Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EMS captain > SOGs 2020 > Flashcards

SOGs 2020 Flashcards

1
Q

Who’s responsibility is it to assign a safety officer?

A

IC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

All safety officers will have the authority to ?

A

Identify and correct safety and heath hazards

To alter,suspend, or terminate un -safe acts that involve an imminent hazard to personnel
Inform the IC of the 2 items above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A safety office should have a working knowledge of what?

A

Safety concerns for fire rescue in typical incidents
Fire behavior
Building construction
EMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Only those person who have completed and approved Incident safety officer course ________ be used as a safety officer.

A

SHOULD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A safety office shall be appointed on the following incidents?

A

HWH-hazardous, Wildland, high hazard

Incident becomes so large, complex, or dangerous that reasoned safety is potentially threatened.
Hazardous or potentially hazardous environments:
Structure fires
Special operations incidents
Large multi casualty incidents
Wild land fires with 4 or more units or during extreme weather.
Any high Hazard Training:
Live burn evolutions
Smoke drills
Dive rescue
Extrication
Elevated victim rescue
above or Below grade operations
confined space rescue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Once assigned to Safety officer what are the duties?

A

Don appropriate vest and PPE
Ensure no entry into the hot zone as a single person
Ensure all control zones are established or adjust as necessary
Ensure exclusion zones are recognized
Rehab
Atmospheric monitoring
Remain on scene until relieved by the IC or designee
Document actions as to the incident reporting guide
any accidents injuries or unsafe acts or safety concerns should follow the CQI
Communicate with EMERGENCY TRAFFIC the exclusion zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Who do assistant safety officers report to?

A

Directly to the Incident safety officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How are safety officers general y assigned?

A

To a geographical or functional area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The following incidents REQUIRE an assistant safety officer?

A

Hazardous material
Dive team operations
Open water incidents
Rehab when assigned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

“Mayday” definition is?

A

Lost
Trapped
Disoriented
Seriously injured
Experiencing an Air emergency
In need of immediate help

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The term “MAYDAY” should be used when ?

A

Lost
Trapped
Disoriented
Seriously injured
Air emergency
‘In need of immediate help

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When a “MAYDAY” is called what happens to the Tac channels?

A

The MAYDAY remains on the original channel and other operations will switch .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

During a “MAYDAY” the ISO should request what?

A

An additional safety officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The TAC stick shall only be used to?

A

Identify an energized source so an exclusionary zone can be created

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The ONLY useful purpose for a TAC stick is:

A

To identify energy sources that were not previously aware of

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The TAC stick has 4 indicators?

A

Detects AC current only

Provides warning in audible beeps and flashes

Warning signals increase in strength as amplitude increases

Warning signal s make it possible to locate the signal quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The TAC stick does not?

A

Read DC current
Or pick up shielded AC voltage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The 3 sensitivities for the TAC are?

A

HIGH
LOW
FRONT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When using the TAC stick the user should start on which sensitivity?

A

HIGH and move to lower ones later.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

During which incidents is the TAC stick particularly useful?

A

Night operations and post storm area searches.

Fires

Powerlines down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Atmospheric monitors are carried on which vehicles

A

Engines
Aerials
Rescues
BC
EMS captain
Special ops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Who is equipped with the drager X-am 5000 5 gas monitor

A

EMS captains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The difference between the drager X am 2500 and 5000 is ?

A

The 500o does OV monitoring for Ethylene oxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The Drager X am 5000 monitors which substances?

A

O2
Flammability
CO
H2S
OV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When an atmospheric monitor alarms who SHALL be informed?

A

IC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Active atmospheric monitoring is used when ?

A

Firefighter is actively monitoring an atmosphere to detect the presence of a leak
Investigating residential or commercial alarm activations to determine hazards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the common gasses between the drager atmospheric monitors

A

O2
Flammability
CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What gas and how much is required for both drager monitors to operate correctly?

A

02 and 10% above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are normal atmospheric conditions

A

O2- 21%
LEL -0%
CO- 0 PPM
H2S- 0 PPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

H2s has an almond like Oder detectable at what levels?

