Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Laz's Specialties COPY > Paediatrics > Flashcards

Paediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

When is the 6 in 1 vaccine given?

A

2, 3 and 4 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When is the pneumococcus vaccine given?

A

2, 4 and 12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When is the Men B vaccine given?

A

2, 4 and 12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When is the rotavirus vaccine given?

A

2 and 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When is the Hib/MenC booster given?

A

1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When is the MMR given?

A

1 year and 3 years 4 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When is the HPV vaccine given?

A

12-13 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When is the Men ACWY vaccine given?

A

14 years

New university students aged 19-25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Outline the management of DDH.

A

If < 2 months, observation and serial examination and ultrasound is recommended (every months)
If it persists/worsens, hip abduction orthosis (splint) or Pavlik harness are recommended (serial follow-up and plain X-ray at 6 months)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Outline how hearing is tested in the neonate.

A

1st: evoked otoacoustic emission (EOEA) testing

If this is abnormal –> automated auditory brain stem (AABR) audiometry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Briefly outline the steps in the management of necrotising enterocolitis.

A

Stop oral feeding
Broad spectrum antibiotics (ceftriaxone and vancomycin)
Surgery if perforation/necrosis
TPN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What can be used to close a PDA?

A

IV indomethacin
Prostacyclin synthetase inhibitor
Ibuprofen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is the bilirubin concentration measured in neonatal jaundice?

A

If < 24 hours or < 35 weeks gestation = serum bilirubin

If > 24 hours or > 35 weeks gestation = transcutaneous bilirubin (if this is > 250 µmol/L - check serum bilirubin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What serum bilirubin levels suggests increased risk of developing kernicterus?

A

> 340 µmol/L in babies > 37 weeks

or rising rapidly > 8.5 µmol/L/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How often should serum bilirubin be measured in a neonate with jaundice?

A

Every 6 hours until it drops below the treatment threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which investigations should be performed in a neonate who developed jaundice within 24 hours of birth?

A 
Haematocrit 
Blood group of mother and baby 
DAT test 
FBC and blood film
Blood G6PD level 
Blood/urine/CSF culture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which antibiotics are used to treat meconium aspiration?

A

IV ampicillin and gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which antibiotics may be used in the treatment of early-onset sepsis?

A

Benzylpenicillin and gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which organism most commonly causes late-onset sepsis?

A

Coagulase-negative staphylococcus (e.g. Staphylococcus epidermidis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How is neonatal meningitis treated?

A

3rd generation cephalosporin + amoxicillin/ampicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the paediatric sepsis 6?

A
  1. Supplemental oxygen
  2. Gain IV or IO access and order blood cultures, blood glucose and arterial/capillary/venous gasses
  3. IV/IO broad-spectrum antibiotics
  4. IV fluids (be cautious about fluid overload)
  5. Experienced senior clinicians should be involved early
  6. Vasoactive inotropic support (e.g. adrenaline) should be considered early
    a. Considered if normal physiological parameters are NOT achieved after > 40 ml/kg of fluid resuscitation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How should neonatal conjunctivitis be treated?

A

Discharge and redness (staph or strep) - topical ointment (e.g. neomycin)
Gonococcus - 3rd generation cephalosporin
Chlamydia - erythromycin (2 weeks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What should babies at risk of vertical hepatitis B transmission receive?

A

Hepatitis B immunoglobulin AND Hep B vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How is gastro-oesophageal reflux in a breastfed infant treated?

A

1st line: Breastfeeding assessment

2nd line: trial of alginate therapy for 1-2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How is gastro-oesophageal reflux in a formula fed infant treated?

A

1st line: review feeding history (check for overfeeding)
2nd line: offer trial of smaller more frequent feeds
3rd line: offer trial of thickened formula
4th line: offer trial of alginate therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

If conservative measures to treat GOR in an infant fail, what should you do?

A

Consider a 4-week trial of a PPI or histamine antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

State an example of an antibiotic regimen that may be used to eliminate H. pylori.

A

Amoxicillin + metronidazole/clarithromycin

This is given as a 7-day triple therapy with a PPI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How are the maintenance fluid values for children calculated?

A

0-10 kg = 100 ml/kg/day
10-20 kg = 1000 mL + 50 ml/kg/day
20+ kg = 1500 mL + 20 ml/kg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How is the amount of fluid required when giving a bolus to a child calculated?

A

20 ml/kg of NaCl in < 10 mins

NOTE: use 10 mL/kg if DKA, trauma, fluid overload or heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What precaution must be taken when rehydrating a child with hypernatraemic dehydration?

A

Replace fluid deficit over 48 hours and measure plasma sodium regularly
Rapid reduction in plasma sodium can lead to seizures and cerebral oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What should be monitored in children with Coeliac disease?

A 
Annual review 
Weight, height and BMI 
Review symptoms 
Review diet and adherence
Consider blood tests
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the management options in a UC patient with:
Mild proctitis
Mild left-sided and extensive disease
Maintainin remission

A

Mild proctitis
- Oral/topical aminosalicylates
Mild left-sided and extensive disease
- Oral aminosalicylates (consider topical aminosalicylate or oral steroid)
Maintaining remission
- Aminosalicylates
- Consider oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine
NOTE: if aminosalicylates are ineffective after 4 weeks, consider adding oral prednisolone (if this is ineffective, consider oral tacrolimus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How is severe fulminating disease in UC managed?

A

IV corticosteroids (induce remission)
Consider IV ciclosporin
Surgery - colectomy with ileostomy or IJ pouch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is a major risk of UC and how are patient’s monitored for it?

A

UC is associated with bowel cancer

Regular colonoscopic screening performed after 10 years of diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How is constipation with faecal impaction treated?

A

1 - DISIMPACTION REGIME
Movicol Paediatric Plain
If not effective - senna
If not tolerated - senna + lactulose
2 - MAINTENANCE LAXATIVES
Movicol with or without senna (carry on for several months and titrate dose based on stools )
3 - BEHAVIOURAL METHODS (e.g. star charts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How are anal fissures in children treated?

A

Ensure ease of passing stool (consider constipation treatment, advise increase in fluid intake and dietary fibre)
Offer simple analgesia
Advise sitting in a shallow, warm bath to reduce discomfort
Adult treatments (topical diltiazem or GTN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How is threadworm infection treated?

A

If > 6 months: single dose mebendazole for child and all household contacts and hygiene measures (for 2 weeks)
If < 6 months: 6 weeks of hygiene measures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which antibiotic is used in the management of bacterial meningitis in hospital?

A

IV ceftriaxone
N. meningitidis - 7 days
H. influenzae - 10 days
S. pneumoniae - 14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which antibiotics might you use in a patient with bacterial meningitis who has a severe beta-lactam allergy?

A

Vancomycin and moxifloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How should a patient with bacterial meningitis be followed-up?

A

Discuss potential long-term effects and pattern of recovery (e.g. hearing problems)
Offer formal audiological assessment
Consider testing for complement deficiency if more than one episode of meningococcal septicaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How is HSV encephalitis treated?

A

High-dose IV aciclovir for 3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How is toxic shock syndrome managed?

A 
ICU 
Surgical debridement of infected tissue 
Clindamycin (stops toxin production)
Vancomycin or meropenem
IVIG (neutralise the toxin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How is impetigo treated?

A

Localised infection = topical fusidic acid (3-4/day for 7 days)
Extensive Infection = oral flucloxacillin (QDS for 7 days)
Clarithromycin if penicillin allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How is periorbital cellulitis treated?

A

High-dose IV ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

When is a child with chickenpox considered infectious?

A

Most infectious 1-2 days before the rash

Infectious until all the lesions have crusted over (usually 5 days after onset)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which groups of patients should children with chickenpox avoid?

A

Pregnant women
People who are immunocompromised
Infants < 4 weeks old
NOTE: avoid school until lesions have crusted over

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What must young people with EBV avoid doing?

A

Contact sports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which medications are occasionally used to treat CMV infection?

A

IV ganciclovir
Oral valganciclovir
Foscarnet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How long should a child stay away from school for after measles infection?

A

4 days after rash onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How long should a child stay away from school for after mumps infection?

A

5 days after the development of parotitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How are mumps and rubella diagnosed?

A

Oral fluid sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How is Kawasaki disease managed?

A

High-dose aspirin (7.5-12.5 mg/kg QDS for 2 weeks or until afebrile, then 2-5 mg/kg once daily for 6-8 weeks)
IVIG (2 g/kg daily for 1 dose)
Echocardiogram (check for coronary artery aneurysms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What steps can be taken to reduce the risk of vertical transmission of HIV?

A

Intrapartum zidovudine infusion
Elective C-section (if high viral load)
Zidovudine treatment for neonate (up to 6 weeks)
Avoidance of breastfeeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Outline the management of food allergy.

A

Avoidance
Provide an allergy action plan for managing an allergic attack
Mild reactions - non-sedating antihistamine (e.g. fexofenadine)
Severe reactions - provide an EpiPen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How is Cow’s milk protein allergy managed?

A

Breastfed - advise mother to exclude dairy from her diet (consider prescribing vitamin D and calcium supplements)
Formula-fed - use extensively hydrolysed formula
Trial for at least 6 months, and consider gradually reintroducing dairy following a milk ladder under medical supervision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which tests can you do to further investigate suspected cow’s milk protein allergy?

A

Skin prick testing

Specific IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What PRN treatment may be appropriate for patients with allergic rhinitis?

