1000 MCQ Flashcards
(358 cards)
1
Q
what is the purpose of inclining the handpiece for lower premolars?
A
to avoid the buccal pulp horn
2
Q
for an amalgam restoration of a weakened cusp you should…
1. reduce cusp by 2mm on a flat base for more resistance
2. reduce cusp by 2mm following the outline of the cusp
3. reduce 2mm retention form
A
reduce cusp by 2mm on a flat base for more resistance
3
Q
before filling a class V abrasion cavity with GIC, you should:
1. clean with pumice, rubber cup, water and weak acid
2. dry the cavity thoroughly before doing anything
3. acid etch cavity then dry thoroughly
A
clean with pumice, rubber cup, water and weak acid
4
Q
describe a class I cavity
A
- pits and fissures on occlusal surface of molars and premolars
- lingual surface of maxillary incisors
5
Q
describe a class II cavity
A
proximal surface of molars and premolars
6
Q
describe a class III cavity
A
proximal surfaces of incisors and canines that do not involve the incisal angle
7
Q
describe a class IV cavity
A
proximal surfaces of incisors or canines that involve the incisal angle
8
Q
describe a class V cavity
A
cervical third of the facial or lingual surfaces of any tooth
9
Q
describe a class VI cavity
A
- incisal edges of anterior teeth
- cusp tips of posterior teeth
10
Q
the retention pin in an amalgam restoration should be placed parallel to what?
A
the outer wall
11
Q
what is the most common failure of an IDB?
A
injecting too high
12
Q
which of the following is not used in water fluoridation?
1. SnF2
2. 1.12% APF
3. H2SiF2
4. CaSiF2
5. 8% stannous fluoride
A
SnF2
13
Q
what is the best chemical to clean a cavity before the placement of GIC?
A
polyacryclic acid
14
Q
what is the most mineralised part of dentine?
A
peritubular dentine
15
Q
what are the symptoms of angioneurotic oedema?
A
- swollen face
- puffiness around the eyes
- oedema of upper lip
- redness and dryness of skin
16
Q
what types of resorption could be seen after replantation of an avulsed tooth?
A
- surface resorption
- external resorption
- inflammatory resorption
- replacement resorption
17
Q
what is the % of total dentine surface that dentine tubules make up 0.5mm away from the pulp?
A
50%
18
Q
describe the junction between primary and secondary dentine
A
a resting line
19
Q
pick the correct sequence of events;
1. differentiation of odontoblast, elongation of enamel epithelium, dentine formation, enamel formation
2. differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then enamel formation, elongation of enamel epithelium
3. elongation of enamel epithelium, differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then enamel formation
A
differentiation of odontoblast, elongation of enamel epithelium, dentine formation, enamel formation
20
Q
what is the sequence from syperficial to the deepest in dentine caries?
A
- Zone of bacterial penetration
- demineralisation
- sclerosis
- reparative dentine
21
Q
the nerve supply of the pulp is composed of which type of nerve fibres?
A
afferent
sympathetic
22
Q
in which direction does the palatal root of the upper first molar usually curve towards?
A
buccal
23
Q
what is the common appearance of vertical tooth fracture?
A
perio abscess like appearance
24
Q
give a possible indication for indirect pulp capping?
A
where any further excavation of dentine would result in pulp exposure
25
what is the main purpose of performing a pulp test on a recently traumatised tooth?
obtain a baseline response
26
what is the main function of EDTA in endodontics?
decalcification of dentine
27
what is EDTA?
Ethylenediamide tetraacetic acid
a chelating agent which combines with calcium ion and inactivates it
28
when should a prscription of 5/10mg of diazepam be given for sedation in order to obtain an acceptable level of anxiolytic action?
one hour preoperatively
29
how long can active metabolites in a prescription of 5/10mg of diazepam give a level of sedation for post operatively?
up to 8 hours
30
what drug is used to reverse the action of benzodiazepine?
flumazepil
31
is 0.1ml blood from an Hepatitis B or HIV carrier more infective?
Hepatitis B
32
what is the main problem that can be anticipated in routine dental therapy in a patient with severe cirrhosis?
tendancy towards prolonged haemorrhage
33
if a patient presents with a fracture to the right body of the mandible, where should you expect a second fracture to be located?
left sub-condylar region
34
what are 2 signs tha commonly suggest cardiac failure in a patient being assessed for oral surgery?
ankle oedema and dyspnoea
35
what is the treatment for a 1cm cyst present at the apex of an upper central incisor?
* make a mucoperiosteal flap
* remove the cyst through an opening made in the alveolar bone
* endodontic treatment
36
what is the best treatment of a persistent oroantral fistula for a 12 week period following the extraction of a maxillary first permanent molar?
excistion of the fistula and surgical closure
37
what is the purpose of prophylatic prescription of dexamethasone for surgical removal of a lower third molar?