A

1-5ppm and 60-70% of the population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The ISO with regards to atomospheric monitoring SHALL ensure:

A

Levels are safe before allowing personnel to remove SCBA during overhaul

Benefits outweigh risks with OV
Respiratory protection is used accordingly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Half mask cartridge respirators with organic vapor filters can be used when 2 conditions apply?

A

OV only and 02 is normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are Half mask cartridge respirators w/ organic vapors particularly used for?

A

Wildland fires

D/O operating at the pump panel

ISO

Post fire activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The IC or ISO shall determine if it is safe for what to happen when atmospheric monitoring?

A
  1. FF remove their respiratory protection
  2. Occupants to enter the structure
  3. Fire investigators to enter any structure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

TIC operations: our eyes work by seeing contrast by objects that are illuminated by either. _______ or. __________.

A

Sun or another from of light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

TIC operations in normal temperatures - a victim or FF will appear what color?

A

White

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

TIC operations with victim or FF in structure fire will appear ?

A

Dark

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

TIC operations for the most prominent feature of a FF is ?

A

SCBA bottle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

TIC’s are assigned to which apparatus?

A

Every Engine, aerial, most rescues, EMS captain , and BC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Who are responsible for checking the TIC?

A

All company officers and chief officers in custody of the TIC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

TICs are used for:

A

Search and rescue

Fire Attack

Overhaul

HAZMAT

Vehicle accidents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

TIC limitations:

A

Cannot see into a windowless building- need temperature differences
Cannot see under water
Cannot see through windows or glass
Cannot see through highly reflective materials - stainless, steel, mirrors, windows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

PBCFR used which Rehab standard for Heat stress index?

A

WBGT- Wet bulb globe temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The heat stress index Is made up from ?

A
  1. Air Temperature
  2. Air Speed
  3. Humidity
  4. Radiation - direct sun light
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How many of hours of work may be sustained if ________, _________, _________ and hours__________.

A

Rest
Hydration
Energy nutrition

At least 4 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the 5 components of REHAB?

A
  1. Rest
  2. Energy nutrition
  3. Hydration
  4. Accommodation for weather
  5. BLS and ALS monitoring
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the priority order for REHAB?

A

RHBEA

  1. Rest
  2. Hydration
  3. BLS and ALS
  4. Energy nutrition
  5. Accommodation for weather.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the most important V/S to stabilize?

A

CORE temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What percent is active cooling better than passive cooling?

A

50-60% more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the medical NO-GO criteria?

A

SBP< 100
Pulse >100 with ANY of the following:
Temp > 101
SBP> 180
DBP>100
SPCO>0
ALS S/S.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the time frames for rehab?

A

20 min X 2 for a total of 40 minutes. After 40 minutes BLS/ALS tx, and transport or referral to OHC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Rehab 6 hours post fire incident is in reference to ?

A

Cardiac arrest and WILL be treated for cyanide exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Rehab 24 hours post fire incident refer to as?

A

Carbon monoxide and cyanide exposures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The rehab unit works under which command branch?

A

Logistics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

If there is no logistics branch who does the rehab unit report to?

A

IC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Companies should be placed in rehab when ?

A

Worked for 45min
Used 2 air bottles consecutively
Rehab chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

An assistant safety officer may be assigned by the IC for rehab under what incidents?

A

Physical labor of > 2 hours
Excessive rotation of companies
Incidents that require defined hourly work periods
Hire rise fires not controlled by a single company
Wildland fires
Hazmat incidents
Confined space incidents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The incident safety officer will have the 1st EMS captain on all __________ __________ and _____________ __________provide what to whom?

A

Working fires and Hazmat incidents their rainbow sensor to the Rehab unit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Where should the SCBA refill are be located?

A

Near the “Drop Zone” in the WARM zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The rehab tracking worksheet has what recorded on them ?

A

Pulse
BP
Temp
Respirations
SP02
SPCO
SPMET

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Where do companies leaving rehab report to?

A

Staging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The unit rehab tracking worksheet becomes part of what?

A

Permanent medical record.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

A patient exists when ?

A

medical complaint,

obvious injury,

appears in distress

Suggestive of acute illness or injury
Such as: HX, MOI, appearance

Lack of capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Motor vehicle accident criteria for a patient?

