRU is armed (rather then safed)
Although, you should not be seeing ARMED except when a weapon is being released or ejected
55
What does MANUAL RELEASE on the BRU mean?
Manually releases hooks
| once RIFL download handle is in download position - I.e. Primary blockers are disengaged
56
What is the function of the DOWNLOAD function on the BRU?
RIFL download handle set to download allows manual release actuation disengaging primary mechanical blockers facilitating hook release and weapon download
57
What is the normal position of the RIFL download handle with a store and without a store?
With a store - vertical (Primary and secondary blockers engaged)
Without a store - handle is between vertical and DOWNLOAD position (approx. 2 o'clock position)
58
When is a loaded weapon/BRU considered safe?
BRU on (with loaded weapon)
1. Mechanical Safety Handle Position Indicator (red) is in Safe/Locked position.
2. Download Handle (black) is vertical.
3. Hook Position Indicators are closed.
59
What does WCP stand for?
Weapon Control Panel
60
Where is the WCP located?
Flight deck
61
Sonobuoy arm on/off function
Enables/disables sonobuoy release
62
Sonobuoy release switch function
Releases a selected sonobuoy
63
SONO light function
Indicates request for Sonobuoy arm on or off (blue light)
64
Weapon baydoor switch function
Opens/closes weapons bay doors from flight deck
65
With wight-on-wheels (PSEU GROUND mode) engaged and GMP switch in FLIGHT, is the Weapon baydoor switch functional?
Yes
66
With wight-on-wheels (PSEU GROUND mode) engaged and GMP switch in GROUND, is the Weapon baydoor switch functional?
No
67
Caution regarding operating weapon bay doors from the WCP
Operating the Weapon Bay Doors using the WEAPON BAYDOOR switch while the only source of hydraulic pressure is from the electrically driven hydraulic pumps may cause damage to the system. The WEAPON BAYDOOR switch is designed to command high-flow hydraulics to open and close the weapon bay doors and should only be used when high-flow hydraulics are provided by the engine-driven hydraulic pumps or an external hydraulic source capable of meeting the demand.
68
Note regarding weapon baydoor switch while on ground
The WEAPON BAYDOOR switch should remain in the CLOSE position when the aircraft is on the ground.
69
Weapon bay door light function
Indicates a request to either open or close the weapon bay doors (blue)
70
Note regarding weapon bay door light while MCDS is initializing
The WEAPON BAYDOOR light may display erroneous indications during MCDS initialization and should be ignored.
71
Where is the control for EO/IR turret extension?
WCP (flight deck)
72
```
Jettison mode selector
All
Ext
Off
Sel
```
ALL — Selects jettison of all weapons, including weapon bay.
EXT — Selects jettison of only external weapons.
OFF — Indicates jettison execute switch is not activated.
SEL — Selects jettisons of only weapons selected in TOMS by the mission crew.
73
Note regarding rotating jettison mode selector switch
Rotating the Jettison Mode Selector to OFF, ALL or SEL during the jettison sequence terminates the jettison sequence. If a SCU has already received a release initiate command, it completes its individual release, which may result in additional stores release.
74
Jettison execute switch function
Initiates the selected jettison mode
75
Master arm switch function
Arms the weapon selected for release
76
Note regarding mater arm function
Using Master Arm will result in an armed weapon release; jettison is the only means of weapon release in an unarmed configuration.
77
What is the only means of weapon release in an unarmed configuration?
Jettison
78
Master arm light function
Indicates a request to move master arm switch position (blue light)
79
Kill ready function
Indicates that the selected weapon is armed and ready for release (red)
80
What does GMP stand for?
Ground maintenance panel
81
Where is the GMP located?
Starboard main wheel well area
82
If the sonobuoy switch (GMP) is in the off position can you release buoys?
No
| Buoys cannot be launch on deck or in flight
83
Does the sonobuoy switch (GMP) affect any other part of the SLS other than inhibiting launch?
This switch does not affect any other functions of the sonobuoy launch system.
84
Can buoys be loaded with the sonobuoy switch (GMP) in the on position?
Yes
| Sonobuoy loading can be done with the switch in either position (ON/OFF).
85
Light switch (GMP) function
PSEU GROUND - turned lights on
| PSEU AIR - lights extinguish
86
What is the function of the door switch?
(PSEU GROUND
Mode: ground)
Door switch will function (must be held)
87
What is the function of the door switch?
(PSEU GROUND
Mode: FLIGHT)
Door switch will not function in flight mode
88
Mode switch flight/ground
FLIGHT - WCP controls weapons bay doors
GROUND - GMP controls weapons bay doors (if PSEU GROUND)
89
Warning regarding checking GMP before entering the weapon bay
Failure to ensure the following before entering the weapon bay may result in injury or death:
Weapon bay door switch in the STOP position
Weapon bay door system power indicator (red) is extinguished
Weapons bay door safety a/b switches are in the off position and the weapon bay door safety lockout pin is installed
90
weapon bay door A and B switch function
Enables/disables WBDDS ECU (A or B side)
| Spring loaded to ON
91
Power indicator light (red) on GMP function
Red indicates ECU is powered (A or B switches are on)
| Extinguished indicates ECU not powered
A/B switches off
92
Is there an audio port on the GMP?
Yes, it connects to ICS
93
MODE FLIGHT/GROUND
| GROUND
PSEU GROUND
GMP controls weapons bay doors and lights (i.e. Not WCP)
94
MODE FLIGHT/GROUND switch
| GROUND
PSEU AIR
MODE FLIGHT/GROUND switch is bypassed
95
PSEU GROUND
| MODE FLIGHT/GROUND set to FLIGHT
WCP controls the operation of the weapons bay doors
| However, do not use with elec hyd pumps only - CAUTION
96
SONOBUOY ON/OFF
ON - enables launch valve to activation (buoys may fire)
| OFF - disables launch valve
Buoys won't fire
97
Note regarding sonobuoy on/off switch in flight
If the sonobuoy power switch is in the OFF position in flight, buoy launches are not possible.
