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INTEGUMENTARY > RHEUMATIC CONDITIONS > Flashcards

RHEUMATIC CONDITIONS Flashcards

1
Q

What sensations are affected in the sensory assessment of a pt with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?

A

Light touch, vibration and proprioception

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2
Q

What sensations are affected in the sensory assessment of a pt with Diabetes Mellitus?

A

Light touch, pain and proprioception

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3
Q

What rheumatic condition causes a decrease in chest expansion due to a possible fibrosis affectation of the lungs?

A

Scleroderma

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4
Q

What rheumatic condition causes heliotrope rash and gottron papules?

A

Dermatomyositis

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5
Q

What rheumatic condition is urine analysis lab test useful for?

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

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6
Q

True or False. Decreased distal limb reflexes is seen in SLE and DM.

A

True

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7
Q

What is the triad of Reactive Arthritis or Reiter’s syndrome?

A

Conjunctivitis, Urethritis, Arthritis

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8
Q

What rheumatic condition is a contraindication for cryotherapy?

A

Scleroderma

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9
Q

What is first class medication for neuropathic pain?

A

Tricyclic antidepressants

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10
Q

When is carb intake done for an exercise?

A

Carb intake before an exercise is needed

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11
Q

How many hours should an exercise be done after insulin administration to avoid enhancing insulin circulation?

A

1 hour

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12
Q

What could occur during exercise up to 24 hours after exercise when carb intake is not done on a diabetic pt.? (hyperglycemia/ hypoglycemia)?

A

Hypoglycemia

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13
Q

Appropriate or Inappropriate. Do not schedule an exercise at peak of insulin.

A

Appropriate

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14
Q

What is the normal range of blood glucose levels (FBS Test)?

A

<100 mg/dL

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15
Q

Give the parameters for Conventional (high-rate) TENS.

___ pps, ___ us, sensation to be felt: ____, ___ mins, rationale: ____

A

Conventional TENS: 100-150pps, 50-80us, to produce tingling, 20 mins, to reduce pain

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16
Q

What modality is Psoriatic Arthritis a contraindication of?

A

Ultrasound: contraindicated on areas with Psoriatic Arthritis as it can increase risk of infection

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17
Q

True or False. Pt’s with arthritic conditions have increased risk of falls

A

True

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18
Q

What gait pattern should be used for a pt. with a neuropathic ulcer on the forefoot?

A

3 point gait pattern

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19
Q

What gait pattern should be used for a pt. with a neuropathic ulcer on the heel?

A

3-1 point gait pattern/ Modified 3 point gait pattern

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20
Q

What is the blood glucose level for a pt. to be diagnosed with Diabetes (FBS Test)?

A

> 126 mg/dL

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21
Q

True or False. The higher the ABI value the more severe arterial disease.

A

False. The lower the ABI value the more severe arterial disease.

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22
Q

What is the N value of ABI?

A

1.19-0.95

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23
Q

What type of wound closure is when the wound is left open to heal on its own?

A

Secondary Intention

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24
Q

What type of wound closure is when the wound is allowed to heal by secondary intention and then is closed by primary intention as the final treatment?

A

Tertiary Intention

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25
Q

What arterial disease is seen in young men who smoke?

A

Thromboangitis Obliterans (Buerger’s disease)

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26
Q

What is the vasomotor disease of small arteries and arterioles?

A

Raynaud’s Disease

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27
Q

What arterial disease is a peripheral manifestation of atherosclerosis?

A

Arteriosclerosis Obliterans (ASO)

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28
Q

True or False. Edema is seen in both arterial and venous insufficiency.

A

False. Edema is seen only in VENOUS insufficiency

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29
Q

Venous insufficiency or arterial insufficiency. What has decreased pulses, pallor on leg elevation, and rubor when dependent?

A

Arterial insufficiency

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30
Q

Upon performance of trendelenburg test, the distention of the veins within 5 secs after the tourniquet was removed indicates what?

A

Incompetence of superficial veins

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31
Q

What type of wound closure is usually done on infected wounds?

A

Tertiary intention

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32
Q

Which electrode is ideal for infected wounds (+) or (-) ?

