DPD Flashcards

1
Q

4 causes of splenomegaly

A

infection
inflammation
haematological
portal hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Gastritis

A

retrosternal

ETOH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

markers chronic pancreatitis

A

normal amylase
faecal elastase
loss of exocrine/endocrine function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

RUQ pain in appendicitis

A
  • retrocaecal appendix

- pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

suprapubic pain ddx

A

cystitis

urinary retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

diffuse abdo pain ddx

A
  • obstruction
  • peritonitis/gastroenteritis
  • IBD
  • mesenteric ischaemia (angina post-prandially)

medical-

  • DKA
  • Addison’s
  • Hypercalcaemia
  • Porphyria
  • Lead poisoning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what may be high in any cause of acute abdo?

A

amylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what ascitic tap would you see in SBP?

A

ascites neut >250 cells/mm3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Transudate ascites (less protein)

A

Failures:
cirrhosis
cardiac failure
nephrotic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Exudate ascites

A

malignancy (abdo, pelvic, mesothelioma)
infection (TB, pyogenic)
Budd chiari, portal vein thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

cause of pale stool in obstructive jaundice

A

low stercobilogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Bloody diarrhoea ddx

A
  • Infective- CHESS
  • IBD (young)
  • Elderly (ischaemic)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

CEA marker

A

colon cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Mx acute abdo

A
NBM
IV fluid
analgesics
antibiotics
anti-emetics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

GI bleeds

A

ABC
IV access
Fluids
OGD

if variceal- broad spectrum Abx + terlipressin (splanchnic vasoconstriction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Ix acute abdo

A

Bloods
Erect CXR
CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

jaundice primary Ix

A

Bloods

USS (post fast)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Dysphagia Wt loss primary Ix

A

OGD biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Ascites Mx

A
Diretics spironolactone +/-furosemide
sodium restriction
fluid restriction if hyponatraemia
monitor daily weight
therapetuic paracentesis with IV human albumin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

serum:ascites albumin gradient

A
>11 = cirrhosis/HF
<11 = TB, cancer, nephrotic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

features of wound infection

A

erythematosus

discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

features of anastomotic leak

A

diffuse abdo tenderness
guarding, rigidity
shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

features pelvic abscess

A

pain
fever, sweats
mucus diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

peripheral neuropathy causes

A

infection
- HIV

inflammation

  • GBS
  • amyloidosis

metabolic/toxic

  • diabetes
  • ETOH
  • B12
  • drugs
  • hypothyroidism

Tumour
- paraneoplastic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

optic neuritis

A

aka papillitis
blurred optic disc + blurred vision
different to papilloedema = painless
sign of MS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Reduced PP sensation Al thigh
T2DM
Obese

what Mx + diagnosis?

A
= meralgia paraesthetica
compression of lateral femoral nerve
reasure, avoid tight garments
lose weight
carabezapine/gabapentin if persists
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

causes of radiculopathy

A

disc herniation
spinal canal stenosis
osteophytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

describe the abnormal sensation for pathology at:

  • cortex
  • SC
  • nerve roots
  • mononeurpathy
  • polyneuropathy
A
  • cortex = hemisensory
  • SC = level eg umbilicus
  • nerve roots = dermatomes
  • mononeurpathy = specific area eg radial
  • polyneuropathy = glove + stocking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

lewy body dementia

A

alzheimers + PD + hallucinations

30
Q

limited upgaze

A

supranuclear palsy

31
Q

DDx of raised JVP

A
  • RHF (2/2 LHF or pulmonary HTN- PE, COPD etc)
  • TR (valve damage eg IE, R ventricular dilation)
    constrictive pericarditis (TB, CTD, malignancy)
32
Q

causes of palpitaitons

A

sinus tachy- SVT
AF
ventricular tachy

33
Q

causes of sinus tachy

A
  • sepsis
  • hypovolaemia
  • endocrine (thyrotoxicosis, phaeo)
34
Q

causes of SVT

A

re-entry circuit (WPW)

35
Q

Causes of AF

A
  • thyrotoxicosis
  • ischaemia
  • chest infection/PE/cancer
  • alcohol
36
Q

Causes of VT

A
  • ischaemia
  • electrolyte abnormality
  • long QT (hypo K/Mg, congenital)
37
Q

sinus tachycardia on ECG

A

p before every QRS

normal just fast

38
Q

VT on ECG

A

NO p waves before QRS
regular
BROAD COMPLEX

39
Q

SVT on ECG

A
short PR
delta wave (slurred upstroke)
40
Q

Af principles

A

RHYTHM CONTROL

  • <48h DC
  • > 48h 3-4 weeks anticoagulate

RATE

  • BB (bisoprolol)
  • Digoxin
  • anticoagulate (CHADSVASC)
41
Q

Pulseless VT Tx?

A

defibrillate

42
Q

LVH (hypertension) ECG signs

A

Deep S in V1/2
Tall R in V5/6

> 7 LARGE SQUARES

43
Q

Heart sounds- for each, state the association

A

S1 = closure of mitral
S2 = closure of aortic
Fixed splitting of S2 = atrial septal defect
S3 = rapid ventricular filling
S4 = atrial contraction against stiffened ventricles (hypertophy)

44
Q

AHF failure management

A

sit up
oxygen 60-100%
Diuretics (furosemide)

GTN if pain
treat underlying cause

45
Q

Symptomatic level for anaemia

A

Hb <80

46
Q

Primary pneumothorax management

A

<2cm - discharge, repeat CXR

>2cm/SOB- aspirate + chest drain if unsuccessful

47
Q

Secondary pneumothorax management

A

<2cm - aspiration

>2cm - chest drain

48
Q

what might you see in PE

A

RBBB + RAD

49
Q

why do you give clarithromycin in pneumonia

A

cover atypicals

50
Q

AF started 4 hours ago how to treat

A

<48h so DC cardioversion

51
Q

3 causes/types of MAHA

A
  • DIC
  • HUS
  • TTP
52
Q

Features of DIC

A

low plt + fibrinogen
high PT/APTT
high D-dimer/FDP

53
Q

Features of HUS

A

haemolysis- low Hb, high Br
uraemia
low plt

54
Q

Features of TTP

A

HUS + fever + neurological signs

55
Q

why does MAHA occur?

A

some coagulation occurs, fibrin slices RBCs

56
Q

Hereditary causes of haemolytic anaemia

A
  • hereditary spherocytosis
  • G6PD deficiency
  • Hb-opathy - SCD, thalassaemia
57
Q

Acquired causes of haemolytic anaemia

A
  • Autoimmune
  • Drugs
  • Infection
  • MAHA
58
Q

small bowel lines

A

valvulae conniventes

59
Q

causes of hypovolaemic hyponatraemia

A

D + V
Diuretics

Would have low urine sodium

60
Q

causes of euvolaemic hyponatraemia

A

Hypothyroidism
Adrenal insufficiency
SIADH

normal/high urine sodium

61
Q

causes of hypervolaemic hyponatraemia

A

CF
Cirrhosis
Nephrotic syndrome

Would have low urine sodium

62
Q

tests for euvolaemic hyponatraemia

A

TFTs
Short synacthen
Plasma/urine osmolality

63
Q

What is the cause of the majority of hyponatraemia

A

high ADH

64
Q

Causes of SIADH

A
  • CNS/lung pathology
  • drugs- SSRI, TCA, opiates, carbamezapine)
  • Tumours
65
Q

oncholysis causes

A

trauma
thyrotoxicosis
nail bed infection
Psoriasis

66
Q

How can PTH determine whether someone has malignancy in the context of hypercalcaemia?

A

low PTH = supressed so mailgnancy

High = hyperPTH

67
Q

high ALP causes

A

Paget’s
obstructive jaundice
Bony mets

68
Q

Causes of cavitating lung lesions

A
  • Infection- TB, staph, klebsiella (alcoholics)
  • Inflammation- RA
  • PE
  • Malignancy- SCC
69
Q

nephrotic syndrome

A

high GBM permiability- so protein leaks out
proteinuria >3g/day
hypoalbuminaemia
oedema (oncotic pressure)

70
Q

What is hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia?

A

AD condition

abnormal blood vessels in:

  • skin
  • Mucous membranes
  • lungs
  • liver
  • brain
71
Q

low sodium + high potassium endocrine cause

A

Adrenal insufficiency

72
Q

in what type of thyroid condition would TFTs be normal?

A

multinodular goitre