A

Aged 2-5: oral antihistamine

Everyone else: intranasal azelastine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What preventative treatment may be used in patients with allergic rhinitis?

A

if main issue is nasal blockage or polyps - intranasal corticosteroid (e.g. beclometasone)
If main issue is sneezing/nasal discharge - oral antihistamine or intranasal corticosteroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How would you treat urticaria?

A

Identify and manage triggers
Oral antihistamine for up to 6 weeks
Severe - oral corticosteroid
Refractory - IgE antibody or LTRA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How is bacterial tonsillitis treated?

A 
Penicillin V (10 days) 
Allergy: clarithromycin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Which medication should be avoided in tonsillitis?

A

Amoxicillin

Causes a widespread maculopapular rash in infectious mononucleosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How is scarlet fever treated?

A

Penicillin V QDS for 10 days

Allergy: azithromycin, clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How long should patients with strep throat/scarlet fever stay away from school?

A

24 hours after starting antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the first-line medical management for acute otitis media?

A

Amoxicillin 5-7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How should sinusitis be managed?

A

< 10 days: reassure that it is usually viral and self-resolving
> 10 days: high-dose intranasal steroids (if > 12 years)
Consider back-up antibiotic prescription if not improved by 7 days (pen V)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which severity of croup requires admission?

A

Anything worse than mild

I.e. anything worse than a barking cough on its own

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How is croup treated?

A

0.15 mg/kg dexamethasone stat

This can be repeated after 12 hours if necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

How is severe croup treated in an emergency?

A

High-flow oxygen

Nebulised adrenaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How is acute epiglottitis managed?

A 
Urgent hospital admission (ICU)
Secure airway and supplemental oxygen 
Take blood culture 
IV cefuroxime 
Rifampicin prophylaxis for entire household
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How is bronchiolitis treated?

A

Conservative
Supplemental oxygen if < 92%
Nasogastric/orogastric tube feeding if poor intake
Consider nebulised 3% saline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are the first and second line treatment options for viral-induced wheeze?

A

1st line: SABA (up to 10 puffs every 4 hours)

2nd line: Intermittent LTRA or ICS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

How is multiple trigger wheeze treated?

A

ICS or LTRA for 4-8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Outline the management steps for asthma in someone < 5 years.

A

1) SABA
2) 8-week trial of moderate-dose ICS
After 8 weeks:
- If symptoms resolve but recur < 4 weeks = restart low-dose ICS
- If symptoms resolve but recur > 4 weeks = repeat 8-week trial of moderate-dose
3) Add LTRA
4) Refer to specialist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Outline the management steps for asthma in someone > 5 years.

A

1) SABA
2) Low-dose ICS
3) Add LTRA (review in 4-8 weeks)
4) Stop LTRA, add LABA
5) Change to MART
6) Increase ICS to moderate-dose
7) Refer to specialist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

List some non-pharmacological aspects of asthma management.

A

Assess impact on life
Provide personalised asthma action plan (Asthma UK)
Advise about trigger avoidance
Ensure clear explanation of peak flow and inhaler technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which investigations would you request in a patient having an asthma attack?

A

Obs (HR and RR are particularly important)
PEFR
SaO2
VBG/ABG
Examine for signs of increased respiratory effort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Outline the management of an acute asthma attack.

A

Supplemental oxygen
Nebulised SABA
If ineffective, add nebulised ipratropium bromide
Monitor PEFR and SaO2

NOTE: if mild-to-moderate, SABA can be given through a large volume spacer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which medication should a patient be given to take home after an acute asthma attack?

A

Oral prednisolone (3-7 days)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

When should a patient with an asthma attack treated in hospital be followed-up?

A

Within 2 working days of discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

How is foreign body inhalation treated in a conscious patient?

A

ABCDE
Encourage coughing
Back blows
Heimlich manoeuvre (NOT in very young children)
Remove object (rigid/flexible bronchoscopy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

How is foreign body inhalation treated in an unconscious patient?

A

ABCDE
Secure the airway
Remove the foreign body (rigid/flexible bronchoscopy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Which patients with whooping cough should be admitted?

A

< 6 months

Significant breathing difficulties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Outline the pharmacological treatment of whooping cough.

A

< 21 days after onset of cough: macrolide
(clarithromycin/azithromycin)

NOTE: use erythromycin in pregnant women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

How is pneumonia in children treated?

A

1st line: amoxicillin 7-14 days
2nd line: add macrolide

ALL children with a clinical diagnosis of pneumonia should be treated with antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are some treatment approaches for bronchiectasis?

A

Airway clearance techniques (physiotherapy)
Inhaled bronchodilator
Inhaled hypertonic saline
Antibiotic prophylaxis (e.g. azithromycin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the aspects of managing the respiratory issues in cystic fibrosis?

A

Pulmonary monitoring (every 2 months in children, every 3 months in adults)
Airway clearance techniques (physiotherapy)
Mucoactive agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is the first-line mucoactive agent for cystic fibrosis?

A

rhDNAse

2nd line: add hypertonic saline
Alternative: mannitol dry powder inhalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are the management approaches to the infection risk associated with cystic fibrosis?

A

Continuous prophylactic antibiotics (flucloxacillin and macrolides)
Prompt and vigorous IV therapy for infections
End-stage disease: bilateral lung transplantation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are the management approaches to the nutritional problems in CF?

A

Oral enteric-coated pancreatic replacement therapy
High calorie diet
Fat-soluble vitamin supplements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are the main domains of management in cystic fibrosis?

A

Pulmonary management (regular chest physiotherapy)
Infection management
Nutritional management (high calorie and high fat, vitamin supplementation, enzymes)
Psychological management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is a treatment option for severe sleep disordered breathing in a child?

A

Adenotonsillectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is some general conservative advice given to parents of an infant with a nappy rash?

A

Use high absorbency nappy
Leave nappy off as much as possible to help the skin dry
Clean the skin/change the nappy every 3-4 hours and ASAP after soiling/wetting
Bath the child gently
Use barrier protection (e.g. sudocrem)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

How should an inflamed nappy rash that is causing discomfort be treated?

A

Hydrocortisone 1% cream OD (max 7 days)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

How should a nappy rash caused by candida be treated?

A

Do NOT use barrier protection

Prescribe topical imidazole (e.g clotrimazole)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

How should a nappy rash caused by bacterial infection be treated?

A

Oral flucloxacillin for 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the first-line treatment of seborrhoeic dermatitis?

A

Regular washing of the scalp with baby oils and baby shampoo (gently brush to remove the scales)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What treatments for seborrhoeic dermatitis could be used if conservative measures fail?

A

Topical imidazole cream

Hydrocortisone cream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What advice would you give a patient regarding emollient use for eczema?

A

Use in large amounts and often
Apply on the whole body
Use as a soap substitute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What advice would you give regarding how to apply topical steroids for eczema?

A

Use once or twice daily and only apply to areas of active eczema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Give an example of a mild, moderate and potent topical steroid used for eczema.

A

Mild - hydrocortisone 1%
Moderate - betamethasone valerate 0.025% or clobetasone butyrate 0.05%
Potent - betamethasone valerate 0.1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Which treatment would be recommended for children > 2 years with eczema that has failed to respond to topical steroids?

A

Topical calcineurin inhibitors (e.g. pimecrolimus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Under which circumstances do bandages tend to be used in eczema?

A

For areas of chronically lichenified skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

When are antihistamines used in eczema?

A

1 month trial of non-sedating antihistamine (e.g. fexofenadine) if severe itching or urticaria
1-2 week trial of sedating antihistamine (e.g. promethazine) if flare is disturbing sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

How should infected eczema be treated?

A

Swab the affected area
Advice on good hygiene when using emollients
Flucloxacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

How is eczema herpeticum managed?

A

Refer for same-day dermatology advice
Oral aciclovir
Consider ophthalmological review if around the eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

How are viral warts treated?

A

Daily administration of salicylic acid, lactic acid paint or glutaraldehyde lotion
Cryotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

How is molluscum contagiosum managed?

A

Spontaneous resolution by 18 months
Avoid squeezing lesions
Avoid sharing towels/clothes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is the first-line treatment option for mild ringworm?

A

Topical antifungals (terbinafine cream)

NOTE: hydrocortisone 1% may be added if there is extensive inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

How are more severe ringworm infections managed?

A

Oral antifungals
1st line: terbinafine
2nd line: itraconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is the first-line management option for tinea capitis?

A

Oral griseofulvin (or oral terbinafine)

NOTE: any animal source of the infection would also need treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is the first line treatment option for scabies?

A

Topical permethrin 5% cream
Apply on the whole body (chin downwards) and was off after 8-12 hours
Second application is required 1 week later

2nd line: malathion aqueous 0.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What advice should be given to patients with scabies?

A

Members of the household and close contacts should be treated
Bedding and clothes should be washed at high temperature
Treat post-scabeitic itch with crotamiton 10% cream
Nighttime sedative anti-histamine may be useful to help sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

How should head lice be treated?

A

Wet combing with a fine-tooth comp every 3-4 days for 2 weeks
Dimeticone 4% lotion
Alternative: malathione 0.5% lotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

List some agents that are used in the treatment of guttate psoriasis.

A

Coal tar preparations
Dithranol
Calcipotriol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What are the treatment options for mild-to-moderate acne?