A

Negative (-)

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33
Q

What do you call a color green wound drainage?

A

Infected pus

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34
Q

How many seconds indicates arterial insufficiency when performing venous filling test?

A

20 seconds of filling time

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35
Q

An ABI result of 0.63 may be indicative of ?

A

Moderate arterial disease

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36
Q

How long can the superficial dermis tolerate ischemia before breakdown occurs?

A

2-8 hours

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37
Q

How long can the deeper muscle, connective and fat tissues tolerate ischemia before breakdown occurs?

A

2 hours or less

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38
Q

True or False. Body temperature and humidity can cause pressure ulcer

A

True

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39
Q

What is the first clinical sign of pressure injury?

A

Blanchable erythema with increased skin temperature

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40
Q

In performing Buerger’s Test how long will the pt’s leg be elevated to 45 deg?

A

3 mins

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41
Q

What makes the Homan’s test (+) and what does it indicate?

A

(+) Pain in the calf indicates DVT

42
Q

What NPUAP stage is granulation tissue and epibole often present?

A

Stage 3 Pressure Injury: Full-thickness skin loss

43
Q

Appropriate or Inappropriate. Whirlpool indicated for clean wounds

A

Inappropriate.

44
Q

What ulcer is contraindicated for Whirlpool?

A

Venous ulcers

45
Q

What intervention is used to speed healing by rapid removal of contaminants?

A

Pulsatile lavage with suction

46
Q

True or False. Ordinary bath soaps are useful to promote wound healing

A

False. It is very cytotoxic to the cells

47
Q

What type of debridement is more effective for small areas of necrosis?

A

Enzymatic debrdement

48
Q

What two interventions are both non-selective debridement and cleansing?

A

Whirlpool and Pulsatile lavage with suction

49
Q

How many days are the newly hatched larvae placed on the wound before removal?

A

2-5 days before removal

50
Q

In autolytic debridement, how long should moisture retentive dressings be held in contact with the wound bed?

A

3-7 days

51
Q

What is a contraindication to antiseptics agents?

A

Non-infected wounds

52
Q

What is the purpose of oxydizing agents like hydrogen peroxide solution?

A

Removal of loose debris

53
Q

What 2 topic agents are used to treat thermal wounds like burns?

A

Silvadene/ Silver sulfadiazine

Sulfamylon/ mafenide acetate

54
Q

What antibacterial agent is used for Staphylococcus A.?

A

Bactroban/ mupirocin ointment

55
Q

What are the 4 different types of topical agents>

A

Antiseptics, antibacterials, analgesics and growth factors

56
Q

What term refers to promotes tissue healing primarily by ionic effects, attracting or repelling charged entities?

A

Galvanotaxis

57
Q

What do you call the use of an electrical current to promote transdermal drug penetration?

A

Iontophoresis

58
Q

Give the parameters for ES for tissue healing (Inflammatory phase/infected).

Waveform: ___, Polarity: ___, ___ pps, ___us, Sensation to be felt: ___, Treatment time: ___

A

Waveform: HVPC, Polarity: Negative, 60-125 pps, 40-100us, Sensation to be felt: to produce comfortable tingling, Treatment time: 45-60 mins

59
Q

How long is PSWD usually applied for?

A

30-60 mins, 1x or 2x/daily

60
Q

What is the shortest wavelength used in the therapy?

A

UVC

61
Q

How many inches away is the lamp from the area of the decubitus ulcer?

A

2 ~ 4 in. away from the area of the decubitus ulcer

62
Q

What rheumatic condition is contraindicated to the use of UVR?

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)

63
Q

What orthosis is the gold standard of care for neuropathic ulcers?

A

Total contact casting (TCC)

64
Q

What ABI value is a contraindication to TCC?

A

ABI <0.45

65
Q

What orthosis is as effective as TCC for wounds at toes or metatarsal heads?

A

DH walker

66
Q

What orthosis is good for forefoot ulcers?

A

Forefoot relief shoe (forefoot is hanging in space)

67
Q

What orthosis is effective in healing digital plant ulcers?

A

Healing shoe

68
Q

Give the parameters for Thermal US on superficial tissues.

