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1016 MSC pass > 1016- Anatomy & Physiology > Flashcards

1016- Anatomy & Physiology Flashcards

Mid T1

1
Q

SKELETAL SYSTEM

  1. Which bone contains the sella turcica?
  2. Ethmoid bone
  3. Sphenoid bone
  4. Nasal bone
  5. Lacrimal bone
A
  1. Sphenoid bone
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2
Q
  2. What is not a difference between the hip and shoulder joint?
  3. The shoulder joint is less stable
  4. The shoulder joint is more flexible
  5. The girdle of the shoulder joint is more complete
  6. The hip joint contains more prominent ligaments
A
  1. The girdle of the shoulder joint is more complete
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3
Q
  1. What describes tennis elbow?
  2. Overuse of wrist extensors and medial epicondylitis
  3. Overuse of wrist flexors and medial epicondylitis
  4. Overuse of wrist extensors and lateral epicondylitis
A

Overuse of wrist extensors and lateral epicondylitis

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4
Q
  1. Which one of the following is a bone demineralising condition in children?
  2. Osteoporosis
  3. Rickets
  4. Osteomalacia
  5. Osteoarthritis
A
  1. Rickets
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5
Q
  1. Which one of the following categories would sutures fall under?
  2. Diarthrotic
  3. Synovial
  4. Cartilaginous
  5. Fibrous
A
  1. Fibrous
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6
Q
  1. What best describes pituitary dwarfism?
  2. It affects intramembranous ossification only
  3. It affects endochondral ossification and intramembranous ossification
  4. It is when the epiphyseal plates of long bones do not close
  5. It affect endochondral ossification only
A
  1. It affects endochondral ossification and intramembranous ossification
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7
Q
  1. Which statement is correct?
  2. Osteoclasts build bone
  3. Increasing the concentration of osteoblasts increases the calcium levels of blood
  4. PTH increases the activity of osteoblasts
  5. Vitamin D increases intestinal absorption of calcium
A
  1. Vitamin D increases intestinal absorption of calcium
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8
Q
  1. Identify the correct order:
    i) osteoclasts are activated
    ii) calcium is released into the blood
    iii) bone matrix is degraded
    iv) a decrease in blood calcium levels is detected

a) ii, iii, i, iv
b) ii, i, iii, iv
c) iv, iii, I, ii
d) iv, i, iii, ii

A

d) iv, i, iii, ii

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9
Q
  1. What is the difference between rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis?
  2. Osteoarthritis is mainly caused by autoimmune disease
  3. Osteoarthritis affects smaller joints
  4. Osteoarthritis has a more asymmetrical onset
  5. Rheumatoid arthritis occurs more predominantly in older people than osteoarthritis
A
  1. Osteoarthritis has a more asymmetrical onset
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10
Q
  1. Which bone possesses trochanters?
  2. Tibia
  3. Fibula
  4. Humerus
  5. Femur
A

Femur

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11
Q
  1. The tibia articulates with the:
  2. Calcaneus
  3. Talus
  4. Phalanges
  5. Metatarsals
A
  1. Talus
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12
Q
  1. What occurs when your heel is flat on the ground and the toes are pointing up?
  2. Dorsiflexion
  3. Plantarflexion
  4. Adduction
  5. Abduction
A
  1. Dorsiflexion
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13
Q
  1. What is the difference between kyphosis and lordosis?
  2. People with lordosis have a concave spine
  3. Kyphosis occurs more often in obese people
  4. Lordosis occurs less often in pregnant people
  5. Lordosis is associated more with hunchbacks
A
  1. People with lordosis have a concave spine
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14
Q
  1. What is not an accurate description of carpal tunnel syndrome
  2. Inflamed tendons press against the radial nerve
  3. It is can be caused by excessive typing
  4. It can cause a feeling of pain and numbness
  5. It is caused by a pinched nerve in the wrist
A
  1. Inflamed tendons press against the radial nerve
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15
Q
  1. Which statement is incorrect?
  2. The thoracic vertebrae attach to the ribs
  3. Cervical vertebrae can have bifid spinous processes
  4. The S shaped spine represents evolutionary mechanisms
  5. Elastic cartilage exists between vertebrae
A
  1. Elastic cartilage exists between vertebrae
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16
Q

Which of the following facial bones are not paired?

a) Vomer
b) Maxilla
c) Palatine
d) Inferior nasal concha

A

a) Vomer

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17
Q

Which of the following is mismatched?