**may** reduce post operative swelling
38
what is the purpose of prophylatic prescription of an antibiotic for surgical removal of a lower third molar?
dramtically reduces the chance of infection
39
what are enkephalins?
morphine like substances produced in the CNS, adrenal medulla and other peripheral tissues which can control pain
40
suppuration is the result of the combined action of which four factors?
* necrosis
* presence of lymphocytes
* accumulation of tissue fluid
* autolysis by proeolytic enzymes
41
name 4 intra-epithelial lesions
* herpes simplex infections
* pemphigus vulgaris
* herpangina
* hand, foot and mouth disease
42
name 4 characteristics of trigeminal neuralgia
* pain usually lasts for a few seconds up to a minute in the early stages of disease
* the pain is usually unilateral
* patients characteristically have sites on the skin that when stimulated precipitate an attack of pain
* has a sudden unexpected onset and may respond to the treatment with carbamazepine
43
how does geographic tongue manifest?
atrophy of filiform papillae in multiple irregularly outlined areas
44
what is the clinical name for geographic tongue?
benign migratory glossitis
45
what infection is oral hairy leukoplakia associated with?
HIV
46
where is oral hairy leukoplakia usually seen?
lateral surface of the tongue
47
basal cell carcinoma is characterised by...
1. rapid growth and metastasis
2. local cutaneous invasion
3. inability to invade bone
4. poor prognosis
5. radiation resistance
6. can not metastasise to the bone
local cutaneous invasion
48
what is the mechanism of action of trichloroacetic acid?
protein precipitation PPT
49
why might a patient who has been taking quantities of aspirin show increased post operative bleeding?
aspirin inhibits synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation
50
a patient eho recently had calculus removed from the kidney presents with a radiolucent area in the left maxilla with clinical evidence of swelling. what disease would you immediately suggest?
hyperparathyroidism
51
which factor does Von Willebrand's disease affect?
factor VIII
52
what is the normal range for red blood cells?
male- 4.3-5.9 million
female- 3.5-5.5 million
53
what is the normal range for white blood cells?
4,500-11,000
54
what is the normal range for platelets?
150,000-400,000
55
what is the normal range for haemoglobin?
male- 13.5-17.5
female- 12-16
56
what is the normal blood test result for hematocrit?
41-53%
36-46%
57
which diseases can be indicated by high levels of bilirubin in the blood?
* abnormal red blood cell destruction (hemolysis)
* adverse medication reactions
* bile duct blockage
* Gilbert’s syndrome
* hepatitis
58
what is ALT?
An enzyme found in the liver
59
what diseases can high levels of ALT in the blood indicate?
* cirrhosis
* hepatitis
* liver cancer
* liver damage
60
what is the role of triiodothyronine (T3)?
regulates heart rate and body temperature
61
what is the role of thyroxine (T4)?
regulates metabolism and growth
62
what is the role of thyroid stimulating hormone? (TSH)?
helps regulate the levels of hormones that the thyroid releases
63
what are normal levels of T3?
80–180 nanograms per deciliter of blood (ng/dL)
64
what are normal levels of T4?
0.8–1.8 ng/dL in adults.
65
what are normal levels of TSH?
0.5–4 milli-international units per liter of blood (mIU/L)
66
the tonsillar lymph node is situated at the level of which anatomical feature?
the angle of the mandible
67
name 4 factors which can reduce exposure of the patient to ionising radiation when taking a radiograph
* the use of fast film
* the addition of filtration
* collimation of the beam
* the use of an open and lead lined cone
* decreasing the kilovoltage KvP
68
what particles do the emulsions on x-ray films consist of?
silver bromide in gelatine
69
You wish to purchase a dental X ray machine and
have the choice between 60kVp and 70kVp machines. With single
change from 60kVp to 70kVp what would the approximate affects on exposure time?
half the time
70
what is the obturating material of choice for primary teeth following complete pulpectomy?
zinc oxide and eugenol cement
71
why is proximal reduction greater on a primary molar when preparing for a SS crown greater than that of the buccal and lingual surfaces?
to allow the crown to pass the contact area
72
what is the appropraite treatment of a child who has sustained a fracture of the 11 in which 2m of the pulp is exposed, 3 hours after the injury?
remove the surface 1-2mm of the pulp tissue and place calcium hydroxide
73
which primary teeth are least affected with nursing bottle caries?
mandibular incisors
74
during which stages of tooth development does oligodontia occur?
initiation and proliferation
75
what are the stages of tooth development?
1. initiation
2. proliferation
3. histodifferentiation
4. morphodifferentiation
5. mineralisation
76
what is the preferred treatment for a healthy 6 year old presenting with a carious maxillary second primary molar with a necrotic pulp?
pulpectomy
77
to produce a table correction of an upper labial segment in lingual crossbite it is essential to;
* use fixed appliances
* have adequate overbite
* treat during growth
* use posterior capping
* increase vertical dimension
have adequate overbite
78
how are the lamina dura seen on periapicals?
a pattern of radiopaque lines in supporting alveolar bone
79
Which of the following organisms are pathognomonic of acute necrotic ulcerative gingivitis?
A. Spirochaetes and fusobacterium SP
B. Spirochaetes and eikenella corrodes
C. Polymorphs and lymphocytes
D. Actinobacillus actinomycetes comitans oral capnocytophaga
E. Porphyromonas gingivalis and prevotella intermedia
spirochaetes and fusobacterium
80
In testing for mobility, which of the following statement is true?
A. Heavy pressure must sometimes be used to test mobility
B. Only lateral mobility is significant in diagnosis and
treatment of chronic
inflammatory periodontal disease
C. Hyper mobility indicates that the tooth supporting structure have been weakened
D. During the periodontal examination each tooth should be tested individually for hyper mobility
E. Reliance on radiograph is essential
hyper mobility indicares that the tooth supporting structures have been weakened
81
true or false:
desquamative gingivitis is frequently caused by lichen planus
true
82
why is the treatment of localised aggressive periodontitis frequently supplemented with tetracycline?
because the flora involved are predominantly facultative or microaerophilic
83
what is the most accurate wat to evaluate the effectiveness of root planning?
evaluate the soft tissues 10-14 days later
84
When treating a non vital tooth with a fistula present: the fistula should be treated by…
The usual root canal procedures for a non-vital teeth and no special procedures for fistula
85
To increase the setting time of phosphate cement you would?
Use a cold glass slab
86
A 27 year old female has a sudden odematous rash after an injection of barbiturates. What is your management
IM 0.5ml of 1:1000 adrenaline with oxygen administration
87
50 year old man presented after a full mouth extraction complaining he bled all night. Which of the following pre existing could be responsible for post op bleeding
Blood pressure reading of 180/100
88
Long bone growth by
C. Appositional growth in cartilage epiphysis
D. Interstitial growth in cartilage epiphysis
Research
89
What is true in regard to oral lesions of reticular lichen planus ?
Lesions may present anywhere
90
Bone graft method that has shown the greatest osteogenesis potential is
Cancellous bone graft
91
A patient states that for almost a year they have had a rubbery, firm painless nodule within the substance of parotid gland. This is most likely
Pleomorphic adenoma
92
The best method to radiate a specific area of the head is
Use a lead Collimator
93
The best reading on radiograph to diagnose ankylosis in deciduous molar is
Density of lamina dura
94
What is not characteristic of dentinogenesis imperfecta
Dentinal tubules are more than usual
95
A child wi the less than normal number of teeth, mandibular lateral incisor is larger than usual; on an X-ray it shows two roots and two root canals; the diagnosis is
Fusion
96
The most stable area to evaluate the craneofacial growth is
Anterior cranial base
97
7 year old with class I malocclusion, slight version of maxillary class I; adequate arch length. What is the management
Inclined plane on mandibular anterior teeth
98
Tongue thrust with tongue to lip swallow is seen in
Incompetent lips
99
Clinical indication of pathogenic chronic periodontitis
Presence of true pockets
Apical migration of gingival epithelium!!!
Presence of subgingival calculus
100
To prevent exposure of a ? On a permanent root; the best dentist approach for elevating a flap is to use
Split thickness flap
101
What is true in regards to primary occlusal trauma
Mobility caused by excessive forced on normal periodontal ligament
102
In advanced periodontitis with marked mobility: teeth should be splinted
To improve comfort and function
103
Exam reveals area of gingival recession,exposed wide area of dental roots. Which is the procedure of choice to obtain coverage of the root surface
Free gingival autograft
104
What does contra indicate distal wedge in molar areas
Sharply ascending ramus that limits space distal to molars
105
What is not a property of a fluoride ion
Produces extrinsic tooth strain
106
Two conditions of enamel facilitate post eruptive uptake of Fluoride element
Dental fluorosis and enamel opacities
107
In regards to topically applied fluoride
A & B?
108
Flexibility of the retentive clasp arm does not relate to
Undercut area
109
Protrusive movement in wax
Can not be perforated
110
Least use of blood count
Infectious mononuclears
111
What is the best advantage of using 10,000 rpm and over motors is
Less vibration on the patient
112
How long would it take to see the dentinal bridge after direct pulp capping by using calcium hydroxide
6-8 weeks
113
The optimum crown to root ratio for an abutment tooth is
2:3
114
What contraindicates bridge work
Long edentulous spaces which will lead to damage of abutments
115
Elasticity of impression material will (ideally)
Prevent distortion when impression is removed out of the mouth
116
Patient has come in several time complaining about soreness what would you do?
Check occlusion of lower buccal cusps
117
What is the difference between argon and non arcon articulator
In Arcon the condylar element is in the lower compartment
118
Purplish lesion on the buccal mucosa since birth is diagnosed as
Haemangiona
119
Elevators are not used in
Dividing third lower molar roots
120
What is contraindicated to the use of calcium hydroxide for pulp capping
Various exposure of pulp in tooth that has been painful for weeks
121
How would you treat a hyperaemic tooth?
Corticosteroid paste
122
Patient is complaining of pain in a tooth, it has a composite filling placed a long time ago, what do you do
X-ray, remove the filling and restore with temporary filling
123
Use of inhalation general anaesthesia
Oxygen must not be less than 30%
124
Bilateral symmetrical swelling of the mandible of a child is likely to be because by
Giant cell lesion
125
What is the fissure sealant treatment for prevention
Place sealant on pre molar and molar teeth as soon after they erupt
126
Periodontal pocket is measured between
Top of gingiva to the base
127
When you apply pressure of 0.25n to measure pocket depth what depth indicates possible periodontitis
Greater or equal to 4mm
128
What is not found in normal periodontal membranes
Inflammatory plasma cells and lymphocytes
129
What makes periodontal disease more severe
Missing proximal contacts
130
The auxiliary occlusal test of a tooth for partial denture should be placed
Adjacent to edentulous space
131
A vital root has a crown cemented to a pin retained amalgam cored: where does failure occur
Between core and cement
132
What does not result of a toxic dosage of local anaesthetic
Respiratory depression
133
Swallowing aids in the diagnosis of
Thyroglossal duct cyst
134
What is not true about tobacco smoking
- redox potential favours growth of anaerobic bacteria
- it is caries immuno- suppressive
- it is adrenergic
- affects neutrophils and chemotactic factors
It is caries immunosuppressive
135
On X-ray you found the gutta percha cone extending 1mm beyond the apex without any symptoms; what would you do
C
136
On X-ray you found the cement of previous root canal treatment is extending 1mm beyond the apex without any symptoms; what would you do
C
137
What is the main purpose of using corticosteroids in pimpla obturation material
B
138
What nerve supplies upper first molars
Posterior and mid superior alveolar nerves
139
The main of damage gingival tissues after placing rubber dam is
B
140
The advantage of using the lingual plate on lingual bar is
It acts as indirect retention
141
Retention in precision attachment is achieved by
Frictional resistance
142
How much under cut area a clasp arm should engage
C
Should be 1mm above the CEJ and 0.25mm under survey line
143
What is characteristic of fibrotic gingivitis
B
144
Bone is characterised by
A
The small vascular canals that run longitudinally in the centre of Haversian systems of compact osseous tissue, through which the blood vessels ratify in bind
145
Why we do not use in long span bridge works
Because of the high casting shrinking of porcelain
146
You have a patient with class II div II, which if the following is contraindicated
964
B
147
How would you cover buccal bicuspid for lower premolar when making a metallic porcelain crown
965 b
148
What is the main cause of bilateral cheilosis
966 b
A if only denture options
149
What sort of alloys do you use for bridges
967
A
150
What sort of material is used for the fabrication of Maryland bridges
968 c
151
When the neck of the condyle is fractured; what muscles determine the movement of the superior segment
969 a
152
Patient with prosthetic heart Valves and an INR value of 3; requires surgery, what is your management
970
A
153
Chronic OAF for some time after extraction. What is your management
971
B
154
Pigment naevus can undergo malignant
972 c
155
The most common sites for SCC in the oral cavity are
973
B
Lateral tongue
Floor of mouth
Lower vermillion border
Lip border
Alveolar ridge
156
Patient has painful lesions on buccal mucosa. Biopsy reports scantholysis and supra basilare; your diagnosis is
975 a
157
Oral mucosal pigmentation: what is true
Commonly seen in ethnic groups
Commonly an amalgam tattoo
Commonly oral melanoma
Commonly melanotic naevus
975 a
158
What is true about osteogenesis imperfecta
976 b
159
Increasing what will decrease density of the radiograph
977 E
160
What increases sharpness of a radiograph
B
161
The most common staphylococcal infection is
979 a
162
What is true about basal cell carcinoma
D
163
Im severe periodontitis the probe
981
B? C?