A

Benzoyl peroxide
Duac (benzol peroxide + clindamycin)
Adapalene (topical retinoid - CI in pregnancy and breastfeeding)
Azelaic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Outline the treatment options for moderate acne.

A

Consider oral antibiotics (lymecycline or doxycycline) for a maximum of 3 months
Change to alternative antibiotic after 3 months if no improvement
NOTE: topical benzoyl peroxide or retinoid should be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What can be used as an alternative to oral antibiotics in girls with acne?

A

COCP

NOTE: POPs and progestin implants can worsen acne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

When might you consider dermatology referral for a patient with acne?

A

If not responding to 2 courses of antibiotics or if there is scarring, refer to dermatology for consideration of isotretinoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

When should a patient undergoing treatment for acne be reviewed?

A

At 8-12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

How is heart failure in an infant managed?

A 
Diuretics such as frusemide (reduce preload
Enhance contractility (e.g. dopamine) 
Reduce afterload (e.g. ACEi) 
Improve oxygen delivery (beta-blockers)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

How are ASDs managed?

A

Secundum - percutaneous closure (cardiac catheterisation with insertion of an occlusive device)
Partial AVSD - surgical correction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

When are symptomatic ASDs usually treated?

A

3-5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

When do large VSDs and AVSD tend to be treated surgically?

A

3-6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

How can a PDA be closed?

A

Medical: indomethacin (or other NSAID)
Surgical: cardiac catheterisation and coil/occlusive device insertion

NOTE: surgical management usually happens at around 1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

How should a cyanosed neonate presenting within the 1st week of life be managed?

A

Stabilise the airway, breathing and circulation
Artificial ventilation if necessary
Start prostaglandin infusion
Surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What murmur is associated with ASD?

A

Ejection systolic murmur best heard at the upper left sternal edge and fixed wide split second heart sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What murmur is associated with VSD?

A

Loud pansystolic murmur at the lower left sternal edge, quiet pulmonary second heart sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Which defects require surgical correction in tetralogy of Fallot?

A

Close the VSD

Relive the right ventricular outflow obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

How may hypercyanotic spells in tetralogy of Fallot be treated?

A

Sedation and pain relief
IV propranolol
IV fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Which life-saving procedure may be performed for patients with transposition of the great arteries to enhance mixing of the blood?

A

Balloon atrial septostomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

How is tricuspid atresia treated?

A

Blalock-Taussig shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

How is aortic stenosis treated?

A

Balloon valvulotomy
Aortic valve replacement

NOTE: same for pulmonary stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

How is SVT managed?

A

1 - vagal manoeuvres
2 - IV adenosine (DC cardioversion if this fails)
3 - maintenance therapy with fleicainide or sotalol

90% of children have no further attacks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

How is acute rheumatic fever treated?

A

Bed rest and anti-inflammatory agents (e.g. aspirin)

Penicillin V if evidence of persistent infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What is the most effective prophylaxis for rheumatic fever?

A

Monthly injections of benzathine penicillin

Alternative: oral penicillin OD

NOTE: prophylaxis recommended for 10 years after last episode of rheumatic fever or until 21 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

How is infective endocarditis treated?

A

Beta-lactam and gentamicin

Usually for 6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

How would you treat an umbilical granuloma?

A

Regular application of salt to the wound

Cauterise with silver nitrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

List some contraindications for MMR.

A

Severe immunosuppression (high dose steroids leave you immunocompromised for 3 months)
Allergy to neomycin
Received another live vaccine by injection within 4 weeks
Pregnancy should be avoided for at least 1 month afterwards
IG therapy within the past 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

How should children < 3 months with a UTI be managed?

A 
Admit to hospital immediately 
IV antibiotics (e.g. amoxicillin) for at least 5-7 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Which clinical features are suggestive of an upper UTI?

A

Bacteriuria + fever

Bacteriuria + loin pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

How should an upper UTI be treated?

A 
Oral antibiotics (e.g. trimethoprim for 7 days) 
If this cannot be used, give IV antibiotics (e.g. coamoxiclav) for 2-4 days and discharge with oral antibiotics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

How should simple cystitis be treated?

A

Oral antibiotics (e.g. trimethoprim) for 3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Which children should have an ultrasound after a UTI?

A

Children who have had an atypical UTI

Children < 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Which children should have a DMSA and MCUG after a UTI?

A

< 6 months old presenting with atypical or recurrent UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

How should enuresis in < 5 year olds be managed?

A

Reassure that this usually resolves without investigation
Ensure easy access to the toilet at night
Encourage bladder emptying before bed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

How should enuresis in > 5 year olds be managed?

A

If infrequent (< 2 weeks) reassure and watch-and-wait
1st line if < 7: enuresis alarm and positive reward system
2nd line: desmopressin

Desmopressin may be used first line if rapid short-term control is necessary, or if > 7 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

List some causes of secondary enuresis.

A

UTI
Constipation
Diabetes
Psychological/Family problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

How is nephrotic syndrome treated?

A

Oral prednisolone for 4 weeks
Wean and stop after 4 weeks
If the child does not respond or has atypical features, consider renal biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

List some complications of nephrotic syndrome.

A

Hypovolaemia
Thrombosis
Infection
Hypercholesterolaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

How is Henoch-Schonlein purpura managed?

A

Most resolve spontaneously within 4 weeks
Joint pain can be managed with paracetamol/ibuprofen
IV corticosteroids are recommended for nephrotic-range proteinuria or declining renal function
Oral prednisolone may be given for severe scrotal oedema or abdominal pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

How are urinary tract calculi managed?

A

Conservative - fluids, analgesia, antiemetics
Bacterial infection - co-trimoxazole/nitrofurantoin or surgical decompression
Small stones - tamsulosin
Large stones - ESWL or uteroscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What are the most common causes of AKI in children?

A

HUS

ATN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

How is haemolytic uraemic syndrome managed?

A 
Admit to hospital
Monitor urine output and fluid balance 
Maintain adequate hydration status 
Monitor BP (treat with CCB if necessary) 
Some will need dialysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What long-term follow-up should be offered to patients with HUS?

A

Check for persistent proteinuria, the development of hypertension and progressive CKD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Outline the aspects of managing CKD in a child.

A

Diet - calorie supplements often necessary
Prevention of renal osteodystrophy - phosphate restriction, calcium and vitamin D supplements
Control of salt and water balance
Anaemia - recombinant EPO
Hormonal - human GH for GH resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

How does CKD affect the growth of a child?

A

Delayed puberty

Subnormal pubertal growth spurt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

How are hydroceles in children managed?

A

< 2 years = most resolve spontaneously
2-11 year = open/laparoscopic repair
11-18 years = conservative or surgical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

How should unilateral undescended testicles be managed?

A

Undescended at birth –> review at 6-8 weeks
Undescended at 6-8 weeks –> review at 3 months
Undescended at 3 months –> seen by urologist by 6 months

NOTE: if descended but retractile at 3 months, advise annual follow up due to risk of ascending testes through childhood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

How should bilateral undescended testicles at birth be managed?

A

Urgent referral to a senior paediatrician within 24 hours (genetic or endocrine testing may be necessary)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

How is testicular torsion managed?

A

Urgent exploratory surgery (with orchidopexy/orchidectomy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

How is torsion of the appendix testis managed?

A

Exploratory surgery is often performed because it may be difficult to distinguish from testicular torsion
Otherwise conservative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

How are hypospadias managed?

A

May not require treatment
May require surgery (from 3 months) for cosmetic/functional purposes

IMPORTANT: do NOT circumcise any child with a hypospadia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

How are labial adhesions treated?

A

Topical steroids or oestrogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

When should phototherapy for neonatal jaundice be stopped?

A

Once the serum bilirubin is at least 50 µmol below the treatment threshold

Patients should be given folic acid supplements

165
Q

Why should you check the serum bilirubin level 12-18 hours after stopping phototherapy?

A

Check for rebound hyperbilirubinaemia

166
Q

When is IVIG used in neonatal jaundice?

A

Used alongside intensified phototherapy in cases of rhesus or ABO haemolytic disease where the serum continues to rise by > 8.5 µmol/L per hour

167
Q

How is biliary atresia managed?

A

Kasai procedure

Complications can be managed using ursodeoxycholic acid, fat-soluble vitamins and prophylactic antibiotics

168
Q

How is alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency managed?

A

Advise against smoking and drinking
Pulmonary manifestations are managed like COPD
Liver manifestations are managed similar to other liver diseases (e.g. monitoring for coagulopathy, diuretics for ascites)

169
Q

Which investigations are used for galactosaemia?

A

Galactose in urine

Measuring red cell Gal-1-PUT

170
Q

How is galactosaemia treated?

A

Galactose-free diet

171
Q

How is Hep A managed?

A

Close contacts should be vaccinated within 2 weeks of onset of illness
Unvaccinated patients with recent exposure should receive IVIG or the hepatitis A vaccine

172
Q

How is autoimmune hepatitis managed?

A

Prenisolone and azathioprine
Ursodeoxycholic acid can help in PSC
Liver transplant in severe cases

173
Q

How is hepatic encephalopathy treated?

A

Supportive
Identify and correct precipitating factors (e.g. GI bleed)
Reduce nitrogenous load (dietary protein restriction, lactulose and rifaximin)

174
Q

How long do patients with ALL tend to have chemotherapy for?

A

Girls - 2 years

Boys - 3 years

175
Q

What is the cure rate for lymphoma?