a) olfactory nerves: ethmoid bone
b) mental foramen: mandible
c) alveolar margins: maxillae
d) pineal gland: sphenoid bone

A

pineal gland: sphenoid bone

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18
Q

Which statement is false regarding the pectoral girdle?

a) It is an incomplete girdle
b) It articulates with the appendicular skeleton via. the sternoclavicular joint
c) Sacrifices stability for mobility
d) It is composed of two bones - the clavicle & scapula

A

b) It articulates with the appendicular skeleton via. the sternoclavicular joint

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19
Q

What is Wolff’s law?

a) osteoclasts build the bone matrix in response to stressors
b) a bone remodels in response to the stresses placed on it
c) bones will fracture in response to stressors
d) none of the above

A

b) a bone remodels in response to the stresses placed on it

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20
Q

. When do epiphyseal plates ossify?

a) Week 8
b) At birth
c) Childhood to adolescents
d) Month 4

A

c) Childhood to adolescents

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21
Q

Marfan’s Syndrome results in which phenomena?

  1. Prevention of chondrocyte maturation
  2. Increase in osteoblast activity
  3. Increase in appositional bone growth
  4. Decrease in osteoclast activity
A
  1. Prevention of chondrocyte maturation
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22
Q

An example of an irregular bone includes

  1. Humerus
  2. Sternum
  3. Vertebra
  4. Clavicle
A
  1. Vertebra
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23
Q

. Which of the following belongs to a pair?

  1. Mandible
  2. Sphenoid
  3. Nasal Bone
  4. Vomer
A
  1. Nasal Bone
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24
Q

How many lumbar vertebrae are found in the spinal column?

  1. 5
  2. 12
  3. 7
  4. 4
A
  1. 5
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25
Q

. One of the primary curvatures of the spine includes

  1. Lumbar curvature
  2. Thoracic curvature
  3. Cervical curvature
A
  1. Thoracic curvature
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26
Q

What does calcium bind to in the cytoplasm in a muscle cell?

  1. Tropinin complex
  2. Tropomyosin
  3. Actin
  4. Myosin
A
  1. Tropinin complex
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27
Q

With endurance training…

  1. Fast oxidative fibres can convert to fast glycolytic fibres
  2. Fast glycolytic fibres can convert to fast oxidative fibres
  3. Fast oxidative fibres can convert to slow oxidative fibres
  4. Slow oxidative fibres can convert to fast oxidative fibres
A
  1. Fast glycolytic fibres can convert to fast oxidative fibres
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28
Q
  1. Which of the above muscles abducts the scapula?
    a) 1
    b) 2
    c) 3
    d) 4
    e) 5
A

a) 1

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29
Q
  1. Which of the following muscle tissue types is striated?
    a) Skeletal
    b) Cardiac
    c) Smooth
    d) Both A and B
    e) Both A and C
A

d) Both A and B

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30
Q

During situps, which type of muscle contraction is taking place?

a) Concentric
b) Eccentric
c) Isometric
d) Sarcometric

A

a) Concentric

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31
Q

. A fascicle is surrounded by…

a) Epimysium
b) Endomysium
c) Perimysium
d) Muscle fibres

A

c) Perimysium

32
Q

. During muscle contraction…

a) The I band disappears
b) Actin moves away from the M line
c) Actin moves toward the M line
d) Both A and B
e) Both A and C

A

e) Both A and C

33
Q
  1. The H zone is comprised of…
    a) Actin only
    b) Myosin only
    c) Actin and myosin
    d) Myosin and accessory proteins
A

b) Myosin only

34
Q
  1. When does the myosin head have a low energy configuration?
    a) When myosin binds to actin
    b) During the power stroke
    c) When the link between myosin and actin weaken
    d) When ADP and inorganic phosphate is released from the myosin head
A

c) When the link between myosin and actin weaken

35
Q

. Which of these muscles are not used in inhalation and forced inhalation?

a) Diaphragm
b) Internal intercostals
c) External intercostals
d) Sternocleidomastoid

A

b) Internal intercostals

36
Q

Which of these is a parallel muscle?

a) Pectoralis major
b) Extensor digitorum longus
c) Biceps brachii
d) Sartorius

A

d) Sartorius

37
Q

Which of these abducts the initial 0-10o of the arm?

a) Supraspinatus
b) Deltoid
c) Teres minor
d) Subscapularis

A

a) Supraspinatus

38
Q

. Tennis elbow is…

a) Overuse of extensors (lateral epicondylitis)
b) Overuse of extensors (medial epicondylitis)
c) Overuse of flexors (lateral epicondylitis)
d) Overuse of flexors (medial epicondylitis)

A

a) Overuse of extensors (lateral epicondylitis)

39
Q
  1. Which one of these actions does the sartorius NOT contribute to?
    a) Flexion of the femur at the hip
    b) Flexion of the leg at the knee joint
    c) Laterally rotate the thigh
    d) None of the above
A

d) None of the above

40
Q

Which of these muscles flexes the leg AND extends the thigh?

a) Rectus femoris
c) Biceps femoris
d) Semitendinosus
e) Both B and C

A

) Biceps femoris

d) Semitendinosus

41
Q

Which muscle layer is most superficial

a) Epimysium
b) Perimysium
c) Endomysium

d) Sarcomere

A

a) Epimysium

42
Q
  1. The correct order of the abdominal muscle from deepest to most superficial is:
  2. transverse abdominis, internal obliques & rectus abdominis, external obliques
  3. external obliques, internal obliques & rectus abdominis, transverse abdominis
  4. transverse abdominis, external obliques, internal obliques & rectus abdominis
  5. internal obliques, external obliques, rectus abdominis, transverse abdominis
A
  1. transverse abdominis, internal obliques & rectus abdominis, external obliques
43
Q

The muscle contraction in which the muscle fibres produce increased tension, but the muscle neither shortens nor lengthens, is called ______?

  1. Isotonic contraction
  2. Concentric contraction
  3. Isometric contraction
  4. Eccentric contraction
A
  1. Isometric contraction
44
Q

When ACh is released and binds to receptors on the sarcolemma what happens next?

  1. localized depolarization occurs
  2. AP travels along t-tubules
  3. Calcium is released
  4. ion permeability of the sarcolemma changes
A
  1. ion permeability of the sarcolemma changes
45
Q

What does the M-line consist of?

  1. Thick filament linked by accessory proteins
  2. Actin and myosin
  3. Thick filament only
  4. Thin filament linked by accessory proteins
A
  1. Thick filament linked by accessory proteins
46
Q

The arm muscle that both flexes the elbow and supinates the forearm is the:

  1. Brachialis
  2. Brachioradialis
  3. Biceps Brachii
  4. Triceps Brachii
A

c) Biceps Brachii

47
Q
  1. Intrinsic muscles of the back that promote extension of the spine (or head) include all but
  2. Splenius muscles
  3. Erector spinae
  4. Internal oblique
  5. Semispinalis
A
  1. Internal oblique
48
Q

The sites the motor nerve impulse is transmitted from the nerve endings to the skeletal cell membranes are the:

  1. Sarcomeres
  2. Myofilaments
  3. Neuromuscular junction
  4. Z discs
A
  1. Neuromuscular junction
49
Q

The connective tissue covering that encloses the sarcolemma of an individual muscle fibre is called the:

  1. Epimysium
  2. Perimysium
  3. Endomysium
  4. Periosteum
A
  1. Endomysium
50
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a type of CNS cell?
    a) Astrocyte
    b) Oligodendrocytes
    c) Microglia
    d) Satellite Cells
A

d) Satellite Cells

51
Q

The medulla oblongata is not involved in which of the following functions?

a) Diameter of blood vessels
b) Rate and depth of breathing
c) Rate and force of heart contraction
d) Temperature control

A

d) Temperature control

52
Q

Which cranial nerve only has sensory functions?

a) Optic nerve
b) Abducens nerve

c) Facial nerve
d) Glossopharyngeal nerve

A

a) Optic nerve

53
Q
  1. Of the following which quality is typical of a neuron?
    a) Long life
    b) Amitotic
    c) High metabolic rate
    d) All of the above
A

d) All of the above

54
Q

Which nerve fibres act to relay information from the external environment towards the brain?

a) Motor, efferent
b) Sensory, afferent
c) Sensory, efferent
d) Motor, afferent

A

b) Sensory, afferent

55
Q

. Hemisection of the spinal cord results in which condition?

a) Paraplegia
b) Spastic paralysis
c) Brown-Sequard syndrome
d) Quadriplegia

A

c) Brown-Sequard syndrome

56
Q
  1. Pyramidal cells play a role in which tract?
    a) Spinothalamic tract

b) Corticospinal tract
c) Spinocerebellar tract
d) Rubrospinal tract

A

b) Corticospinal tract

57
Q
  1. Which of the following information is not relayed by the dorsal column-medial lemniscal system?
    a) Discriminative fine touch
    b) Vibration

c) Pressure
d) Conscious proprioception

A

c) Pressure

58
Q
  1. Potentially damaging stimuli are detected by which type of receptor?
    a) Nociceptors

b) Photoreceptors
c) Chemoreceptors
d) Mechanoreceptors

A

a) Nociceptors

59
Q
  1. Of the following, which is not a cranial nerve involved with movement of the eyes?
    a) Abducens
    b) Optic

c) Oculomotor
d) Trochlear

A

b) Optic

60
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a branch belonging to the trigeminal nerve?
    a) Occipital

b) Opthalmic
c) Maxillary
d) Mandibular

A

a) Occipital

61
Q
  1. Which section of the spinal cord has the incorrect amount of pairs?
    a) 8 pairs - cervical
    b) 5 pairs - lumbar
    c) 5 pairs – sacral

d) 10 pairs - thoracic

A

d) 10 pairs - thoracic

62
Q
  1. The sympathetic division, “fight or flight” response involves which bodily effect?
    a) Constriction of the pupils
    b) Increased secretory activity

c) Increased rate and force of heartbeat
d) Decreased rate, slow heart

A

c) Increased rate and force of heartbeat

63
Q
  1. Neurotransmitters are not removed from the synaptic cleft via:
    a) Conversion

b) Diffusion
c) Reuptake into the presynaptic axon
d) enzymatic degradation

A

a) Conversion

64
Q
  1. Which of the following is a neurotransmitter?
    a) Glumatic choline
    b) Serotominec) Acetylcholine
    d) Dopamic acid
A

c) Acetylcholine

65
Q
  1. The neurotransmitter released by somatic motor neurons is
  2. Acetylcholine
  3. Acetylcholinesterase
  4. Norepinephrine
A
  1. Acetylcholine
66
Q
  1. Which one of the following structures is not found in gray matter?
  2. Neuron cell bodies
  3. Dendrites
  4. Glial cells
  5. Fiber tracts
A
  1. Fiber tracts
67
Q
  1. Fibre tracts that allow neurons within the same cerebral hemisphere to communicate are:
  2. Association fibres
  3. Commissural fibres
  4. Projection fibres
A

a) Association fibres

68
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a function of astrocytes?
  2. Support and brace neurons
  3. Anchor neurons to blood vessels
  4. Control the chemical environment around neurons
  5. Provide the defence for the CNS
A
  1. Provide the defence for the CNS
69
Q
  1. The cranial nerves that have neural connections with the tongue include all except the:
  2. Trigeminal nerve (V)
  3. Facial nerve (VII)
  4. Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
  5. Trochlear (IV)
A

d) Trochlear (IV)

70
Q
  1. An individual accidentally transected the spinal cord between T1 and L1. This would result in:
  2. Paraplegia
  3. Hemiplegia
  4. Quadriplegia
  5. Spinal shock only
A
  1. Paraplegia
71
Q
  1. Which part of the brain is important in performing smooth and coordinated movement and control of posture and balance?
    a) parietal lobe
    b) medulla oblongata
    c) cerebellum
    d) frontal lobe
A

c) cerebellum

72
Q
  1. Multiple Sclerosis is a demyelinating disorder of the CNS and is incurable. Which cells prevent regeneration of cells in the CNS?
    a) Astrocytes
    b) Schwann cells
    c) Oligodendrocytes
    d) Microglia
A

a) Astrocytes

73
Q
  1. What test can be performed to test for functioning of cranial nerve XII?
    a) ask the person to protrude and retract their tongue
    b) anterior two-thirds of the tongue is tested for ability to taste sweet, salty, sour, and bitter substances
    c) a tongue depressor is used to check the position of the uvula (gag and swallow reflexes are examined)
    d) ask the person to shrug their shoulders against resistance to test for strength of the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles
A

a) ask the person to protrude and retract their tongue

74
Q
  1. All of the following nerves have motor functioning except:
    a) optic
    b) oculomotor
    c) trochlear
    d) abducens
A

a) optic

75
Q
  1. What are the the layers of the meninges?
    a) Brain, Mata, Skull
    b) Pie mater, dureus mater, arachnoid mater
    c) Periosteal mater, meningeal mater, subarachnoid mater
    d) Pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid mater
A

d) Pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid mater

1016 MSC pass (1 decks)

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