A

100% duty cycle x 3MHz x 0.5-1.0W/cm2 x 5 mins c mild comfortable warmth to promote tissue extensibility

69
Q

What shoe wear is used to remove pressure off the metatarsal head?

A

Rocker bottom

70
Q

What type of lymphedema is caused by dissection of the lymphatic system?

A

Secondary lymphedema

71
Q

During this phase of wound healing, epithelial cells migrate beneath the scab to bridge the wound.

A

Migratory phase

72
Q

True or False. The zone of coagulation is the area of necrosis

A

True

73
Q

True or False. Apocrine sweat glands start to persist at birth.

A

False. Apocrine sweat glands start to persist at puberty.

74
Q

This epidermal layers marks the transition between the deeper, metabolically active strata and the dead cells of the more superficial strata

A

Stratum granulosum

75
Q

What intervention mistakes may lead to heterotrophic ossification?

A

Overstretching

76
Q

What i the timeframe for maturation phase of wound healing?

A

Day 9 to 2 years after hte injury

77
Q

True or False. A limited cutaneous type of scleroderma usually presents with a long hx of Raynaud’s disease.

A

True

78
Q

A pt diagnosed with Rheumatic conditions presents with joint pain and inflammation on B wrists, hands and knees. What is the most appropriate AD to reduce joint loading?

A

Platform crutch

79
Q

True or False. The ideal healing time for neuropathic ulcer is 12-20 wks.

A

True

80
Q

Good prognosticating factors include a duration of __months and wound area of __sq. cm

A

Duration of <2 months and Wound area of <2 sq. cm

81
Q

The means of transmission for pt’s with Leprosy is through ____.

A

Droplet

82
Q

What is the most common cause of burn injury in the pediatric age?

A

Scald burn

83
Q

True or False. Pencil in cup deformity is associated with PsA

A

True

84
Q

This type of dermatitis affects skin that gets wet frequently and presents as small, itchy humps on the sides of the fingers or toes and progresses to a rash.

A

Dyshidrotic

85
Q

True or False. SLE in pt’s over 40 tend to have a more active disease course.

A

False. SLE is more active in pt’s <40 and during first years after dx

86
Q

True or False. The erythema migrans associated with Lyme Disease may have delayed onset of 7 days after bite from an infected tick.

A

True

87
Q

Is Reactive Arthritis have a clinical presentation of asymmetrical or symmetrical arthritis?

A

Asymmetrical arthritis begins in knee and ankle

88
Q

What modality is contraindicated for Progressive systemic sclerosis?

A

Cryotherapy

89
Q

True or False. PsA combined features of RA and Spondyloarthropathy.

A

True

90
Q

What medications have shown to reduce radiographic progression among pt’s with PsA?

A

TNF inhibitor

91
Q

True or False. If healing of wound occurs between 14 and 21 days, compression is strongly recommended.

A

True

92
Q

What joint is commonly affected in arthritis associate with Lyme disease?

A

Knee

93
Q

True or False. At least 5 points in CASPAr criteria to confirm Psoriatic Arthritis.

A

False. At least 3 points to confirm PsA

94
Q

In the early phase of burn, what type of ROM is preferred?

A

AROM

95
Q

What type of stretch is considered the safest and yield most changes in soft tissue an scar?

A

Low-load, long-duration stretch

96
Q

Skin grafting and compression is mandatory in burn pt’s with healing time of __days.

A

Healing time is longer > 21 days

97
Q

Under what phase of burn care is wound debridement/wound care?

A

Wound Excision Phase

98
Q

What is the most commonly used topical agent for burn and is also effective against pseudomonas infections?

A

Silver Sulfadiazine

99
Q

What is the common positional deformity of the ankle?

A

Ankle Plantarflexion

100
Q

What depth of burn has broken blisters?

A

Deep-partial thickness burn

101
Q

What is the proper sequence of doffing of protective garment?

A

Gown > Gloves > Mask > Cap (Remember gown first then distal to proximal)

102
Q

What is the proper sequence of donning of protective garment?

A

Cap > Mask > Gown > Gloves (Remember proximal to distal)

INTEGUMENTARY (2 decks)

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