A

80%

176
Q

How is neuroblastoma treated?

A

Localised primaries can be cured by surgery alone

Metastatic disease will require chemotherapy (it may also require stem cell transplantation and radiotherapy)

177
Q

What percentage of patients with Wilm’s tumour are cured?

A

80%

178
Q

How is retinoblastoma treated?

A

Chemotherapy to shrink tumours
Laser treatment of the retina
Radiotherapy maybe used in more advanced disease
NOTE: 90% cure rate but many will be visually impaired

179
Q

Which antibiotics are used for suspected bacterial meningitis in children?

A

< 3 months = IV cefotaxime + amoxicillin
> 3 months = IV cefotaxime

If > 1 month and caused by H. influenzae, give dexamethasone

180
Q

What is the definitive management for slipped upper femoral epiphysis?

A

Internal fixation across the growth plate

181
Q

Which type of fluid should be given for maintenance requirements in children?

A

0.9% NaCl + 5% dextrose

182
Q

How are dehydration corrections calculated when administering fluids?

A 
Usually given over 24 hours 
Give maintenance + % dehydration 
Weigh the child if possible (1 kg loss = 1000 mL)
Estimate clinically (e.g. each kg = 1000 mL, so 3% weight loss in 20 kg child = 3 x 200 mL = 600 mL)
183
Q

How should iron deficiency anaemia be treated?

A

Oral ferrous sulphate 200 mg tablets (2-3/day)

Continue for 3 months after iron deficiency has corrected

184
Q

What advice would you give to someone who is taking iron tablets for iron deficiency anaemia about side-effects?

A

May experience adverse effects (constipation, diarrhoea, faecal impaction)
Discomfort could be minimised by taking the iron supplement with food

185
Q

How should treatment for iron deficiency anaemia be monitored?

A

Re-check Hb after 2-4 weeks (expect 20 g/L rise)

FBC every 3 months for 1 year

186
Q

What are the aspects of treating a neonate with hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Supportive (maybe blood transfusion)
Folic acid supplementation
Phototherapy/exchange transfusion

187
Q

Outline the aspects of treating hereditary spherocytosis in older children and adults.

A

Supportive (maybe blood transfusion)
Folic acid supplementation
Splenectomy and vaccination regimen for encapsulated bacteria
Cholecystectomy for gallstones

188
Q

How can complications of sickle cell disease be prevented?

A

Immunisation against encapsulated organisms
Daily oral penicillin
Daily folic acid
Minimise exposure to cold, dehydration, excessive exercise and hypoxia

189
Q

Outline the treatment of acute sickle cell crises.

A 
Oral and IV analgesia
Good hydration 
Antibiotics if necessary 
Oxygen 
Exchange transfusion (for acute chest syndrome, priapism and stroke)
190
Q

Outline the steps in the analgesic ladder.

A

Step 1: paracetamol
Step 2: cocodamol or NSAIDs (weak opioid)
Step 3: morphine, oxycodone

191
Q

Which drug treatment can be used to reduce sickling in sickle cell patients?

A

Hydroxycarbamide

192
Q

How is haemophilia treated?

A

Factor 8 concentrate (A)
Factor 9 concentrate (B)
Acute bleed - factor concentrates and anti-fibrinolytics

193
Q

Which medications should be avoided in patients with haemophilia and von Willebrand disease?

A

IM injections
Aspirin
NSAIDs

194
Q

Which treatment can be used for mild haemophilia A?

A

Desmopressin (stimulates endogenous release of vWF)

195
Q

What medical treatment can be used for type 1 von Willebrand disease?

A

Desmopressin
NOTE: risk of hyponatraemia
More severe disease is treated with factor 8 concentrate

196
Q

Describe the usual natural course of ITP.

A

In 80% it is an acute, benign and self-limiting disease
Resolves spontaneously within 6-8 weeks
Mild/asymptomatic disease can be managed with observation alone

197
Q

How can severe ITP be managed?

A

IVIG + corticosteroid + platelet transfusions

Antifibrinolytics (e.g. tranexamic acid) may be used

198
Q

How is DIC treated?

A

Treat underlying cause
Supportive care
Replacement therapy (platelets and clotting factors)
Restoration of physiological coagulation pathways (e.g. using heparins)

199
Q

How is acute osteomyelitis managed?

A

High-dose IV empirical antibiotics (for 2-4 weeks)
Switch to oral once clinically recovered (continue for 6 weeks)
Immobilise the affected area
Surgical debridement may be necessary
Possible antibiotics used include flucloxacillin and penicillin

200
Q

How would you counsel a patient with Osgood-Schlatter disease?

A 
Stop or reduce sporting activity 
Analgesia - paracetamol and NSAIDs
Intermittent ice packs 
Protective knee pads 
Stretching
201
Q

How is chondromalacia patellae managed?

A

Physiotherapy for quadriceps strengthening

202
Q

How is osteochondritis dissecans managed?

A

Pain relief
Rest and quadriceps exercise
Occasionally need surgery

203
Q

How is subluxation of the patella treated?

A

Reduction and immobilisation

Rehab

204
Q

Outline the treatment of Perthes disease.

A

o Acute Pain - supporting care with simple analgesia
o < 5 years
• Mobilisation and monitoring (healing potential is good at this age)
• Non-surgical containment using splints
o 5-7 years
• Mobilisation and monitoring
• Surgical containment
o 7-12 years
• Surgical containment
• Salvage procedure (remodel the acetabulum)
o 12+ years
• Salvage procedure
• Replacement arthroplasty

205
Q

How is septic arthritis treated?

A

Antibiotics (initially IV for 2 weeks, followed by 4 weeks oral)
Suspected Gram-positive
Vancomycin + joint aspiration
2nd line = clindamycin or cephalosporin + joint aspiration
Suspected Gram-negative
3rd generation cephalosporin (e.g. ceftriaxone) + joint aspiration
2nd line = IV ciprofloxacin + joint aspiration

Affected joints should be aspirated to dryness as often as required (through closed needle aspiration or arthroscopically)

206
Q

What are the aspects of managing juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A 
Multidisciplinary team
Physiotherapist and occupational therapist 
NSAIDs
Corticosteroids 
DMARDs (methotrexate is first-line)
207
Q

How is vitamin D deficiency/Rickets treated?

A

Calcium and ergocalciferol
OR cholecalciferol
NOTE: pseudovitamin D deficiency is treated with alfacalcidol or calcitriol

208
Q

How might you investigate a patient presenting with migraines?

A

Headache diary for 8 weeks to help identify triggers

209
Q

Outline the steps in the acute management of a migraine.

A

Step 1: simple analgesia
Step 2: nasal sumatriptan
Step 3: nasal sumatriptan and NSAID/paracetamol
Step 4: consider adding prochlorperazine or metoclopramide

210
Q

Which medications are used to prevent migrianes?

A

Topiramate and propranolol

211
Q

How should you manage a febrile convulsion during the seizure?

A

Protect them from injury
Do not restrain
When the seizure stops, check the airway and place in the recovery position
If > 5 mins –> rectal diazepam (can be done twice) or buccal midazolam (only one dose)
An ambulance should be called if the seizure continues

212
Q

What should be tested in all children who have a seizure?

A

Blood glucose

213
Q

Which children who have had a febrile convulsion require hospital assessment by a paediatrician?

A

First febrile convulsion
Diagnostic uncertainty about the cause of the seizure
Focal features of the seizure
Seizure recurs within the same febrile illness (or within 24 hours)
< 18 months old
Parents are anxious
No apparent focus of infection

214
Q

What is the recurrence rate of febrile convulsions?

A

1 in 3

215
Q

What are some cardinal features of childhood rolandic epilepsy?

A 
Unilateral facial sensorimotor symptoms 
Oropharyngeal ictal manifestations 
Arrest of speech 
Hypersalivation 
NOTE: this is not usually treated and children will grow out of it (around 14-18 years)
216
Q

What is the first-line AED for generalised seizures?

A

Valproate

NOTE: ethosuximide can be used for absence seizures

217
Q

Name some antiepileptics that can worsen certain forms of epilepsy.

A

Lamotrigine - worsens myoclonic

Carbamazapine - worsens absence

218
Q

What is the first-line AED for focal seizures?

A

Carbamazepine or lamotrigine

219
Q

What advice should you give to parents with regards to activities that may be dangerous with epilepsy?

A

Avoid situations where having a seizure could lead to injury or death (e.g. swimming unsupervised)
Driving is allows only after 1 year free of seizures
The school should be made aware of the diagnosis

220
Q

How is Guillain-Barre syndrome managed?

A

Supportive
Respiratory support
IVIG
Plasma exchange

221
Q

Which milestones would you expect the average child to have reached by 7 months?

A

Gross Motor: sits without support
Fine Motor: transfers objects from hand to hand
Hearing, Speech and Language: turns to voice, polysylabic babble
Social/Emotional: finger feeds, fears strangers

222
Q

Which milestones would you expect the average child to have reached by 1 year?

A

Gross Motor: stand independently
Fine Motor: pincer grip (10 months), points
Hearing, Speech and Language: 1-2 words, understands name
Social/Emotional: drinks from cup, waves

223
Q

Which milestones would you expect the average child to have reached by 15-18 months?

A

Gross Motor: walks independently
Fine Motor: immature grip of pencil, random scribble
Hearing, Speech and Language: 6-10 words, points to 4 body parts
Social/Emotional: feeds self with spoon, beginning to help with dressing

224
Q

Which milestones would you expect the average child to have reached by 2.5 years?