A

Greater than minor damage

No restraint used

Air bag deployed

Steering wheel damage

Other occupants have injuries

Appearance and behavior not normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

People on the ground are patients when?

A

Unable to get up without assistance

Gets up but does not have capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The definition of “Capacity “ is?

A

The ability to understand the benefits, risks, and alternatives to a proposed tx or intervention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Public assists are patients when?

A

Inability to ambulate is chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Summary of a patient is when the following are met?

A

Any medical complaint, injury or distress
Suggestive acute injury or illness
Lack of capacity
MVC with more than :
Minor Damage
no restraints
air bags
Steering wheeL
occupant injuries
appearance and behavior not normal
Fall that cannot get up on their own
Public assists with acute ambulatory issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Definition of an MCI?

A

One that exceeds the capabilities of the first arriving units?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

MCI levels are what numbers?

A

1- 1-10
2-11-20
3.21-100
4.101-1000
5.greater than 1000.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

MCI types are classified as:

A

CBRNE
Shootings
MVC’s
Plane crashes
Collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Name, DOB, phone number and brief narrative are required for which levels of an MCI?

A

Levels 1 and 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

METTAG number, basic information and tx information are required for what level MCI?

A

3 or above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Command structure assignments for an MCI may include what?

A

Treatment
Transport
Triage
Staging
Rehab
Hazard mitigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Who maintains the list of resources that may be beneficial in an MCI?

A

FOO

76
Q

The first arriving unit responsibilities to an MCI are what ?

A

Establish Command
360
Establish exclusion zone
Declare LEVEL and TYPE MCI
Initial triage
Assign incoming units based on LIPE
Additional resources
Staging officer

77
Q

When declaring an MCI what 2 things must be included?

A

LEVEL and TYPE

78
Q

Safety officer responsibility for an MCI are to do 3 things:

A
  1. Request LE
  2. Provide physical security
  3. Exclusion zone
79
Q

Additional backboards can be requested from who?

A

Support 81
Rescues in staging
Inventory specialist

80
Q

During an MCI command needs to be updated with what information?

A

Number of patients
Patient categories
Additional resources needed.

81
Q

The MCI transport log has what information on it?

A

Patient METTAG ID
Destination hospital
Transport unit number

82
Q

An “After Action Review” is required for what level MCI?

A

Level 3 or higher

83
Q

With refusals, who may help convince a patient?

A

Family members
Friends
Physician
EMS captain
Medical director

84
Q

In order to sign a refusal for transport Fire rescue personnel SHALL?

A

Exhaust all reasonable efforts have been exhausted

Inform the patient that if at any time they change mind or condition deteriorates/ changes they should call 911

85
Q

What patients my be examined, treated, or transported without their consent?

A

Suspected medical conditions that are likely to be incapacitated from intoxication or other medical conditionsl

86
Q

Adult who can refuse treatment or transport criteria?

A

>18 yrs old
AAOx4
Clinically sober
Hypoxia< 94 on room air
COPD < 90
Syncope
Head injury w/ LOC
>100.5
Sever pain
Hypotension
Stroke

87
Q

Minors refusal criteria?

A

Parent or legal guardian
<18 yrs old if Married
emancipation
military
Parent or guardian by phone w/ person on scene willing to sign

88
Q

If a parent is consenting by phone to not have minor treated or transported and no one can sign the refusal form what happens?

A

Minor to be transported to the appropriate emergency department

89
Q

Pregnant minors can refuse transport only for?

A

Only if the condition if the condition is related to the pregnancy. If not, then no refusal. Ie. Broken leg.

90
Q

Diabetics can refuse transport if ALL the following are met?

A

Baseline, Levels, Food, Adult, oral

Regained baseline mental status
Blood sugar has returned to normal levels
Immediate access to food
A competent adult is present and willing to assume care
Meets criteria to for a general refusal.
Not taking oral hypoglycemic medications

91
Q

What are the oral hypoglycemic medications?

A

Glipizide
Glyburide
Glimperide

92
Q

If a parent or guardian refuses a physical exam what must be documented?

A

Visual exam
Mental status
General appearance
Work of breathing
Circulation to skin

93
Q

What shall be documented in the pcr for refusals of treatment?