164
What is characteristic of mucogingival involvement
982
C
165
The role of guided tissue regeneration is
983 a
166
Critical plaque pH is
984 b
167
When is it acceptable for dentist to hold radiographic film packet in their mouth
985 c
168
What is a common because of poor diagnosis in avulsion replantation
External resorptive defects
169
Posterior vital molar with core the best material to restore it with is
Amalgam
170
The function of incisor pin of an articulator is
Horizontal and vertical overlap
171
Which of the following is important consideration when deciding whether to design an upper partial denture without anterior flange
The amount of labial alveolar bone resorption
172
Zinc oxide and Eugenol impression paste
Can not be used in areas with undercuts
173
When restoring with composite resins, why do we do the Cabo surface bevelling
Aesthetics
174
What causes denture stomatitis
Due to over growth of some normal commensal of oral cavity
175
What is the most unfavourable root fracture
In the cervical third
176
The greatest reliable finding to confirm a necrotic pulp is
Area of radiolucency surrounding the apex of the tooth
177
When prepping a class II cavity, there is a hard dark brown spot on the adjacent tooth just below the contact point: it is most likely to be
Demineralised enamel
178
When opening the mouth; in TMJ area
Initial rotation follows by translation of the condyle
179
In cavity prep, 1mm below the DEJ what is seen
997 b
180
Pulp with multiple microabscesses will eventually because
Necrosis
181
Endodontix therapy completed in tooth with periapical radiolucency. Marked reduction in size of radiolucency is expected approximately
One year
182
Well constructed complete dentures
1000 c
183
What drug is taken to reduce disability associated with osteoarthritis
NSAIDs
184
The personnel involved in dental radiographic examination occurs in what order?
Referrer, practicioner and operator
185
In radiographic localisation, the acronym SLOB stands for
Same lingual opposite buccal
186
The probability of photo electric absorption effects occurring in radiography is proportional to
Atomic Number 3 (ZE3)
187
What is the correct colour of film holder to use when taking conventional periapical of tooth 26
Yellow
188
What is true for practitioners according to IRMER 2017
The practitioner must justify every exposure
189
What is a downstream approach that could help reduce dental caries in the child population
Delivery of practice based one to one chairside advise and clinical prevention
190
What is a possible sign of physical child abuse?
multiple injuries around the mouth
191
What is indication for primary molar Endodontics?
good co-operation
192
The property of occlusal forces that the dentist is most able to influence through careful design of occlusal surfaces is
Direction
193
Which percentage of phosphoric acid is normally used to etch enamel prior to placing composite restorations
37% Phosphoric acid
194
In relation to complete dentures, one of the principal objectives of the jaw registration is
to determine the inter maxillary relationship in the retruded contact position
195
In development of dentinal caries, what is the earliest observed event?
beading of tubules
196
A fast irregular pulse in a patient who is suddenly acutely breathless would suggest
Atrial Fibrillation
197
In healthy teeth, the biological width, comprising the supra-alveolar connective tissue attachment and junctional epithelium has an approximate dimension of:
2mm
198
At re-evaluation under what circumstances would periodontal surgery be indicated?
excellent oral hygiene and pockets greater than or equal to 5mm
199
The inverse care law is used to describe
areas most in need of good health care are least likely to receive it
200
What is the maximum safe dose of paracetamol that a fit healthy patient can take in 24 hours
4g
201
For epidemiological purposes periodontal health can be measured by which index?
CPITN
202
You are examining the neck of a patient who had a recent throat infection. Which nodes would likely to be enlarged
deep cervical nodes only
203
What of the following community fluoride delivery initiatives are currently in place across Scotland
Fluoride varnish schemes in nurseries and schools
204
What can be defined as an individuals belief that they can succeed at a particular task or behaviour
self efficacy
205
in terms of medical devices, which statement best defines sterility
an instrument is sterile if the probability that there are viable microbes on the instrument is equal to 1 in a million
206
explain all classes of Spaulding classification
Critical - contact normally sterile tissue and must be sterilised
semi critical - are those that contact only intact mucous membranes and should be sterilised
non critical - only contact intact skin and are cleaned/disinfected
207
synthesis of extracellular polysaccharide in plaque formation is greatest when which one of the following sugars is present within the diet
sucrose
208
what is the role of glycocalyx in biofilms
it provides a protective barrier
209
deamination of amino acids
produces amines
210
when thinking about potential post op bleeding following tooth extraction, what is a systemic homeostatic agent that could be used to help alleviate prolonged bleeding
Tranexamic acid
211
What is the documented incidence of permanent neuro-sensory damage to the inferior alveolar nerve following extraction of low risk wisdom teeth
<1%
212
If treating a patient with a 7mm overate and deep traumatic overbite what instruction would you include on the laboratory prescription
flat anterior bite plane 10mm wide
213
In orthodontist anterior bite planes are used for
reducing overbite
214
what is a common symptom of childhood leukaemia
Bleeding gingiva
215
during root canal instrumentation of a scleroses canal what provides greatest benefit in making exploration easier
EDTA
216
A patient who has a satisfactory root treated lower molar and you intend to place a crown. What is the best method of retaining a core
Use of adhesion only
217
What is the most common space for an acute absecess to track from in an upper lateral incisor tooth
Buccal
218
An elderly patient feels faint when they stand up from lying in the dental chair. The most likely reason for this is
Reduced baroreceptor response – postural hypertension
219
A 25 year old with severe intellectual disability attends the practice with his carers. He needs several restorations and extractions . who can consent to this
Welfare guardian
220
A 25 year old with severe intellectual disability attends the practice with his carers. He needs several restorations and extractions . who can consent to this
Welfare guardian
221
What difference is not a cause of varying temperature regulation in children compared to adults
Brown fat metabolism
222
When preparing an upper first permanent molar for a metal ceramic crown, a functional cusp bevel is placed on which cusp
Mesiopalatal
223
What is the correct degree of axial taper in an ideal crown prep
7 degrees
224
The fit surface of a porcelain laminate veneer is prepared with which acid
Hydrofluroic acid
225
What is the recommended treatment for intrusion injury of primary teeth
Extraction
226
A patient has been losing weight and getting increasingly breathless, GP takes blood to test for anameia. What is the first line blood test to request
Full blood count
227
A male consumes 14 units of alcohol over the week in 2 days. What advise should you give him
He is consuming the recommended maximum number of units of alcohol a week but encourage him to spread these out over 5 days with 2 alcohol free days
228
Haemophilia A is caused by deficiency of
Factor 8
229
The process of blinding and masking in randomised controlled trial helps to minimise
The risk of bias
230
What substance is active against bacteria, fungi, yeast and viruses
Chlorhexidine
231
Which study design should be used to: evaluate is ibuprofen and paracetamol are more effective than paracetamol alone in pain relief
Randomised control trial
232
When undertaking root canal treatment, what inter-visit regimen should generally be utilised within the toot canal
Non setting calcium hydroxide
233
Patient's with RA have difficulty holding a toothbrush due to the destruction of what joints
Metacarpopharyngeal joints
234
What dental problem is associates with children with severe cerebral palsy?
Bruxism
235
Patient with dementia needs a new upper denture. What should you do since you have done the additional section 47 training course
Consult welfare POA, complete the section 47 form and provide treatment
236
A patient is taking alendronic acid and it is the only medication she has been prescribed. She needs a non surgical tooth extraction. How should they be managed
Extract tooth and review 4 weeks later
237
A patient with RA who is dependent on a wheelchair. Your practice is on the 3rd floor and is only accessible by stairs. How should you manage the situation?
Refer the patient to a practice or public dental service that has access for wheelchair users
238
A patient attends 6 months after radiotherapy to his left tonsillar tumour. He has a dry mouth and wears a maxillary complete denture and has 10 missing mandibular teeth remaining. You prescribe saliva substitutes. What one should you not prescribe ?
Glandosane aersosol spray – damages enamel
239
A female with type 1 Von Willebrands disease needs extraction of 3 molar teeth
What medication will they require prior to removing teeth
Desmopressin
240
Hypothyroid patient's will be found to have
A low T4 and high TSH
241
When positioning a patient for panoramic radiograph, what anatomical reference should be horizontal
Frankfort plane
242
What is the most likely processing fault resulting in a radiographic image being too dark
Too much time in developer
243
How often should test film be exposed and processed in general dental practice for quality assurance
Daily
244
The primary aim of a clinical audit is to:
Improve patient care and outcomes
245
When positioning a patient for an upper anterior oblique radiograph which reference is used to assess the occlusal plane
Ala-tragus line
246
Elastomers can reproduce surface features of width
20 um
247
What vessel has bled from a head injury if the patient experiences delayed confusion and unable to walk
Superior cerebral vein
248
A class III AP skeletal relationship is defined as
The mandible is less than 2-3mm behind the maxilla
249
A fit and healthy patient attends with poor plaque control, generalised gingival erythema and bleeding on gentle probing. There is no evidence of attachment loss. What is the first line treatment
Oral hygiene instruction
250
A site has probing depth of 7mm and the gingival margin is located 2mm coronal of the ACJ the loss of attachement is
5mm
251
what is true of children with cystic fibrosis
Thick mucus prevents the proper movement of cilia in the respiratory tract
252
a patient has a sustained deep cut on the posterior part of the body of the mandible on the left side of the face. The facial artery and the submandibular salivary gland were not damaged. The wound has been sutured. Which of the following clinical tests would be the most appropriate to carry out
test sensation of the face
253
What is Christensen's phenomenon
a gap that appears between posterior ends of opposing flat occlusal rims when the mandible is protruded
254
what is the principal radiographic sign of chronic occlusal trauma
widening of the PDL space
255
what is the most appropriate post-surgical advice to give to a patient who has just had a tooth extraction
avoid eating until the effect of the anaesthetic has worn off
256
A lateral ceph radiograph is taken for a patient requiring what type of orthodontic treatment
functional appliance therapy
257
After removal of the lower wisdom tooth a patient returns a week later with sharp shooting pain affecting the lower lip. what is the term used to describe this?
dysaesthesia
258
A patient previously taking warfarin has been prescribed a medication directly inhibiting thrombin. He needs multiple extractions and the appointment is 9am. What instruction would you give?
miss morning dose of dabigatran and take medication as normal in the evening
259
what is an intravenous bisphosphonate drug that may complicate routine dental extractions
Zoledronic Acid
260
what is a rule for flap design
The base of the slap should be wider than the apex
261
What is the correct colour of the Rinn film holder for taking bitewing radiographs
Red
262
All healthcare workers should be immunised against
Hepatitis B
263
as well as mercury vapour suppressant, how would you safely dispose of waste amalgam ?
place in spill proof and waste proof container
264
when are alcohol hand rubs/gels effective
only when hands are visibly clean
265
Which micro-organism is most commonly responsible for venous cannulae related infections?
Staphylococcus epidermidis
266
what is the pH of ideal detergent for the washer disinfector closest to
7
267
weakness of lower facial muscles and upper limb on the same side suddenly occurs during dental treatment, what do you suspect the patient has?
Transient ischaemic attack
268
In dental panoramic radiography, what is true about the xray beam
it is aimed upwards at approximately 8 degrees
269
Intra-oral charge coupled device (CCD) digital x-ray sensors
are more sensitive to xrays than F-speed film
270
What bacteria is associated with periodontitis
Porphyromonas gingivalis
271
what are candida albican biofilms sensitive to
caspofungin
272
a male with cerebral palsy requires 2 restorations. they use a wheelchair and are unable to weight bear. To facilitate his access what is most suitable to use
sling and hoist
273
A 60 year old patient has a diagnosis of myeloma for 3 years. He has an area of exposed bone in the lower right posterior aspect of the mandible which has been present for 10 weeks, following a tooth extraction. What is your diagnosis?
Medication Related Osteonecrosis of the Jaw (MRONJ)
274
In the most common form of dementia, which protein is a key pathological role
Tau Protein
275
an 83 year old woman is eating salmon and thinks that a fish bone is stuck in her throat. She is able to speak and no bone is visible on oral exam. At which site is the fishbone most likely to have lodged?
Piriform Fossa
276
A dental radiograph shows the pterygoid hamulus. Of which bone is the pterygoid hamulus a component?
Sphenoid
277
When preparing a tooth for a restoration, which factor will help in reducing trauma to the dental pulp
Providing adequate coolant
278
Following extraction of a single tooth under local anaesthesia, what is used to determine suitable occlusal contacts ?
Use thin articulating paper
279
What nerves are anaesthetised when an upper canine tooth is extracted
Nasopalatine and greater palatine nerves, anterior and middle superior alveolar nerves and infraorbital nerve
280
When positioning a patient for an upper anterior oblique occlusal radiograph, which external line or plane is used to assess the occlusal plane
Ala-tragus line
281
dose reduction in intraoral radiography is best achieved by which combination
Rectangular collimation, F speed film
282
Prescribing medication for children requres alteration from an adult prescription. The most important change to make is
The dose of the drug
283
what is a complication of independent living for elderly patients with diabetes.
Maculopathy
284
Patients with significant oral ulceration may have underlying anaemia. Which medical problem is likely to because this
Peptic Ulcer disease
285
In patients with excellent plaque control, application of an intermittent non-axial occlusal force to a tooth may give rise to
widening of the periodontal ligament and increased mobility
286
The retruded axis (centric relation)
Is a dynamic relationship during which the mandible oends and closes on a reproducible hinge axis
287
Chroma refers to which element of the restorations colour
The intensity of the colour
288
After extraction on a fit and healthy patient they return to the surgery 3 hours later with bleeding from the extraction. What is the immediate management
Get the patient to bite on a gauze pack
289
Under conditions of high sugar supply, what chemical is preferably formed under anaerobic conditions
Lactate
290
Facultative anaerobes
Grow in the presence or asence of oxygen
291
What is not an oral biofilm infection
Oesophageal candidosis
292
The zygomatic process of the maxilla is partly seen as a vertical radiopaque line on a panoramic radiograph. With what bony margin of the maxillary sinus can it be confused?
Posterior
293
Synthesis of extracellular polysaccharide in plaque formation is greatest when what sugar is present within the diet
Sucrose
294
during root canal instrumentation of a sclerosed canal which chemical provides the greatest benefit making exploration easier?
EDTA
295
In root canal treatment what is the recommend shape for the access cavity of the maxillary and mandibular premolars
Oblong
296
bilateral ankle swelling that worsens as the day progresses would suggest the patient has
Congestive Heart Failure
297
Liver cirrhosis is best characterised by
Disorganised liver repair
298
A fast irregular pulse in a patient who is suddenly acutely breathless would suggest
Atrial fibrillation
299
Persistent lip swelling and recurrent oral ulceration could be a feature of
Crohns disease
300
what strength of once daily fluoride mouthwash would you recommend to a nine year old child
225 ppm
301
A patient in anaphylaxis has developed sudden obstruction of the upper larynx. Where is an emergency airway needle best inserted
Between the thyroid and cricoid cartilage
302
which pair of muscles are important for retaining dentures in their correct position ?
Buccinator and orbicularis oris
303
What is the purpose of a face bow in the construction of a bridge
To record the relationship of the upper arch to the mandibular condyles
304
What material has the best mechanical properties for the restoration of occlusal surfaces
Gold
305
In dental panoramic radiography horizontal magnification of all the anterior teeth will be caused by which patient positioning error
the patient is too far back in the machine (closer to the xray source)
306
For intra oral cray film and film packet what is true
The film has an embossed dot on it which faces towards the xray source
307
What bacteria does alcohol gel not kill
C deficile
308
which developmental condition has the characteristic parrot beak nose
aperts
309
What are the correct stages of caries hitting dentine
beading of tubules, invasion of pioneer bacteria, demineralisation, pulp necrosis
310
what colour of film holder is used for anterior PA
blue
311
What chemical is used for cleaning blood spillages
Sodium dichloroisocyanurate
312
which enzyme produces glucans
glucose transferylase
313
what is the function of a buccal canine retractor
moves bucally placed canine palatally
314
what is an intrinsic factor of staining
tetracycline
315
carbamine peroxide concentration
16%
316
what is the frequency of radiographs for high risk adults
6 months
317
when the mandible is moved right and on the other side teeth do not contact
group function
318
what is the first line blood test for anaemia
FBC
319
what may a person with severee learnign difficulty have
welfare guardian
320
What is the function of a facebow registration
Transfer the relationshop betwenn the maxillary teeth and the axis of mandibular rotation
321
what is a function of a facebow
tranfer the angle of the occlusal plane relative to a horizontal reference plane
322
Through careful design of occlusal surfaces the property of occlusal forces the densist is most able to influence is
Direction
322
Through careful design of occlusal surfaces the property of occlusal forces the densist is most able to influence is
Direction
323
The principle radiographic sign of occlusal trauma is
generalised widening of the PDL space
324
When viewed from the lateral aspect, the downward movement of the condyle during protrusion forms an angle to the horizontal plane known as
The saggital condylar guidance angle
325
For complete dentures, one of the principal objectives of the jaw registration is
To determine the intermaxillary relationship in the retruded contact position
326
In the intercuspal position, ideally
the tips of the palatal cusps of the upper posterior teeth should occlude with the occlusal surfaces of the lower posterior teeth
327
During mastication, whilst chewing on the left molar teeth
The right condylar head moves dowwards, forwards and medially
328
What articular is suitable for use when constructing complete dentures
simple hinge, fixed condylar, semi adjustable, fully adjustable
329
What is christensen's phenomenon
A gap that appears between psterior ends of opposing flat occlusal rims when the mandible is protruded
330
Which of the following is the most unlikely to be a consequence of adverse occlusal forces
Chronic periodontitis
331
During closure along the returded axis, the point at which the teeth contact is called
The retruded contact position
332
During lateral excursion the predominant movement of the working condyle is
Rotation about a vertical axis
333
The retruded axis is a mandibular position dependant on the presence of teeth
True or False
False
334
The retuded axis is a border movement
True or False
True
335
When the condylar heads are in the most superior position within the mandibular fossa the mandible is in protrusion
True or False
False
336
At the end of the chewing cycle the mandible aims for the intercuspal position
True or False
True
337
What is the optimum depth of a self threading pin for an amalgam restoration
2mm
338
Who has automatic consent for GA
Mother
339
what is the most important factor for long term success of a crown
2-3mm from the apex and coronal seal
340
what is the shape of preparation for endo of tooth 21
triangular
341
what causes cystic fibrosis
blocked hepatic duct
342
on CPITN examination the coloured band remains completely visible in all pockets. There is bleeding on probing but no calculus of plaque retentive factors. What is the CPITN score for this sextant
1
343
What s used to correct a buccally positioned canine on a orthodontic laboratory prescription
buccal caniine retractor HSSW 0.5mm in 0.5mm tubing
344
what is the balanced force instrumentation in endodontic file movement
60 degrees clockwise then 120 degrees anticlockwise repeated
345
removable appliances are effective at which tooth movement
tipping
346
how do you assess antero-posterior pattern clinically
palpation of the skeletal bases
347
what measurement represents moderate crowding
4-8mm
348
what is the definition of a Class II division 1 incisor relationship
the lower incisor edges lie posterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors, there is an increased overjet and the incisors are usually proclined
349
what can be used to assess the vertcial skeletal pattern clinically
the frankfort mandibular planes angle
350
the aesthetic component of IOTN
is of use in rating dental attractiveness
351
the dental health component of IOTN
is assessed using the MOCDOO system
352
what grade is given to an unilateral unerupted ectopic canine in the IOTN score
5i
353
what is a histological response for light forces generated during orthodontic treatment
frontal resorption
354
how much force is required to tip a tooth
35-60 grams mN
355
what is the average optimal rate of tooth movement
1mm a month
356
what does anchorage mean
resistance to unwanted tooth movement
357
What are anterior bite planes used for
reducing overbite
