Practice 2 Flashcards

1
Q

The first four steps of the scientific method are as follows:
I.Identify the problem.
I.Ask questions.
I.Develop a hypothesis.
IV. Collect data and experiment on that data.

Which of the following is the fifth step in the scientific method? 
A. Observe the data. 
B.Analyze the results. 
C. Measure the data. 
D. Develop a conclusion
A

B: There are six steps in the scientific process, the fifth of which is “Analyze the results” (the results of the experiments that were conducted in step four). The results of step four must be analyzed before reaching the final step, “Develop a conclusion

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2
Q

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the use of qualitative and quantitative data in scientific research
A. Quantitative data is collected through numerical measurements.
B. Quantitative data is more accurate than qualitative data.
c. Qualitative data is focused on perspectives and behavior.
D. Qualitative data iscollected through observation and interviews.

A

B: The two types of measurement important in science are quantitative (when a numerical resul is used) and qualitative (when descriptions or qualities are reported). Qualitative data is collected through observation and interviews, and focuses on the informant’s behavior and perspectives. Both qualitative and quantitative data are equally important in scientific research, and when combined and analyzed together provide a full picture of the focus of the question at hand. Additionally, both qualitative and quantitative data can be accurate, or may be skewed by bias, therefore both should be thoroughly analyzed.

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3
Q

Which of the following statements correctly describes the function of the corresponding physiologic structure?
A. The trachea connects the throat and the stomach, encouraging food to follow this path through contractions.
B. The esophagus is the cylindrical portion of the respiratory tract that joins the larynx with the lungs.
C. The diaphragm is a muscle that controls the height of the thoracic cavity, decreasing the height on contraction, and increasing the height on relaxation causing expiration.
D. The epiglottis covers the trachea during swallowing, preventing food from entering the airway

A

D: The epiglottis covers the trachea during swallowing, thus preventing food from entering the airway. The trachea, also known as the windpipe, is a cylindrical portion of the respiratory tract that joins the larynx with the lungs. The esophagus connects the throat and the stomach. When a person swallows, the esophagus contracts to force the food down into the stomach. Like other structures in the respiratory system, the esophagus secretes mucus for lubrication. The diaphragm is a muscle that controls the height of the thoracic cavity, increasing the height on contraction (inspiration), and decreasing the height on relaxation (expiration)

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4
Q

Which of the following is an example of the location and function of cartilage in the body?
A. The dense connective tissue that comprises the better part of the structural skeleton.
B. The supportive pads that provide cushion at joints, such as between the vertebrae of the spinal cord.
C. The connective structure made of fibrous collagen that connects muscles and bones, such as the connection of the patella to the quadricep.
D. The layer beneath the skin and on the outside of internal organs that provides cushioning and protection.

A

B: The pads that support the vertebrae are made up of cartilage. Cartilage, a strong form of connective tissue, cushions and supports the joints. Cartilage also makes up the larynx and the outer ear. Bone is a form of connective tissue that comprises the better part of the skeleton. It includes both organic and inorganic substances. Tendons connect the muscles to other structures of the body, typically bones. Tendons can increase and decrease in length as the bones move. Fat is a combination of lipids; in humans, fat forms a layer beneath the skin and on the outside of the internal organs.

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5
Q
Two criteria for classifying epithelial tissue are: 
A. cell type and cell function. 
B. cell shape and cell type.
C. cell layers and cell shape. 
D. cell function and cell layers
A

C: Cell layers and cell shape are the criteria for classifying epithelial tissue. Cell layers refers to the amount of cells that separate the basement membrane from the surface, such as a simple single layer, a stratified layer (2 or more), or a pseudostratified layer. Cell shapes refer to the shape of the outer cells and can be squamous, columnar or cuboidal.

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6
Q

Where is the parathyroid gland located?
A. On the lateral lobes of the thyroid gland, on the posterior aspect.
B. On the pyramidal lobe of the thyroid gland, on the posterior aspect.
C. On the lateral lobes of the thyroid gland, on the anterior aspect.
D. On the left lateral lobe of the thyroid gland, on the anterior aspect.

A

A: The parathyroid gland is located on the lateral lobes of the thyroid gland in the neck, on the posterior aspect. It is part of the endocrine system. When the supply of calcium in blood diminishes to unhealthy levels, the parathyroid gland motivates the secretion of a hormone that encourages the bones to release calcium into the bloodstream. The parathyroid gland also regulates the amount of phosphate in the blood by stimulating the excretion of phosphates in the urine.

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7
Q
How many organ systems are in the human body? 
A. 12 
B. 15 
C. 9 
D. 11
A

D: There are 11 organ systems in the human body: circulatory, digestive, endocrine, integumentary, lymphatic, muscular, nervous, reproductive, respiratory, skeletal, and urinary.

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8
Q
Which element or structure within the respiratory system is responsible for removing foreign matter from the lungs? 
A. Bronchial tubes 
B. Cilia
C. Trachea
D. Alveoli
A

B: The cilia are the tiny hairs in the respiratory system that are responsible for removing foreign matter from the lungs. The cilia are located within the bronchial tubes, but it is the cilia that have the responsibility for removing inappropriate materials before they enter the lungs.

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9
Q

Organized from highest to lowest, what is the hierarchy of the human body’s structures is as follows: organism, organ systems, organs, tissues. Which of the following comes next?
A. Organs, cells, tissues, molecules, atoms.
B. Organ system, organism, organ, cells, tissues, atoms, molecules.
C. Organism, organ systems, organs, tissues, cells, molecules, atoms.
D. Organism, organ, cells, tissues, molecules, atoms.

A

C:The order of hierarchy of human body structures is as follows: Organism, organ systems, organs, tissues, cells, molecules, and atoms. Muscles are types of tissues, so muscles do not have a separate place in the hierarchy but instead fall within the types of tissues.

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10
Q
On average, how many neutrons does one atom of bromine (Br) have? 
A. 35
B. 44.90 
C. 45
D. 79.90
A

B: To determine the average number of neutrons in one atom of an element, subtract the atomic number from the average atomic mass. For Bromine (Br), subtract its atomic number (35) from its average atomic mass (79.9) to acquire the average number of neutrons, 44.9

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11
Q
On average, how many protons does one atom of zinc (Zn) have? 
A. 30
B. 35
C. 35.39 
D. 65.39
A

A: The number of protons is the same for every atom of a given element and is the element’s atomic number: in this case, 30 for Zinc (Zn).

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12
Q

Which statement below correctly describes the movement of molecules in the body and/or in relation to the external environment?
A. Osmosis is the movement of a solution from and area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration.
B. Diffusion is the process in the lungs by which oxygen is transported from the air to the blood.
C. Dissipation is the transport of molecules across a semipermeable membrane from an area of low concentration to high concentration, requiring energy.
D. Reverse osmosis is the movement of molecules in a solution from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration.

A

B: In the lungs, oxygen is transported from the air to the blood through the process of diffusion, in which molecules passively move from an area of high concentration to low concentration. Specifically, the alveolar membranes withdraw the oxygen from the air in the lungs into the bloodstream. Osmosis is the passive movement of a water from an area of low solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration through a permeable membrane. Reverse osmosis is the active transport of water opposite the concentration gradient from an area of low solute concentration to high solute concentration. Dissipation is a more general reference of the spread or loss of energy

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13
Q
Which gland is responsible for the regulation of calcium levels? 
A. The parathyroid glands 
B. The pituitary gland 
C. The adrenal glands 
D. The pancreas
A

A: The parathyroid glands are four small glands that sit on top of the thyroid gland and regulate calcium levels by secreting parathyroid hormone. The hormone regulates the amount of calcium and magnesium that is excreted by the kidneys into the urine

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14
Q

Which statement matches the function to the organ of the digestive system?
A. The large intestine reabsorbs water into the body to form solid waste.
B. The duodenum is the middle section of the small intestine in which acids, fat, and sugar are absorbed.
C. The jejunum is the first part of the small intestine that receives chyme from the stomach and further digests it prior to entering the large intestine.
D. The gallbladder produces insulin to assist in the transport of sugars from the blood to the organs

A

A: The large intestine’s main function is the reabsorption of water into the body to form solid waste. It also allows for the absorption of vitamin K produced by microbes living inside the large intestine. The duodenum is the first section of the small intestine that receives partially digested food from the stomach, also called chyme, further digesting it with the help of enzymes released by the gall bladder, before it enters into the small intestine. The pancreas (not the gall bladder) releases insulin to assist in the removal and transport of sugar in the body. The jejunum is the second portion of the small intestine in which amino acids, fatty acids, and sugars are absorbed.

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15
Q
In your garden, you noticed that the tomato plants did better on the north side of your house than the west side and you decided to figure out why. They are both planted with the same soil that provides adequate nutrients to the plant, and they are watered at the same time during the week. Over the course of a week, you begin to measure the amount of sunlight that hits each side of the house and determine that the north side gets more light because the sunlight is blocked by the house’s shadow on the west side. What is the name of the factor in your observations that affected the tomato plants growth? 
A. The control
B. The independent variable 
C. The dependent variable
D. The conclusion
A

B: The conclusion was that the amount of sunlight received by the plants was affecting their growth. The independent variable was the amount of light that was given to the plants and could have been manipulated by the experimenter by moving the plants or adding equal parts of light. No control was used in this experiment.

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16
Q

Which of the following describes one responsibility of the integumentary system?
A. Distributing vital substances (such as nutrients) throughout the body
B. Blocking pathogens that cause disease
C. Sending leaked fluids from cardiovascular system back to the blood vessels
D. Storing bodily hormones that influence gender traits

A

B: The integumentary system includes skin, hair, and mucous membranes, all of which are responsible-in part, at least-for blocking disease-causing pathogens from entering the blood stream. The circulatory system distributes vital substances through the body. The lymphatic system sends leaked fluids from the cardiovascular system back to the blood vessels. The reproductive system stores bodily hormones that influence gender traits.

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17
Q

When are the parasympathetic nerves active within the nervous system?
A. When an individual experiences a strong emotion, such as fear or excitement.
B. When an individual feels pain or heat.
C. When an individual is either talking or walking.
D. When an individual is either resting or eating

A

D: The parasympathetic nerves are active when an individual is either resting or eating. The sympathetic nerves are active when an individual experiences a strong emotion, such as fear or excitement. Feeling pain and heat fall under the responsibility of the sensory neurons. Talking and walking fall under the responsibility of the ganglia within the sensory-somatic nervous system.

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18
Q

Which of the following best describes the relationship between the circulatory system and the integumentary system?
A. Removal of excess heat from body.
B. Hormonal influence on blood pressure.
C. Regulation of blood’s pressure and volume
D. Development of blood cells within marrow.

A

A: The integumentary system (i.e., the skin, hair, mucous membranes, etc.) coordinates with the circulatory system to remove excess heat from the body. The superficial blood vessels (those nearest the surfaceof the skin) dilate to allow the heat to exit the body. The hormonal influence on blood pressure is the result of the relationship between the circulatory system and the endocrine system. The urinary system is responsible for assisting in the regulation of blood’s pressure and volume. The skeletal system is responsible for assisting in the development of blood vessels within the marrow.

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19
Q

Which of the following statements describes the path of blood entering into the heart?
A. Blood enters the heart through the pulmonary vein, into the right atrium, through the tricuspid valve to the right ventricle.
B. Once the right ventricle is full, blood exits into the pulmonary artery and then empties into the left ventricle.
C. After traveling through the lungs, oxygenated blood enters into the left atrium, then through the mitral valve to the left ventricle.
D. Once the left ventricle is full, the left tricuspid valve shuts, the ventricle contracts, and blood exits through the aorta

A

C: Blood returns to the heart from both the inferior and superior vena cava, entering into the right atrium, through the tricuspid valve, and into the right ventricle. Once the right ventricle is full, the tricuspid valve closes, and upon heart contraction, the blood is pumped through the pulmonary artery, becoming oxygenated in the lungs. The blood returns to the heart from the lungs through the pulmonary vein, into the left atrium, through the mitral valve, and into the left ventricle. When the left ventricle is ful, the mitral valve closes, and the heart contracts and distributes the newly oxygenated blood throughout the body through the aortic valve and into the aorta

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20
Q
The part of the human excretory system most responsible for maintaining normal body temperature is the:
A. kidney.
B. bladder.
C. liver.
D. sweat glands.
A

D: Blood is cooled as it passes through capillaries surrounding the sweat glands. Heat is absorbed along with excess salt and water and transferred to the glands as sweat. Droplets of sweat then evaporate from the skin surface to dissipate heat and cool the body. The kidney, bladder, and liver are not involved in regulating body temperature.

21
Q
A part of which body system controls fluid loss, protects deep tissues, and synthesizes vitamin D?
A. The skeletal system.
B. The muscular system.
C. The lymphatic system.
D. The integumentary system
A

D: The skin is a part of the integumentary system, along with the hair, nails, nerves, and glands. The skin controls fluid loss, protects deep tissues, and synthesizes vitamin D. The skeletal system gives the body its bony supporting structure, protects vital organs, collaborates with muscles in body movement, stores calcium, and produces red blood cells. The muscular system maintains posture, collaborates with the bones in body movement, uses energy, and generates heat. The lymphatic system retrieves fluids leaked from capillaries and contains white blood cells, and parts of it support parts of the immune system

22
Q
There are three insects that are being compared under a microscope. As a scientist, you decide that measuring them would be an important part of recording their data. Which unit of measurement would best for this situation?
A. Centimeters.
B. Meters.
C. Micrometers.
D. Kilometers.
A

C: The best use of the International System of Units (SI) for this situation would be the use of the micrometer as it is the smallest unit of measurement provided and the scientist is using a microscope to view the insects

23
Q
The respiratory system \_\_\_\_ oxygen and \_\_\_ carbon dioxide.
A. inhales; exhales
B. delivers; expels
C. creates; absorbs
D. exhales; inhales
A

B: Our respiratory system inhales air, of which oxygen is one component. From that inhaled air, the respiratory system delivers oxygen to the body. Through gas exchange, itthen expels carbon dioxide (CO2) from the body as we exhale. The respiratory system obtains oxygen from the air we inhale; it does not create it, and it expels CO2 rather than absorbing it (C). We do not use our respiratory systems to exhale oxygen or inhale CO2 (D).

24
Q

Which statement below accurately describes the function of its element?
A. Collagen is a spongy fatty compound that creates a padding between bones and other structures.
B. Hemoglobin is the amount of red blood cells that are present in blood, which can reflect disease states, hydration, and blood loss.
C. Lymph is tissue that forms into nodes through which blood is filtered and cleaned.
D. An antigen stimulates the production of antibodies

A

D: The name for a substance that stimulates the production of antibodies is an antigen. An antigen is any substance perceived by the immune system as dangerous. When the body senses an antigen, it produces an antibody. Collagen is one of the components of bone, tendon, and cartilage. It is a spongy protein that can be turned into gelatin by boiling. Hemoglobin is the part of red blood cells that carries oxygen. In order for the blood to carry enough oxygen to the cells of the body, there has to be a sufficient amount of hemoglobin. Lymph is a near-transparent fluid that performs a number of functions in the body: It removes bacteria from tissues, replaces lymphocytes in the blood, and moves fat away from the small intestine. Lymph contains white blood cells. The lymph node is the tissue through which lymph travels in this filtering process.

25
Q

Which group of major parts and organs make up the immune system?
A. Lymphatic system, spleen, tonsils, thymus, and bone marrow.
B. Brain, spinal cord, and nerve cells.
C. Heart, veins, arteries, and capillaries.
D. Nose, trachea, bronchial tubes, lungs, alveolus, and diaphragm

A

A: The immune system consists of the lymphatic system, spleen, tonsils, thymus, and bone marrow. The nervous system consists of the brain, spinal cord, and nerve cells. The circulatory system consists of the heart, veins, arteries, and capillaries. The respiratory system consists of the nose, trachea, bronchial tubes, lungs, alveolus, and diaphragm.

26
Q
Which of the following does not exist in RNA? 
A. Uracil 
B. Thymine 
C. Cytosine 
D. Guanine
A

B: The substance thymine does not exist in RNA. The bases of RNA include uracil, cytosine, guanine, and adenine.

27
Q
In which of the following muscle types are the filaments arranged in a disorderly manner? 
A. Cardiac. 
B. Smooth. 
C. Skeletal. 
D. Rough.
A

B: Smooth muscle tissue is said to be arranged in a disorderly fashion because it is not striated like the other two types of muscle: cardiac and skeletal. Striations are lines that can only be seen with a microscope. Smooth muscle is typically found in the supporting tissues of hollow organs and blood vessels. Cardiac muscle is found exclusively in the heart; it is responsible for the contractions that pump blood throughout the body. Skeletal muscle, by far the most preponderant in the body, controls the movements of the skeleton. The contractions of skeletal muscle are responsible for al voluntary motion. There is no such thing as rough muscle

28
Q
Which of the following hormones is correctly matched with the gland/organ it is produced by? 
A. Insulin; kidney. 
B. Testosterone; thyroid. 
C. Melatonin; pineal.
D. Epinephrine; gall bladder.
A

C: Melatonin is produced by the pineal gland. One of the primary functions of melatonin is regulation of the circadian cycle, which is the rhythm of sleep and wakefulness. Insulin helps regulate the amount of glucose in the blood. Without insulin, the body is unable to convert blood sugar into energy. Testosterone is the main hormone produced by the testes; it is responsible for the development of adult male sex characteristics. Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, performs a number of functions: It quickens and strengthens the heartbeat and dilates the bronchioles. Epinephrine is one of the hormones secreted when the body senses danger.

29
Q
Which of the following best describes a section that divides the body into equal right and left parts? 
A. Mid-sagittal plane. 
B.Coronal plane. 
C.Oblique plane.
D. Frontal plane.
A

A: The mid-sagittal plane refers to a lengthwise cut that divides the body into equal right and left portions; it is also called the medial plane. The frontal or coronal plane refers to a cut that divides the body into anterior and posterior sections. The oblique plane is when a cylindrical organ is sectioned with an angular cut across the organ.

30
Q
In the development of genetic traits, one gene must match to one to develop correctly. 
A. Codon
B. Protein 
C. Amino acid 
D. Chromosome
A

B: In the development of genetic traits, one gene must match to a protein for a genetic trait to develop correctly.

31
Q
Which of the following is not composed of striated muscle? 
A. Quadriceps.
B. Uterus.
C. Triceps.
D. Gastrocnemius.
A

B: Skeletal or striated muscles are voluntary muscles that help support the skeletal structures. Examples of striated muscles are the biceps, triceps, quadriceps, gluteus, and gastrocnemius muscles to name a few. Smooth or involuntary muscles are muscles primarily found in the visceral organs such as the intestines, prostate, reproductive organs, bladder and trachea.

32
Q
Which of the following is NOT found in the dorsal cavity of the body? 
A. Cerebellum 
B. Heart
C. Brainstem 
D. Spine
A

B: The vertebral cavity (containing the spine) can be found in the dorsal cavity along with the cranial cavity (containing the brain). The ventral body cavity is divided into several subsections: the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities. The heart is in the thoracic cavity, the stomach is in the abdominal cavity, and the testes are in the pelvic cavity.

33
Q
Which of the following best describes the careful ordering of molecules within solids that have a fixed shape? 
A. Physical bonding 
B. Polar molecules 
C. Metalloid structure 
D. Crystalline order
A

D: Solids with a fixed shape have a crystalline order that defines and maintains that shape.

34
Q

Which of the following statement properly describes how the structure moves during inspiration?
A. The lungs contract on inspiration.
B. The diaphragm moves downward on inspiration.
C. The ribs remain fixed during inspiration.
D. The heart moves inward on inspiration.

A

B: The diaphragm moves downward or contracts to increase the space in the thoracic cavity. This downward motion inflates the lungs and contracts the ribs. The heart’s position does not change during inspiration or expiration.

35
Q
Which of the following describes the transport network that is responsible for the transference of proteins throughout a cell?
A. Golgi apparatus
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Mitochondria
D. Nucleolus
A

B: The endoplasmic reticulum is the cell’s transport network that moves proteins from one part of the cell to another. The Golgi apparatus assists in the transport but is not the actual transport network. Mitochondria are organelles (“tiny organs”) that help in the production of ATP, which the cells need to operate properly. The nucleolus participates in the production of ribosomes that are needed to generate proteins for the cell.

36
Q

What occurs during the anaphase of mitosis?
A. Chromosomes, originally in pairs, separate from their daughters and move to the opposite ends (or poles) of the cell.
B. The mitotic spindle fibers begin to form.
C. The chromosomes align in the middle of the cell.
D. Two nuclei form, surrounded each by a nuclear membrane

A

A: There are four phases of mitosis: the prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. During the prophase of mitosis, the mitotic spindle fibers begin to form. Next, during the metaphase, the chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell. Next, in the anaphase of mitosis, the chromosomes, originally in pairs, separate and move to the opposite ends of the cells. Then, during the telophase, two nuclei form around the separated chromosomes, each surrounded by a nuclear membrane.

37
Q

Which of the following statements is correct about normal human lung anatomy?
A. The right lung has three lobes; the left lung has two lobes
B. The right lung has two lobes; the left lung has three lobes
C. Both lungs have two lobes.
D. Both lungs have three lobes.

A

A: The right lung has three segments: upper, medial and lower. The left lung has two lobes: upper and lower. The lobes are further divided into segments. The right lung comprises ten segments: three in the right upper, two in the right medial lobe, and five in the right lower lobe. The left lung comprises eight segments: four in the left upper lobe and four in the left lower lobe.

38
Q
All of the following are parts of the cardiac system EXCEPT the: 
A. ventricle. 
B. alveoli. 
C. atrium. 
D. septum
A

B: Alveoli are air sacs found within the lung parenchyma and are not part of the cardiac system. The septum is dividing wall between the right and left sides of the heart. The heart has four chambers: the upper two chambers are the right and left atrium and the lower two chambers are the right and left ventricles.

39
Q
If a biologist is describing the physical and visible expression of a genetic trait, which of the following is he referring to? 
A. Phenotype.
B. Allele.
C. Gamete.
D. Genotype.
A

A: The physical expression—such as hair color—is the result of the phenotype. The genotype is the basic genetic code. Allele are two or more alternative gene forms that generally arises via mutation, and are located in the same part of a chromosome. A gamete is a germ cell (female or male) that can unite with the opposite sex germ cell in the process of zygote formation of sexual reproduction.

40
Q
Which of the following does NOT produce hormones? 
A. Pituitary gland. 
B. The Pons.
C. Pancreas.
D. Ovaries
A

B: The endocrine system is made up of the pituitary gland, thyroid gland, parathyroid glands, adrenal glands, pancreas, ovaries, and testicles. They secrete hormones which help regulate mood, growth and development, tissue function, metabolism, and sexual function and reproductive processes. The Pons is located in the brain stem and relays nerve signals that coordinate messages between the brain and the body.

41
Q
Which organ is correctly matched with the cavity in which it is found? 
A. Spleen; pelvic cavity.
B. Brain; vertebral canal. 
C. Bladder; abdominal cavity. 
D. Heart; thoracic cavity.
A

D: The heart is located in the thoracic cavity. The thoracic cavity extends from the neck to the diaphragm, which divides the abdominal cavity from the thoracic cavity. Some of the major structures contained in the thoracic cavity are the ribs, heart, lungs, mediastinum, trachea, and the esophagus. The spleen is located in the abdominal cavity. The brain is located in the cranial cavity. The bladder is located in the pelvic cavity.

42
Q
A substance is considered acidic if it has a pH of less than which of the following? 
A. 12 
B.9 
C. 7 
D.4
A

C: The number of 7 is the “breaking point” between basic and acidic. Above 7 solutions are considered basic; below 7 solutions are considered acidic. For instance, milk, with a pH of 6.5, is actually considered acidic. Bleach, with a pH of 12.5, is considered basic.

43
Q
Which of the following choices best describes the location of the trachea in relation to the esophagus? 
A. Lateral 
B. Anterior 
C. Posterior 
D. Dorsal
A

B: The trachea is anterior or ventral to the esophagus. The trachea is separated from the esophagus by the epiglottis, which is a flap of cartilage that covers one while the other is in use. The trachea’s proximal portion is connected to the larynx and the distal portion splits off into the right and left bronchi.

44
Q
A triple beam balance would show the units of measurement in which form? 
A. Liters 
B. Grams 
C. Meters 
D. Gallons
A

B: All of the answers use the System of International Units (SI) of measurement with the exception of gallons. A liter is the measurement of a liquid. Grams are a unit of measurement for the weight of an object, which would be measured on the triple beam balance. Meters measure length.

45
Q
Which of the following best describes a section that divides the body into equal upper and lower portions? 
A. Coronal
B. Transverse 
C. Oblique
D. Median
A

B: The transverse plane separates the body into equal upper and lower portions. The oblique plane is when a cylindrical organ is sectioned with an angular cut across the organ. The midsagittal or medial plane refers to a lengthwise cut that divides the body into equal right and left portions. The frontal or coronal plane refers to a cut that divides the body into anterior and posterior sections.

46
Q

Which of the following best describes one of the roles of RNA?
A. Manufacturing the proteins needed for DNA
B. Creating the bonds between the elements that compose DNA
C. Sending messages about the correct sequence of proteins in DNA
D. Forming the identifiable “double helix” shape of DNA

A

C: RNA has several roles, one of which is to act as the messenger and deliver information about the correct sequence of proteins in DNA. The ribosomes do the actual manufacturing of the proteins. Hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen work to create the bonds within DNA. And far from having a double helix shape, RNA has what would be considered a more two-dimensional shape.

47
Q
Which of the following do catalysts alter to control the rate of a chemical reaction? 
A. Substrate energy 
B. Activation energy 
C. Inhibitor energy 
D. Promoter energy
A

B: Catalysts alter the activation energy during a chemical reaction and therefore control the rate of the reaction. The substrate is the actual surface that enzymes use during a chemical reaction (and there is no such term as substrate energy). Inhibitors and promoters participate in the chemical reaction, but it is the activation energy that catalysts alter to control the overall rate as the reaction occurs.

48
Q
Which of the following components of the human integumentary system is the deepest? 
A. Stratum basale.
B. Epidermis.
C. Hypodermis.
D. Dermis
A

C: The stratum basale is the lowest level of the epidermis, which is the surface level. The dermis is a layer of connective tissue immediately beneath the epidermis. The hypodermis, while not a layer of skin, is part of the integumentary system and it is just below the dermis