A

Refusal can result in death or disability
They were AAOx4- clinically sober w/ no life or potential life threatening conditions
Have the capacity to refuse

94
Q

What shall be documented for refusals of Transport?

A

Death Disablity, AAOx4, Clinically sober, impaired judgement, capacity, assessment, exam, 2 set v/s.

Not being transported may result in death or disability
AAOx4- clinically sober, with no life or potential life threatening conditions to impair judgment
Capacity

Patient assessment
Physical exam
2 sets of V/S

95
Q

Refusal breakdown chart?

A

Refusals:
Adults
Minors
Pregnancy
Diabetics

Treatment refusal:
Death or disability
AAOx4 w/ no life or potential life threatening condition to impair judgment
Have Capacity

Transport refusal:
Death or disability
AAOx4 w/ no life or potential life threatening condition to impair judgment
Have capacity
Patent assessment
Physical exam
2 sets of V/S
Meet all previous criteria for refusal

96
Q

A DNRO applies to who?

A

Cardiac or respiratory arrest
Succumbing to a disease process of a terminal illness

97
Q

The following SHALL NEVER be performed on patients with a DNRO?

A

Artificial respiration
BVM
ET tube
Supraglottic A/W
Chest compressions
Defibrillation

98
Q

A valid DNRO shall be:

A

Signed by the competent patient or patients representative
Signed by the licensed Florida physician
Be on original canary yellow or copied on similar colored paper.

99
Q

The DNRO identification device must be signed by who if the patient cannot provide consent?

A

Surrogate
Proxy
court order
Power of attorney

100
Q

What are acceptable forms of ID for DNRO

A

Drivers license
Other photo identification
Witness in the presence of the patient

101
Q

Who can revoke a DNRO?

A

Patient
Surrogate
Proxy
Court order
Power of attorney

102
Q

How can a DNRO be revoked?

A

By writing
Physical destruction
Failure to produce
Orally expressing a contrary intent

103
Q

For termination of resuscitation efforts who does the scene get turned over to?

A

Law enforcement
Or CARES team.

104
Q

When can a body be covered with a sheet?

A

When no suspicion of a crime scene

105
Q

What other documentation is needed post resuscitation termination of efforts?

A

EKG strip to PCR
ETCO2 to PCR for advanced airway placement

106
Q

What is the primary goal with an active shooter event?

A

Ensure joint command and communications from FR and LE to minimize the risk and maximize safety for all response personnel.

107
Q

What does ASHER/ MCI stand for?

A

Active Shooter Hostile Event Response- Mass casualty incident

108
Q

Who has the ultimate responsibility for an ASHER/MCI (Active shooter hostile event response)?

A

Law Enforcement

109
Q

What is the main role in an ASHER/MCI for Fire Rescue?

A

Fire and medical decisions

110
Q

The THREAT acronym for an ASHER/ MCI stands for what ?

A

Threat Supression
Hemorrhage Control
Rapid extrication
Assessment
Transport

111
Q

What does RTF-PEM stand for?

A

Rescue task Force- Protective element medical

112
Q

Who makes up the RTF-PEM Team?

A

3 Fire rescue
4 LE

113
Q

Where does the RTF-PEM team operate?

A

Warm zone only.

114
Q

What are the 4 zones for ASHER/MCI?

A

Exclusion
Hot
Warm
Cold

115
Q

Definition of the “exclusion zone”?

A

Risks outweigh the benefits
No FF operations allowed

116
Q

Definition of HOT zone with ASHER/MCI?

A

HIgh risk area
No FF operations allowed

117
Q

Definition of “Warm Zone” for ASHER/ MCI?

A

Area with “LITTLE” risk
RTF-PEM teams operate
CCP operates here

118
Q

Definition of “Cold Zone” for an ASHER/ MCI?

A

Area of no risk
Cold “O” no “O”
All support operations
Unified command
Final approach position
Staging

119
Q

The IC shall be advised immediately during an ASHER/ MCI when ?

A

Fire rescue personnel are requested to or are found in the “HOT or Exclusion “ zones

120
Q

RTF-PEM teams are committed by the IC only when ?

A

Threat to life

Benefits outweigh risks

121
Q

Unified command will use which management system?

A

NIMS- National incident Management system

122
Q

Response code levels to an ASHER/MCI by Fire Rescue are?

A

Code 3 with lights and sirens until unit crosses the LE perimeter./

123
Q

Who gets notified of an ASHER/MCI incident?

A

FOO

PIO

124
Q

1st arriving unit responsibilities on a ASHER/MCI?

A

Establish command
Set LEVEL 2 staging
Set up command at Staging
Establish a unified command with LE.

125
Q

What level MCI and why should be set for ASHER/MCI ?

A

Level 2 due to unknown amount of victims

126
Q

The IC should request how many TAC channelsfor an ASHER/ MCI

A

3 TAC channels:

  1. RTF-PEM
  2. Medical
  3. Staging
127
Q

1st Arriving EMS captain on a ASHER/MCI “SHOULD”?

A

BE the incident safety officer
Ensure the following items are brought to the FUP - Forming up Position
- Available RTF- PEM kits
- Available SKEDS
-Available TQ’s
-Available Mega movers
-Available Trauma rapid response kits

128
Q

The Fire rescue RTF-PEM supervisor is established by who and works on which TAC channels

A

IC and 7a or 8/a and 14a or 15a.

129
Q

Where is the fire rescue RTF-PEM group supervisor located?

A

Next to the Tactical LE officer in the “Cold Zone”

130
Q

The fire rescue RTF- PEM TEAM leader reports what to the Fire rescue RTF-PEM group supervisor

A

PAR levels

  • going in and out of the warm zone
  • going in and out of structures in the warm zone
  • Changing floors or levels with in the warm zone
131
Q

The Fire rescue RTF-PEM TEAM leader reports what to the LE RTF-PEM ?

A

Total number of victims
Non ambulatory patients
When ready to move

132
Q

The FUP in a ASHER/MCI is defined as?

A

Forming Up Position where FR and LE meet to form a team

133
Q

What is the FAP definition for ASHER/ MCI?

A

Final Approach position- is the outside area where the RTF-PEM team enters the warm zone

134
Q

What is the Definition of a “Strong Hold” with and ASHER/MCI ?

A

Defensible area within the warm zone that has no windows and all doorways are covered by LE

Also serves a CCP

135
Q

What categories do ASHER/ MCI patients get categorized to using TECC? (MCI level)

A

Immediate and Delayed

136
Q

the Definition of the CCP in an ASHER/MCI?

A

Casualty Collection Point- in the warm zone where patients are triaged and treated.

137
Q

ASHER/MCI incidents with fire are what mode of operation?

A

Defensive

138
Q

Blood Draws are performed when ?

A

Request of LE

139
Q

Who’s responsible for restraining an patient for a blood draw?

A

LE

140
Q

If a patient is too combative for a blood draw and at the discretion of the PM?

A

Blood draw will not be performed and EMS captain notified.

141
Q

Documentation of blood draw will include what?

A

Name and badge number of Officer
Kit sealed Y/ N
PM name
Site
Number of tubes drawn
Date and time
Who sample was turned over to

142
Q

What pages in the ERG are used for LPG and Natural gas leaks?

A

20-25 and orange guide sections 115-116.

143
Q

Natural gas has an LEL of?

A

5.3-14%

144
Q

Propane has an LEL of?

A

2.1-9.5%

145
Q

What gas type and pipe size does not contain mercaptan?

A

Natural gas in sizes 18” or greater

146
Q

Common Natural gas lines that are 24” are found where in PBC?

A

Along the turnpike

Port of palm beach to West county energy center owned by FPL

147
Q

Natural gas lines are what sizes?

A

Commercial 1-4”

Residential 1/2-3/4”

148
Q

On a confirmed LPG/NG leak where does the “Hot zone” start

A

Where the 4 gas monitor has LEL readings above 0

149
Q

What is the minimum size hose line and nozzle for confirmed LPG/NG leak?

A

1 3/4” with a fog nozzle

150
Q

For exterior LPG/NG leaks on above ground containers - they should be cooled with what?

A

2 1/2” line at 200gpm

151
Q

For exterior LPG/NG leaks on above ground containers of 1000lb or greater they should be cooled with what?

A

Ground monitor flowing minimum 500gpm

152
Q

Documentation for LPG/NG response on the technician is?

A

Name
Phone number
ID or employee number

153
Q

The 5 gas monitor will be used when ?

A

Incidents where combustion processes have taken place

In areas with close proximity to any fire- wildland, structure, vehicle, training, or dumpster

154
Q

All atomspheric monitioring readings are entered where?

A

in the appropriate fire reporting system

155
Q

what greatly influences the atomosphere surrounding the hot zone?

A

wind direction

156
Q

Where shall H2S be monitored ?

A

areas of decomposition:

Sewers

Septic tanks

Horse barns

157
Q

daily fluid intake should no exceed how much?

A

12 quarts

158
Q

Sweating is also known as?

A

evaporative cooling

159
Q

How many degrees are added to WBGT index is wearing

Full PPE and SCBA?

Full PPE without SCBA?

A

5 degrees

3 degrees

160
Q

if a FF is treated and transported from REHAB what froms are used and sent where?

A

REHAB tracking worksheet becomes part of the medical record and fowarded to the reconds custodian.

161
Q

Hazard mitigation during an MCI includes what examples?

A

fire supression

structural stabilization

vehicle stabilization

fuel leak containment

162
Q

who is eqipped with the draeger xam 2500 gas monitor/

A

Engine

aerial

BC

SPLOPS

163
Q

What are the typical storage tank capacities for NG and LPG?

A

BBQ- 20lb

Forklift- 33lb

Commerical -100-420lbs

Residential 500lb

HQ 30K

164
Q

What ventialtion type and what percent must it be for clearing out a structure with gas?

A

Natural ventilation

2%

165
Q

What offensice measrues can SPLOPS take with gas emergencies?

A

Grounding

Plugging

Cutting

Clampling

Squeezing

Flairing off

166
Q

The HSO will respond to what investigate what incidents?

A

Injuries to Employee or reservist that rquires trasnport or are fatally injured.

Vehicle accidents that involve fatalities or injuries that require ALS and are non ambulatory.

167
Q

The HSO will help in processing what information for an incident?

A

“3” IONS

Information

documentation

Notification

analysis

processing and mtigation

168
Q

What has to be in place before a RTF-PEM team is deployed?

A

Unified command has to be in place

169
Q

The HSO supports who for investigations regarding accidents or injires to personnel?

A

DC

BC
risk mgt

170
Q

who is the preferred person to manage a Mayday?

A

ISO

171
Q

there is only one thing the ISO should consider requesting for a mayday?

A

Request an assistant ISO

172
Q

when the mayday FF is attempting to self extract and cannot find a door, window, or other egress point what can they use?

A

Exterior wall

173
Q

one the mayday FF is at a wall the should search for what to lead them outside?

A

doors

windows

hallways

174
Q

extreme caution should be used with ther tac stick for the possibilites of ?

A

open neutrals

automatic or back fed generators

175
Q
A
176
Q
A
177
Q

who ensures atmospheric monitioing is established when incident command has not been established?

A

Company officer.

178
Q

the TIC works by how?

A

seeing heat energy from objects

179
Q

TICs should be used with caution in combustible gas enviornments why?

A

not intrinsically safe

180
Q

who gets notified of any health concern or illness befroe or during scheduled training

A

Training instructor

181
Q
A
182
Q

What is considered moderate work for the rehab chart?

A

physical training

Vehicle extrication

Vehicle fire

Ladder raise and climb

Search and rescue non fire

Hose line advancement non fire

exposure control

salvage

183
Q

What is considered Hard work for the Rehab chart?

A

Search and rescue live fire

Hose line advancement live fire

extinguishment

vertical ventilation

overhaul

Level A entries

184
Q

What are the rehab flag colors?

A

no color

white

green

yellow

red

black

185
Q

what are the six flag colors for the WBGT?

A

no color

white

green

yellow

red

black

186
Q

with regards to REHAB, what activities fall under “Hard”

A

Live fire hose mgt

Live fire Search and rescue

Level A suit entries

extinguishement

vertical ventilation

overhaul

187
Q

what activities fall under the “easy” category for the WBGT?

EASY- 4 items

A

ladder raise

ropes and knots

equipment maintenance

pump operations

EMS captain (25 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions