high yield #3 Flashcards

1
Q

cushings triad

A

increased ICP

  1. HTN
  2. Bradycardia
  3. decreased resp
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2
Q

difference b/w orbital cellultitis and preseptal cellulitis

A

orbital cellulititis= pain/diplopia w/ EOM, ophthalmoplegia, and proptosis

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3
Q

gradual central vison loss

A

macular degeneration

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4
Q

straight lines appear wavy on Amsler grid

A

macular degeneration

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5
Q

hordeolum

A

stye
infection of meibomian gland
painful

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6
Q

chalazion

A

obstructionof meibomian gland

painless

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7
Q

orbital blowout fracture tx

A
  1. nasal decongestants - DONT sneeze
  2. Abx- amp-sulbactam OR clida
  3. surg
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8
Q

leukocoria

A

abnormal WHITE reflex instead of normal RED

retinoblastoma

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9
Q

retinoblastoma tx

A

radiation & chemo

FATAL if untreated

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10
Q

MC cause of permanent legal blindness & vision loss in older adults

A

macular degeneration

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11
Q

metamorphospsia

A

striaght lines appear bent

-macular degeneration

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12
Q

macular degeneration

-what slows progression

A

Vit C, E & Zinc

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13
Q

macular degeneration

-tx

A

Intraviteral VEGF inhibitor

-Bevacizumab

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14
Q

drusen

A

yellow- white build up on outer retina

-macular degeneration

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15
Q

diabetic retinopathy

classic signs

A

nonproliferative

  1. microaneurysms
  2. cotton wool spots
  3. dot blot hemorrage
  4. flame hemorrage
  5. hard exudates- circinate

NEOVASCULARIZATION- new blood vessels - proliferative

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16
Q

diabetic retintopathy
w/ neovascularization
tx

A

VEGF inhibitor

-Bevacizumab

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17
Q

signs of hypertenisve retinopathy

A

AV nicking

-blurring of optic disc (papilledema)

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18
Q

risk factor for retinal detatchment

A

myopia (near sighted)

hx cataract surgery

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19
Q
flashing lights (photopsia) followed by floaters
followed by unilateral peripheral vision loss "curtains coming down" followed by central vision loss
A

retinal detachment

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20
Q

retinal detachment what is seen on fundoscopy

A

Shafer’s sign

-clumping of brown colored pigment vitreous cells resembling tobacco dust in vitreous humor

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21
Q

retinal detachment

tx

A

lay pt supine, turn head TOWARD side of injury

  • do NOT use mitotic drops
  • surg, lazer, cryotherapy
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22
Q

Neonatal conjunctivitis

causes

A

CGC
Day1- chemical conjunctivitis from sliver nitrate= artificial tears
Day 2-5: gonococcal -ceftriaxone
Day 5-7: Chlamydia trach - oral erythromycin

23
Q

prophylaxis for neonatal conjunctivitis

A

Erythromycin - for Gonorrhea

** NOT effective for chlamydia

24
Q

when do you remove a rust ring from eye

A

24 hours w/ rotating burr by opthalmolgist

25
Q

viral conjunctivitis on slit lamp

A

punctate staining

26
Q

chemosis

A

conjunctival edema

-allergic conjunctivitis

27
Q

allergic conjunctivitis

tx

A

H1 blocker -antihistamine

- Olopatadine

28
Q

occular chemical burns burns

A
  1. acidic- lcoagulative necrosis ( H+ form protein barrier

2. alkalotic= WORSE- liquefactive necrosis

29
Q

strabismus

A

misalignment of one or both eyes

  • not permanent until 2-3 mo
  • .4-6 mo= referal needed
30
Q

painful loss of vision, color change, blind spots (central scotoma)

A

optic neuritis- MS

31
Q

marcus gunn pupil

A

MS
RAPD
Relative affrent pupillary defect
Rays in affected pupil dilate

32
Q

Argyll roberston pupil

A

neurosyphilis

-eyes contract for accomodation but not to light

33
Q

halos around lights and peripheral vision loss

severe unilateral eye pain

A

acute angle glaucoma

34
Q

acute angle glacoma tx

A

BB: timilol
Alpha 2 agonist: apraclonidine
mitotics: pilocarpine

Definitive: iridotomy

35
Q

slowly progressive unilateral peripheral tunnel vision

painless

A

chronic angle glaucoma

36
Q

chronic angle glaucoma

tx

A

prostaglandins

-Lanoprost

37
Q

acute painless monocular vision loss with cherry red macula

A

central retinal artery occlusion

38
Q

acute painless monocular vision loss with extensive retinal hemorrages “blood and thunder appearance”

A

central retinal vein occlusion

39
Q

Rabies exposure prophylaxis

A

immunocompetent: Rabies vaccine day 0,3,7,14 + immune globin
immunocompromised: rabies vaccine day 0,3,7,14, 28 + RIG

40
Q

rabies exposure prophylaxis with previous exoposure and prophylaxis

A

immunocompetent: Rabies vaccine day 0,3

NO RIG

41
Q

CENTOR criteria for strep

A

2-3 + to test

  1. absent cough +1
  2. lymphadenopathy anterior +1
  3. Temp >38 +1
  4. tonsilar exudate or swelling +1
  5. age <15 +1
  6. age >45 = - point
42
Q

structure in ear contains auditory sensory receptors

A

cochlea

43
Q

in patients with sickle cell dz, this virus can cause aplastic crisis

A

Parvovirus B19

44
Q

abnormal heavy uterine bleeding 1st line

A

OCP

45
Q

simple febrile seizure

A

6mo- 5 years
1 seizure
<15 mins
no meds required

46
Q

complex febrile seizure w/out concerning symptoms

A

6mo- 5 years
2-3 seizures in last 24 hour
<15 mins
no meds required

47
Q

complex febrile seizure w/ concerning symptoms

A
6mo-5y
4+ seizure in 24 hours
>15 or >5 + benzo
focal features
 MEDS required = diazepam
48
Q

MC associated with acute mastoiditis

A

osteitis

-destruction of mastoid bone trabeculae

49
Q

1st line prophylaxis for migrains

A

propranolol

50
Q

what substance increases in post-natal period to close the PDA

A

bradykinin

51
Q

PCOS labs

A

increased testosterone
LH:FSH 3:1
LH increases testosterone
FSH decrease leads to cystic ovaries

52
Q

clomiphene

A

used to treat infertility

estrogen receptor modulator for anovulatory women

53
Q

metformin for infertility

A

improves menstrual frequency