A

Gross Motor: runs and jumps
Fine Motor: draws
Hearing, Speech and Language: 3-4 word sentences, understands 2 commands
Social/Emotional: parallel play

225
Q

List the median ages for gross motor development milestones.

A

6-8 weeks: raises head to 45 degrees when prone
6-8 months: sits without support (first with round back, then straight back)
8-9 months: crawling
10 months: cruising
12 months: walks unsteadily
15 months: walks steadily

226
Q

List the median ages for vision and fine motor milestones.

A

6 weeks: follows moving object or face by turning head
4 months: reaches out for toys
4-6 months: palmar grasp
7 months: transfers toys from one hand to another
10 months: mature pincer grip
16-18 months: makes marks with a crayon, tower of 3
3 years: draws a circle

227
Q

List the median ages for hearing, speech and language development.

A

3-4 months: vocalises alone or when spoken to, coos and laughs
7 months: turns to soft sound out of sight
10 months: sounds used discriminately to parents (mama/dada)
12 months: 2-3 words other than mama or dada
18 months: 6-10 words, shows two parts of the body
20-24 months: use 2 or more words to make simple phrases
2.5-3 years: talks constantly in 3-4 word sentences

228
Q

List the median ages for social, emotional and behavioural development.

A 
6 weeks: smiles responsively
6-8 months: puts food in mouth 
10-12 months: waves bye bye, plays peek-a-boo 
12 months: drinks from cup
18 months: uses spoon 
18-24 months: symbolic play 
2 years: dry by day 
2.5-3 years: parallel play, takes turns
229
Q

How is paracetamol overdose managed?

A

Measure plasma paracetamol concentration at 4 hours and plot on normogram
Treat with IV N-acetylcysteine if necessary

230
Q

How is carbon monoxide poisoning treated?

A

Presents with headache, nausea, confusion and drowsiness
High-flow oxygen
Hyperbaric oxygen therapy may be considered

231
Q

How is salicylate poisoning treated?

A

Presentation: vomiting, tinnitus, respiratory alkalosis
Measure plasma salicylate concentration at 2-4 hours
Alkalinisation of urine with sodium bicarbonate increases urinary excretion
Consider haemodialysis

232
Q

How is TCA overdose treated?

A

Treat arrhythmias and give sodium bicarbonate

Support ventilation

233
Q

How is ethylene glycol poisoning treated?

A

Presentation: intoxication, tachycardia, metabolic acidosis

Fomepizole inhibits the production of toxic metabolites (ethanol can also be used)

234
Q

How is iron overdose treated?

A

Presentation: vomiting, diarrhoea, haematemesis, late drowsiness/coma/shock/hypoglycaemia
Serum iron level 4 hours after ingestion is the best measure of severity
IV desferoxamine chelates iron

235
Q

How is organophosphorus pesticide poisoning treated?

A 
Supportive 
Atropine (large dose)
Pralidoxime (reactivates actylcholinesterase)

NOTE: presentation is mainly cholinergic features

236
Q

What is a port wine stain?

A

Capillary malformation in the dermis that is present from birth and persists for life
If in the trigeminal nerve distribution, some children may have Sturge-Weber syndrome and should have an MRI

237
Q

Describe the appearance and progression of cavernous haemangiomas.

A

Appears within the first month of life

Grows before shrinking and disappearing (before 5 years)

238
Q

Describe the inheritance pattern of von Willebrand disease.

A

Type 1 and 2 = autosomal dominant

Type 3 = autosomal recessive

239
Q

How should bladder outflow obstruction be investigatd?

A

MCUG

240
Q

What are the two different types of polycystic kidney disease and how do they differ?

A

Autosomal Dominant - mainly in older children/adults, cysts are large
Autosomal Recessive - presents in childhood with bilateral renal masses, respiratory distress due to pulmonary hypoplasia and congenital hepatic fibrosis with pulmonary hypertensio

241
Q

What are the aspects of managing Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A 
Physiotherapy to prevent contractions 
Exercise and psychological support 
Surgery (e.g. tendoachilles lengthening) 
CPAP for nocturnal hypoxia
Glucocorticoids may slow defeneration
242
Q

What’s the main difference between Duchenne and Becker muscular dystrophy?

A

Duchenne - no dystrophin - severe symptoms (LE: 20-30 years)

Becker - abnormal dystrophin - milder symptoms

243
Q

What are some consequences of neural tube defects?

A

Paralysis and muscle imbalance (needs physiotherapy)
Sensory loss (can lead to accidental damage)
Neuropathic bladder
Bowel denervation
Scoliosis
Hydrocephalus

244
Q

How is hydrocephalus treated?

A

Ventriculoperitoneal shunt

245
Q

Outline the management of idiopathic intracranial hypertension.

A 
Eliminate causal factors 
Weight-reduction 
Low-sodium diet and fluid restriction 
Acetazolamide
Analgesia
VP shunt
246
Q

List some clinical features of a child at high-risk of sepsis.

A 
Behaviour:
•	No response to social cues 
•	Appears ill
•	Does not wake, or if roused does not stay awake 
•	Weak, high-pitched and continuous cry 
Heart Rate:
•	Tachycardia (different at different ages)
•	< 60 bpm at any age 
Respiratory Rate
•	Tachypnoea (different at different ages)
•	Grunting 
•	Apnoea
•	SpO2 < 90% on air
Mottled or ashen appearance 
Cyanosis of the skin, lips or tongue
Non-blanching rash 
Aged < 3 months with temperature > 38 degrees 
Temperature < 36 degrees
247
Q

Which investigations constitute a septic screen?

A 
FBC 
Blood culture 
CRP 
Urinalysis 
LP 
CXR
Also do a VBG 
NOTE: if < 1 month, all children should have an LP
248
Q

Outline the role of a VBG in managing a child with moderate to high risk of sepsis.

A

> 2 mmol/L or evidence of AKI –> treat as high-risk

< 2 mmol/L = repeat assessment at least hourly, ensure review by senior clinician, identify a cause and manage it

249
Q

Outline the non-pharmacological steps taken in the management of high risk sepsis.

A 
Immediate review by senior clinician 
VBG (gas, glucose, lactate, FBC, U&E, creatinine, clotting)
Broad spectrum antibiotics immediately
Monitor continuously 
Monitor mental state using GCS or AVPU
250
Q

Outline how the lactate guides treatment in high risk sepsis.

A

> 4 mmol/L = IV fluid bolus without delay, refer to critical care
2-4 mmol/L = IV fluid bolus without delay
< 2 mmmol/L = consider IV fluids

251
Q

Which antibiotics are used to treat meningococcal sepsis?

A

Community: IM benzylpenicillin
Hospital: IV ceftriaxone

252
Q

Outline the ABC approach to anaphylaxis.

A

Airway - look for and relieve any obstruction, intubate if necessary
Breathing - check whether it is normal
If unresponsive/not breathing normally - start CPR
Circulation: check pulse and blood pressure
Everything Else: check skin and inside of the mouth for urticaria and angio-oedema

253
Q

Outline the use of adrenaline in anaphylaxis.

A

IM adrenaline 1:1000 (as per age-related guidelines) into thigh
Assess response after 5 mins
Repeat IM injection at 5 min interval until there has been a response

NOTE: IV adrenaline is only used for advanced life support

254
Q

Aside from adrenaline, what else should be given to a patient in anaphylaxis?

A

High flow oxygen
IV fluids (titrate against blood pressure)
Chlorphenamine 10 mg IV
Hydrocortisone 200 mg IV
NOTE: if there is a wheeze, may require bronchodilators

255
Q

What should be monitored whilst a patient is receiving treatment for anaphylaxis?

A

Blood pressure
Pulse
Respiratory function

256
Q

Outline the neonatal resuscitation guidelines.

A
  1. Dry the baby
  2. Within 30 seconds: assess tone, breathing and heart rate
  3. Within 60 seconds: if gasping or not breathing – give 5 inflation breaths
  4. Re-assess: if NO increase in heart rate, look for chest movement
  5. If chest NOT moving: recheck head position, consider 2-person airway control and other airway manoeuvres, repeat inflation breaths
  6. If NO increase in heart rate: look for chest movement
  7. When chest is moving: if heart rate is not detectable or slow (< 60/min) start compression with 3 compressions per breath
  8. Reassess heart rate every 30 seconds: if heart rate is not detectable or slow (< 60/min) consider venous access and drugs (e.g. atropine)
257
Q

Outline the steps in paediatric basic life support.

A
  1. Are they unresponsive?
  2. Shout for help
  3. Open airway
  4. Look, listen and feel for breathing
  5. Give 5 rescue breaths
  6. Check for signs of circulation
  7. 15 chest compression: 2 rescue breaths (15:2)
258
Q

List some possible presenting features of cerebral palsy.

A 
Unusual fidget movements (e.g. asymmetry, paucity)
Abnormalities of tone (e.g. hypotonia)
Delayed motor milestones 
Feeding difficulties 
Persistent toe walking
259
Q

Outline the aspects of managing cerebral palsy.

A

MDT approach
Physiotherapy - encourage movement, build strength
Speech and Swallow - ensure safe swallow, improve language abilities
Occupational therapy
Medications (baclofen for stiffness, melatonin for sleep, laxatives for constipation and anticholinergics for drooling)

260
Q

List some comorbidities that are commonly associated with cerebral palsy.

A 
Learning disability (1 in 2) 
Behavioural difficulties (2 in 10) 
Chronic constipation (3 in 5)
Visual impairment (1 in 2)
Hearing impairment (1 in 10) 
Low bone mineral density 
Epilepsy (1 in 3)
261
Q

What are the three main types of cerebral palsy?

A

Spastic (hemiplegic, quadriplegic, diplegic)
Dyskinetic
Ataxic

NOTE: injuries causing brain damage up to 2 years can be classified as cerebral palsy

262
Q

Outline the aspects of management of autism spectrum disorders.

A

Psychosocial interventions (increase attention and reduce repetitive/ritualistic behaviours)
Speech and language therapy
Pharmacological (antipsychotics may be considered for difficult behaviour)
Attend to family/carers needs
Assess for learning disability and discuss EHC plan
NOTE: < 10% can function independently as adults

263
Q

What is the first-line management of ADHD?

A

ADHD-focused group parent-training programme

Offer individualised training programmes if the needs are too complex

NOTE: consider up to 10-week watch and wait period before this

264
Q

Outline the step by step medical management of ADHD.

A

Methylphenidate (6 week trial)
If unsuccessful, consider lisdexamphetamine (or dexamphetamine)
if unsuccessful, consider atomoxetine or guanfacine

265
Q

What is an important thing to do before starting patients on medication for ADHD?

A

Establish baseline physical state (especially HEIGHT) and perform an ECG

The medications can cause loss of appetite and stunted growth and the development of tics (they are also cardiotoxic)

NOTE: recommend yearly off medication trials

266
Q

How should medical treatment of ADHD be monitored?

A

Consider using symptom rating scales (e.g. Conner’s)
Measure height every 6 months
Measure weight every 3 months
Monitor HR and BP every 6 months

267
Q

Outline the aspects of managing Down syndrome.

A

MDT
Screen for abnormalities - AVSD, duodenal atresia
Parental counselling and education
Individualised education plan
Genetic counselling about future pregnancies

268
Q

List some conditions that are associated with Down syndrome.

A 
Coeliac disease 
Hypothyroidism
Alzheimer's disease 
Epilepsy 
Hearing and visual defects
269
Q

What are the three types of insulin therapy?

A

Multiple Daily Injection Basal-Bolus: injections of short-acting insulin before meals + 1 long-acting insulin (generally the 1st option for new diagnoses)
Continuous SC Insulin Infusion: regular and continuous insulin delivered through a pump
1, 2 or 3 injections per day: mix of short-acting and long-acting insulin

270
Q

How often should capillary glucose be measured in patients with T1DM?

A

At least 5/day
Fasting/through the day target: 4-7
After meals: 5-9

271
Q

In which patients might you consider continuous glucose monitoring?

A

Frequent severe hypoglycaemia
Hypoglycaemia unawareness
Inability to recognise or communicate symptoms of hypoglycaemia (e.g. cognitive impairment)

272
Q

Which complications of T1DM require on going monitoring?

A

Thyroid disease - annually from diagnosis

Diabetic retinopathy, nephropathy and hypertension - annually from 12 years

273
Q

How should mild-to-moderate hypoglycaemia be managed?

A

Fast-acting glucose by mouth (e.g. lucozade)
Check blood glucose in 15 mins (repeat glucose if necessary)
As symptoms improve, switch to oral complex long-acting carbohydrate

274
Q

How should severe hypoglycaemia be managed?

A

In Hospital: IV 10% glucose (max 500 mg/kg of body weight)
Community: IM glucagon (500 µg < 8 yrs or 1 mg > 8 yrs) or glucogel
Once symptoms improve, give oral complex long-acting carbohydrate

275
Q

Which observations should be recorded in a patient with DKA?

A
  • Level of consciousness
  • Vital signs (HR, BP, Temp, RR)
  • History of nausea or vomiting
  • Clinical evidence of dehydration
  • Body weight
276
Q

Which biochemical parameters should be measured in a patient with DKA?

A 
pH and pCO2 
Plasma sodium, potassium, urea and creatinine 
Plasma bicarbonate 
Blood glucose 
Blood ketones
277
Q

Outline how the fluid deficit in DKA is estimated.

A

5% fluid deficit = mild-moderate DKA (> 7.1)

10% fluid deficit = severe DKA (< 7.1)

278
Q

Outline how maintenance fluid requirements are calculated in patients with DKA.

A

< 10 kg = 2 ml/kg/hour
10-40 = 1 ml/kg/hour
40+ = 40 ml/hour

These are lower than standard maintenance fluid calculations because of the risk of cerebral oedema

279
Q

Which fluids should be given when rehydrating patients with DKA?

A

0.9% saline ONLY until plasma glucose < 14 mmol/L
Then change to 0.9% saline + 5% dextrose
Rehydrate over 48 hours
Consider switching to oral fluids once the child is alert, ketosis is resolving and they can tolerate oral fluids

280
Q

What should all fluids administered to patients with DKA contain?

A

40 mmol/L potassium chloride (unless renal failure)

281
Q

Describe how insulin therapy should be given in DKA.

A

Start IV insulin infusion 1-2 hours after beginning IV fluid therapy
Use soluble insulin at 0.05-0.1 units/kg/hour (disconnect insulin pump if present)
Consider increasing insulin dose if no reduction in blood ketones after 6-8 hours

282
Q

When can SC insulin be started in a patient with DKA?

A

Consider if ketosis is resolving, child is alert and can tolerate oral fluids
Start SC insulin at least 30 mins before stopping IV insulin
If using an insulin pump, start the pump at least 60 mins before IV insulin is stopped

283
Q

How should a child be monitored whilst receiving treatment for DKA?

A

Measure at least HOURLY
• Capillary blood glucose
• Vital signs (HR, BP, Temp, RR)
• Fluid balance with fluid input and output charts
• Level of consciousness (using modified GCS)

NOTE: if severe DKA or < 2 years, monitor every 30 mins

284
Q

What else should be monitored in a patient receiving IV therapy for DKA?

A

Continuous ECG (detect hypokaleemia)

NOTE: if K+ < 3 mmol/L, consider temporarily stopping the insulin and discuss with paediatric critical care

285
Q

What should be measured 2 hours after starting treatment for DKA and at least every 4 hours afterwards?

A

Glucose (laboratory)
Blood pH and CO2
Plasma sodium, potassium and urea
Beta-hydroxybutyrate

NOTE: every 4 hours, review clinical status, blood results, ECG trace and fluid balance

286
Q

List some clinical features of cerebral oedema.

A

Headache
Agitation or irritability
Unexpected fall in heart rate
Increased blood pressure

287
Q

How is cerebral oedema resulting from DKA treatment managed?

A

IV mannitol or hypertonic sodium chloride

288
Q

How is congenital hypothyroidism treated?

A

Start thyroxine treatment within 2-3 weeks of age and continue throughout life
With adequate treatment, intelligence and development should be normal

289
Q

How is acute symptomatic hypocalcaemia managed?

A

IV calcium gluconate

NOTE: chronic is managed with oral calcium and high dose vitamin D analogues

290
Q

Outline the aspects of managing congenital adrenal hyperplasia.

A

Corrective surgery (usually at puberty)
Life-long glucocorticoids
Mineralocorticoids (if salt loss)
Monitor growth, skeletal maturity, plasma androgens and 17a-hydroxyprogesterone levels

291
Q

Outline the management of an Addisonian crisis.

A

IV hydrocortisone
IV saline
IV glucose

Fludrocortisone may be needed

292
Q

How is androgen insensitivity syndrome managed?

A 
Investigation: karyotype
Bilateral orchidectomy (risk of testicular cancer)
Oestrogen therapy
293
Q

For how long should children with measles or rubella be excluded from school?

A

4 days from the onset of the rash

294
Q

Which investigations should be requested in a patient with suspected non-accidental injury?

A

Skeletal survey
CT head scan
Bloods and bone profile (rule out leukaemia, ITP)
Fundoscopy (retinal haemorrhages)

295
Q

Who should be contacted in cases of suspected non-accidental injury?

A

Senior colleagues
Named doctor for child protection
Social services
Consider contacting the police (Child Abuse Investigation Team)
Consider contacting Mutli-Agency Safeguarding Hub (MASH)

296
Q

What are the differences between diplegic, hemiplegic and quadriplegic cerebral palsy?

A

Diplegic: both legs and arms are involved, legs are affected more than arms, associated with periventricular leukomalacia and preterm babies, do NOT tend to have severe learning difficulties/epilepsy
Hemiplegic: affects one side of the body, arms more than legs
Quadriplegic: most severe form, all four limbs are severely affected, associated with learning difficulties, epilepsy and swallowing problems

297
Q

What are some features of innocent murmurs?

A

Asymptomatic
Systolic
Louder during fever and exercise
Vary with respiration and posture

298
Q

What counts as precocious and delayed puberty?

A

Precocious - Girls < 8, Boys < 9

Delayed - Girls > 13, Boys > 14

299
Q

Which investigations might be used for delayed puberty?

A 
Pubertal staging (Tanner) 
Accurate height and weight measurements 
Bone age 
Gonadotrophin levels
Visual field examination 
CT/MRI head scan 
Karyotype
300
Q

Which scoring system is used to assess the severity of croup?

A

Westley croup score

301
Q

Define infantile colic.

A

> 3 hours total crying, for > 3 days in any week or > 3 weeks

302
Q

What are some key factors that distinguish Noonan syndrome from Turner syndrome?

A

Noonan can affect males

Noonan is associated with mental retardation and pulmonary valve stenosis

303
Q

Describe the prognosis for patients with minimal change disease.

A

1/3 have only a single episode
1/3 have occasional relapses
1/3 have frequent relapses stopping at adulthood

304
Q

Define global developmental delay.

A

Significant delay in 2 or more developmental domains

305
Q

Which investigations should be requested in suspected global developmental delay?

A 
Chromosomal analysis (Down, Di George, Williams)
Fragile X testing 
Creatine kinase 
U&E 
Lead level 
Urate 
Full blood count 
Ferritin 
TFTs
Biotinidase level
306
Q

Which investigation is important to perform in any child who has had a non-febrile seizure?

A

ECG

307
Q

List some causes of surfactant deficiency in newborns.

A 
Prematurity 
male 
Sepsis 
Maternal diabetes 
Second twin 
Elective C-section
308
Q

List some causes of speech delay.

A 
Hearing impairment 
Expressive language disorder 
Late bloomer 
Cerebral palsy 
Autism spectrum disorder
309
Q

List some potential first-line investigations for suspected inherited disorders of metabolism.

A 
Amino acids and acylcarcinitine profile 
Ammonia
Lactate 
Organic acids 
Amino acids 
Very long chain fatty acids
310
Q

Which diseases are tested for in the Guthrie test?

A 
Sickle cell anaemia 
Cystic fibrosis
Congenital hypothyroidism
MCAD deficiency 
PKU 
Maple syrup urine disease 
Isovaleric acidaemia 
Homocystinuria
Glutaric aciduria type I
311
Q

Which acid-base features would raise suspicion of an inborn error of metabolism?

A

Acidosis out of keeping with clinical picture
Abnormalities persist despite standard treatment
Raised anion gap

312
Q

Outline the pathophysiology of lysosomal storage disorders and describe the clinical manifestations.

A

The lysosome is the recycling centre of the cell
Deficiency of enzymes within the lysosome leads to the accumulation of toxic proteins resulting hepatosplenomegaly and CNS involvement
This can manifest with developmental regress and seizures
Examples: mucopolysaccharidoses, oligosaccharidoses, mucolipidoses, sphingolypidoses (Fabry disease)

313
Q

What are mucopolysaccharidoses?

A

Most common of the lysosomal storage disorders
Characterised by defective breakdown of glycosaminoglycans
Causes developmental regression, skeletal abnormalities, coarse facies, cardiomyopathy

314
Q

Briefly outline the pathophysiology of lipid storage disorders.

A

Enzyme deficiency leads to lipid accumulation in cells and tissues
Excessive fat storage leads to permanent cellular and tissue damage
NOTE: Gaucher disease is the most common

315
Q

What blood glucose level defines hypoglycaemia?

A

< 2.6 mmol/L

316
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A

Autosomal recessive

NOTE: 21a-hydroxylase deficiency is most common

317
Q

Describe the presenting features of an adrenal salt losing crisis.

A

Vomiting
Weight loss
Hypotonia
Circulatory collapse

318
Q

List some causes of global developmental disorders.

A 
Chromosomal (e.g. Down, fragile X)
Congenital hypothyroidism
Inborn errors of metabolism (e.g. PKU)
Congenital infection (e.g. rubella, CMV) 
Hypoxic brain injury 
Kernicterus
Meningitis
319
Q

List some causes of abnormal motor development.

A 
Central motor deficit (e.g. cerebral palsy)
Congenital myopathy (e.g. DMD)
Neural tube defect 
Global developmental delay
320
Q

Which children are most vulneralbe to periventricular leukomalacia?

A

Preterm babies

NOTE: periventricular leukomalacia is particularly associated with diplegic cerebral palsy

321
Q

Describe the main features of dyskinetic cerebral palsy.

A

Characterised by the presence of involuntary, uncontrolled movements that are more obvious on active movement or stress
May feature chorea, athetosis or dystonia
Usually due to damage to the basal ganglia

322
Q

Describe the main features of ataxic (hypotonic) cerebral palsy.

A

Most are genetically determined
Characterised by trunk and limb hypotonia, poor balance and delayed motor development
Later features include intention tremor and ataxic gait

323
Q

List some tests that may be used to assess language development.

A

Symbolic toy test (e.g. Kendall or McCormick)

Reynell test

324
Q

What are the three main features of autism spectrum disorders?

A

Impaired social interaction
Speech and language disorder
Imposition of routines and ritualistic and repetitive behaviours

325
Q

Name some formalised tests that may be used to diagnose autism.

A

Autism diagnostic interview (ADI)

Autism diagnostic observation schedule (ADOS)

326
Q

At what point in a child’s life would a squint be considered pathological?

A

3 months

Usually due to a refractive error

327
Q 
What are the limit ages for:
Head control 
Sits unsupported 
Stands independently 
Walks independently
A

Head control - 4 months
Sits unsupported - 9 months
Stands independently - 12 months
Walks independently - 18 months

328
Q

What are the limit ages for:
Fixes and follows
Pincer grip

A

Fixes and follows - 3 months

Pincer grip - 12 months

329
Q

What are the limit ages for:
Saying 6 words with meaning
Joining words
3-word sentences

A

Saying 6 words with meaning - 18 months
Joining words - 2 years
3-word sentences - 2.5 years

330
Q

Name the primitive reflexes.

A 
Moro
Grasp
Rooting 
Stepping
Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex

NOTE: these will be replaced by postural reflexes (e.g. parachute)

331
Q

Which intelligence tests may be used in children?

A

WPPSI (2-7 years)

WISC (6-16 years)

332
Q

How is meconium ileus treated?

A

Gastrograffin enema (or N-acetylcysteine)

333
Q

How should a congenital diaphragmatic hernia be managed?

A

Insert a large NG tube and apply suction to prevent distension of the intrathoracic bowel

334
Q

How should neonatal hypoglycaemia be managed?

A

Early and frequent milk feeding
IV dextrose in refractory cases (and consider glucagon and hydrocortisone)
Aim for blood glucose > 2 mmol/L

335
Q

How is a Meckel’s diverticulum diagnosed?

A

Technetium 99 pertechnetate scan

336
Q

Which causes of gastroenteritis should be reported to the health protection unit?

A
  • Campylobacter
  • Listeria
  • Shigella
  • Salmonella
337
Q

Which blood tests may be considered at a coeliac disease review

A 
Coeliac serology
FBC 
TFT
LFT
Vitamin D, B12, folate and serum calcium
U&E
338
Q

Describe the clinical features of congenital varicella syndrome.

A 
Dermatomal skin scarring 
Neurological defects 
IUGR
Limb hypoplasia 
Hydrops fetalis
339
Q

Describe the clinical features of congenital CMV infection.

A

Mental handicap
Visual impairment
Progressive hearing loss
Psychomotor retardation

At birth: hydrops, IUGR, exomphalos, microcephaly, hydrocephalus, hepatosplenomegaly, thrombocytopaenia

340
Q

Which organism most commonly causes septic arthritis in children?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

NOTE: in sickle cell patients, salmonella is also common but S. aureus is still the most common

341
Q

What is the most common site of septic arthritis in children?

A

Hip

NOTE: plain film changes are apparent after 2-3 weeks

342
Q

At what age can babies roll over?

A

4 months

343
Q

What does the child protection team do once they have been informed about a case of suspected NAI?

A

Convene a case conference (includes parents, police officer, paediatrician, GP, health visitor and social worker)
Place the child’s name on the child protection register
Give support to the parents
Ensure regular monitoring by health visitor/social worker
Arrange regular follow-up with paediatrician (especially growth and development)

344
Q

What is the most common site of osteomyelitis in children?

A

Lower femur or upper tibia (around the knee)

Tends to affect the metaphysis

345
Q

When should an MCUG and DMSA be performed in a child who has had an atypical UTI?

A

MCUG can be done as soon as the current infection is under control
DMSA should be performed 3-4 months after the infection

346
Q

Outline the definitive management of VUR.

A

Often improves with time
May require surgical corrections
Patients may receive prophylactic antibiotics

347
Q

Which investigations are used to identify DDH?

A

< 5-6 months = ultrasound

> 6 months = X-ray

348
Q

What is the typical blood gas picture that is seen in congenital cyanotic heart disease?

A

Metabolic acidosis

Hypoxia

349
Q

Describe the appearance of a rash caused by parvovirus in adults.

A

Lacey rash

350
Q

What is Gaucher disease?

A

Glycogen storage disease that is prevalent in Ashkanazi jews
NOTE: Tay Sachs is also common in this population

351
Q

What are the five autism spectrum disorders?

A 
Autism
Asperger’s syndrome
Rett syndrome
Childhood disintegrative disorder
Pervasive developmental disorder not otherwise specified (PDD-NOS)
352
Q

Which disease in infants can present very similarly to necrotising enterocolitis?

A

Hirschsprung’s enterocolitis

353
Q

What does ‘10% glucose’ mean with regards to fluids?

A

10 g glucose per 100 mL

354
Q

What is the investigation of choice for suspected SUFE?

A

Frog-lateral hip X-ray

NOTE: they will have limited hip flexion and abduction

355
Q

List some complications of Henoch-Schonlein Purpura.

A 
Acute renal impairment 
Intussusception
Arthritis involving ankles and knees commonly
Testicular pain
Pancreatitis
356
Q

What is an important first step in the management of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia?

A

Prevent tumour lysis syndrome
Hyperhydration
Start allopurinol

357
Q

Which antibiotic should be used for neutropaenic sepsis?

A

Tazocin

358
Q

List some clinical features of space-occupying lesions.

A 
Headaches are worse when lying down 
Morning vomiting 
Headaches may cause night-time waking 
Change in mood or personality 
Change in educational performance
Focal neurology (e.g. weakness, visual field defect)
359
Q

Which age group is most likely to experience a febrile convulsion?

A

< 6 years

360
Q

What are some key features of frontal seizures?

A

Involves motor and pre-motor cortex

May lead to clonic movements

361
Q

What are some key features of temporal lobe seizures?

A

Aura
Automatisms (e.g. lip smaking)
Impaired consciousness

362
Q

Which diagnostic tests can be used for mumps and rubella?

A

Serology from blood or oral fluid sample

363
Q

Which investigations may be used in a child with short stature?

A 
MId-parental height 
Random GH measurement 
Insulin tolerance test 
CT/MRI head scan 
Bone age (using DEXA or write X-ray)
364
Q

What are some complications of scarlet fever?

A 
Otitis media 
Acute sinusitis/mastoiditis 
Streptococcal pneumonia
Meningitis 
Endocarditis 
Osteomyelitis 
Rheumatic fever 
Streptococcal glomerulonephritis
365
Q

In an acute asthma attack, which other medications may be used if the patient is unresponsive to nebulised SABA and ipratropium bromide?

A

Magnesium sulphate
Aminophylline
IV salbutamol

IMPORTANT: ECG and electrolytes should be monitored

366
Q

Who will receive the children’s flu vaccine?

A

Annually as a nasal spray in september/october for all children aged 2-9 years

367
Q

When is the 4 in 1 preschool booster given and which vaccines does it contain?

A 
Around 3 years and 4 months 
Diphtheria
Tetanus 
Pertussis 
Polio
368
Q

When is the 3 in 1 teenage booster given and which vaccines does it contain?

A

14 years
Diphtheria
Tetanus
Polio

369
Q

What type of murmur does a VSD cause?

A

Pansystolic heard loudest at the lower left sternal edge (fifth intercostal space)

370
Q

What type of murmur does a PDA cause?

A

Continuous machinery murmur inferior to the left clavicle

371
Q

What should you do first if a child presents to paediatric A&E with infectious diarrhoea, whooping cough or symptoms suggestive of MMR?

A

Put in a side room

372
Q

What is spinal muscular atrophy?

A

Autosomal recessive disorder of anterior horn cells
Leads to progressive weakness and wasting of skeletal muscles
Due to mutation in SMN1
NOTE: Werdnig-Hoffman disease is type 1 SMD

373
Q

What is Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease?

A

Hereditary motor sensory neuropathy
Causes symmetrical, slowly progressive distal muscle wasting
May present in preschool children with tripping from bilateral foot drop

374
Q

What is a key feature of CSF studies in Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A

High protein

375
Q

What is myotonic dystrophy?

A

Autosomal dominant trinucleotide repeat (CTG) disorder

Presents with hypotonia, feeding difficulties, respiratory difficulties and abnormal facies (in older children)

376
Q

List some causes of ataxia.

A 
Friedreich ataxia
Ataxia telangiectasia
Cerebellar tumour 
Cerebellar agenesis/dysgenesis 
Post-infectious cerebellitis
Toxins (e.g. ethanol)
377
Q

What is Friedreich ataxia and how does it present?

A

Autosomal recessive triplet repeat in FXN gene
Worsening ataxia and dysarthria
Distal wasting of lower limbs
Absent reflexes
Pes cavus (associated with Charcot-Marie-Tooth)
Impairment of proprioception

378
Q

What are the main clinical features of ataxia telangiectasia?

A 
Telangiectasia in the conjunctiva
Mild delay in motor development 
Oculomotor problems 
Coordination problems 
Complex eye movement disorders
379
Q

What are the main features of NF1?

A 
6 or more cafe au lait spots 
Neurofibromas 
Axillary freckling 
Optic glioma 
Lisch nodules 
1st degree relative with NF1
380
Q

What are the main features of NF2?

A

Multiple schwannomas
Meningiomas
Ependyomas
Bilateral acoustic neuroma

381
Q

List the main clinical features of tuberous sclerosis.

A

Cutaneous: ash leaf depigmentation, shagreen patches (roughened), angiofibromata (across the bridge of the nose)
Neurological: developmental delay, epilepsy, intellectual disability

382
Q

What are the main features of Sturge-Weber syndrome?

A

Port wine stain in the distribution of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve
Similar lesion intracranially
May have epilepsy, intellectual disability and contralateral hemiplegia

383
Q

List some neurodegenerative conditions that occur in children.

A 
Lysosomal storage disorders 
Peroxisome enzyme defects 
Wilson disease 
Tay Sachs 
Gaucher 
Niemann Pick
384
Q

What is adrenoleukodystrophy?

A

Group of disorders caused by peroxisomal defects
Peroxisomes are important for breaking down fatty acids
Neonatal and X-linked forms

385
Q

What are some clinical features of growing pains?

A

Age 3-12
Symmetrical pain not limited to joints
Pain never present at the start of the day
Physical activities not limited (no limp)
Normal physical examination

386
Q

how does subluxation of the patella present?

A

Sudden lateral dislocation of the patella
Very painful
Feeling of instability/giving way
Requires reduction and immobilisation

387
Q

How many joints must be affected to be classified as polyarticular juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A

More than 4

388
Q

Describe the difference in the iron content of breast milk and cows milk.

A

Breast milk - low iron content, high absorption

Cows milk - high iron content, low absorption

389
Q

List some clinical features of Edwards syndrome.

A 
Low-set ears 
Small chin 
Microcephaly
Overlapping fingers 
Rocker-bottom feet 
Cardiac defects (VSDs) 
Renal anomalies 
Learning disability 
90% death within 1 year
390
Q

List some clinical features of Patau syndrome.

A 
Structural brain defects 
Small eyes
Polydactyly
Cardiac/renal malformations 
Death within 1 year
391
Q

List some clinical features of Klinefelter’s syndrome.

A 
Most common cause of male hypogonadism
Small firm testes 
Tall 
Behavioural problems 
Delayed speech 
Gynaecomastia
392
Q

List some clinical features of fragile X syndrome.

A 
Moderate learning difficulties (most common genetic cause of learning difficulties)
Macrocephaly 
Large testes 
Large ears 
Long face 
Prominent mandible and forehead
393
Q

How is fragile X syndrome inherited?

A

X-linked dominant

Female carriers may have mild learning difficulties

394
Q

What is Still’s disease?

A

Systemic form of JIA thought to be of autoimmune origin
Intermittent pyrexia
Salmon-link rash
Aches and pains of joints and muscles

395
Q

List some clinical features that are common to all congenital TORCH infection.

A 
Low birth weight 
Prematurity 
Jaundice 
Microcephaly 
Seizures 
Anaemia 
Failure to thrive 
Encephalitis
396
Q

Which medication is used to chelate lead in lead poisoning?

A

EDTA (ethylene diamine tetraacetic acid)

NOTE: it present with encephalopathic features (e.g. behavioural problems, pica) and causes a hypochromic microcytic anaemia with basophilic stippling

397
Q

Which other condition can present very similarly to acute epiglottitis?

A 
Retropharyngeal abscess (causes fever, drooling, dysphagia and stridor)
Typically has a longer history than acute epiglottitis (over a few days)
398
Q

Which murmur is typically heard in tetralogy of Fallot?

A

Ejection systolic murmur heard best in the 3rd intercostal space with a single heart sound

399
Q

Which tumour markers can be used for neuroblastoma?

A

Urinary catecholamines

400
Q

What is a craniopharyngioma?

A

Rare type of brain tumour derived from pituitary gland embryonic tissue

401
Q

Which tissue does neuroblastoma arise from?

A

Neural crest tissue in the adrenal medulla and sympathetic nervous system

NOTE: MIBG scans are used to identify neurblastoma tissue

402
Q

Which tissue does nephroblastoma arise from?

A

Embryonal renal tissue

403
Q

What is the most common type of malignant bone tumour in children?

A

Osteosarcoma

NOTE: Ewing is common in younger children

404
Q

Describe the inheritance pattern of retinoblastoma.

A

Autosomal dominant

Located on chromosome 13

405
Q

What is a common benign cause of proteinuria in children?

A

Orthostatic (postural) proteinuria

Proteinuria is only found when the child is upright during the day

406
Q

List some features of Fanconi syndrome.

A 
Polydipsia and polyuria
Salt depletion and dehydration 
Hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis 
Rickets 
Faltering growth
407
Q

List some causes of heart failure in neonates.

A

Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
Critical aortic valve stenosis
Severe coarctation of the aorta
Interruption of the aortic arch

408
Q

Which congenital heart defect is most commonly seen in DiGeorge syndrome?

A

Interrupted aortic arch

Others include persistent truncus arteriosus, TOF and VSD

409
Q

What are some features suggestive of atypical UTI?

A 
Seriously ill
Poor urine flow 
Abdominal mass 
Raised creatinine 
Septicaemia
Failure to respond to antibiotic treatment 
Infection with non-E. coli organisms

Laz's Specialties COPY (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions