Cross Country Flight Planning Flashcards

1
Q

What are three common ways to navigate?

A

a. pilotage - reference to visual land markings
b. dead reckoning - computing direction and distance from a known position
c. Radio navigation

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2
Q

What type of aeronautical charts are available for VFR navigation?

A

a. Sectional Charts - visual navigation of slow to medium speed aircraft
b. VFR terminal area charts - depict the class B airspace
c. VFR flyway planning charts - printed on the reverse side of a TAC. They depict flight paths and altitudes recommended for use to bypass high traffic areas.

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3
Q

Are electronic flight bags (EFBs) approved for use as a replacement for paper reference material (POH and supplements, charts)

A

Yes. EFBs can be used during all phases of flight operations in lieu of paper reference material when the information displayed is the functional equivalent of the paper reference material replaced and is current, up to date, adn valid. It is recommended that a secondary or backup sources of aeronautical information necessary for the flight be available.

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4
Q

What is an isogonic line?

A

broken magnetic line on aeronautical charts that show the amount and direction of magnetic variation

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5
Q

What is magnetic variation?

A

angle between true north and magnetic north

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6
Q

How do you convert a true direction to a magnetic direction?

A

East is least (subtract)

West is best (add)

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7
Q

What are lines of latitude and longitude?

A

Lines that are parallel to the equator (latitude). Lines that go from north pole to south pole (longitude)

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8
Q

What is magnetic deviation?

A

Compass needle had frequently deflected (called deviation) when influenced by engine instruments and avionics.

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9
Q

What are several types of navigation aids?

A

VOR (Very High Frequency Omnidirectional Range)
VORTAC (VHF Omnidirectional Range/Tactical Air Navigation)
DME (Distance Measuring Equipment)
RNAV (Area Navigation) includes INS, VOR/DME-referenced and GPS

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10
Q

What is a VOR or VORTAC?

A

VORs are VHF radio station that project radials in all directions from the station. Each radial is denoted by its outbound magnetic direction. Almost all VOR stations will also be VORTACS. A VORTAC provides the standard briefing of a VOR plus distance information to pilots of airplanes which have the distance measuring equipment?

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11
Q

At what frequency range do VORs operate?

A

between 108 and 117.95 MHz

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12
Q

What is a VOR radial?

A

A radial is a line of magnetic bearing extending from an omnidirectional range> A VOR projects 360 radials from the station. The radials are always identified by their direction “from” the station.

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13
Q

How are VOR NAVAIDs classified?

A

Terminal, Low, High

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14
Q

What reception distances can be expected from the various class VORs?

A
Class Distance/Altitudes Miles
T 12,000 and below 25
L Below 18,000 40
H Below 18,000 40
H 14,500 - 17,999 100 (counterminous 48 states only)
H 18,000 - FL450 130
H Above FL450 100
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15
Q

What limitations, it any, apply to VOR reception?

A

VORs are subject to line-of-sight restrictions, and the range varies proportionally to the altitude of the receiving equipment.

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16
Q

What are the different methods for checking the accuracy of VOR receiver equipment?

A

VOR check - plus of minus 4 degrees
Ground checkpoint - plus of minus 4 degrees
Airborne checkpoint - plus or minus 6 degrees
Dual VOR check - 4 degrees between each other
Selected radial over a known ground point - plus of minus 6 degrees

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17
Q

What is DME?

A

Distance Measuring Equipment - used to measure, in nautical miles, the slant range distance of an aircraft from the DME navigational aid. Aircraft equipped with DME are provided with distance and ground speed info when receiving a VOR or TACAN facility. DME operates on frequencies in the IHF spectrum between 960 and 1215 MHz.

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18
Q

Give a brief explanation of GPS.

A

GPS is a satellite-based radio navigation system that broadcasts a signal used by receivers to determine a precise position anywhere in the world.

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19
Q

What are the three functional elements of GPS?

A

Space element - consists of 30 satellites
Control element - consists of a network of ground-based GPS monitoring and control stations that ensure the accuracy of satellite position and their clocks
User element - consists of antennas and receiver-processors onboard aircraft that provide positioning, velocity, and precise timing of the user.

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20
Q

What are the different types of GPS receivers available for use?

A

GPS receivers used for VFR navigation vary from fully integrated IFR/VFR installations, to handheld devices. Pilots must understand the limitations of the receiver prior to using in flight to avoid misusing navigation info.

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21
Q

What is the purpose of RAIM?

A

Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) is a self-monitoring function performed by a GPS receiver to ensure that adequate GPS signals are being received from the satellites at all times. The GPS will alert the pilot whenever the integrity monitoring determines that the GPS signals do not meet the criteria for safe navigational use.

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22
Q

Where can a pilot obtain RAIM availability info?

A

Pilot may obtain GPS RAIM availability info by using a manufacturer-supplied RAIM prediction tool, or using the Service Availability Prediction Tool on the FAA enroute and terminal RAIM prediction website. Pilots can also request GPS RAIM aeronautical info from an FSS during preflight briefings.

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23
Q

If RAIM capability is lost during flight, can you continue to use GPS for navigation?

A

Without RAIM capability, the pilot has no reassurance of the accuracy of the GPS position. This prevents the pilot from being alerted to the loss of the required number of satellites in view, or the detection of a position error.

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24
Q

Before conducting a flight using GPS equipment for navigation, what basic preflight checks should be made?

A

a. Verify the GPS equipment is properly installed and certified for the planned operation
b. Verify that the databases have not expired
c. Review the GPS NOTAM/RAIM info related to the planned route of flight
d. Review operational status of ground based NAVAIDs and related aircraft equipment appropriate to route of flight
e. Determine that the GPS receiver operation manual or airplane flight manual supplement is onboards and available for use

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25
Q

How can a pilot determine what type of operation a GPS receiver is approved for?

A

The pilot should reference the POH/AFM and supplements to determine the limitations and operating procedures for the particular GPS equipment installed. Most systems require that the avionics operations manual/handbook be onboard as a limitation of use.

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26
Q

During a preflight briefing, will the FSS briefer automatically provide a pilot with GPS NOTAMS?

A

No, you must specifically request them

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27
Q

How many satellites does a GPS receiver require to compute its position?

A

3 satellites - yields a latitude and longitude position only
4 satellites - yields a latitude, longitude, and altitude position (3D)
5 satellites - 3D and RAIM
6 satellites - 3D and RAIM (isolates corrupt signal and removes from navigation solution)

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28
Q

What is WAAS?

A

Wide Area Augmentation System is a ground and satellite integrated navigational error correction system that provides accuracy enhancements to signals received from the GPS.

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29
Q

What limitations should you be aware of when using a paramount VFR GPS or a hand-held VFR GPS system for navigation?

A

a. RAIM capability - Many VFR GPS receivers and all hand-held units have no RAIM alerting capability. Loss of the required number of satellites in view, or the detection of a position error cannot be displayed to the pilot by such receivers.
b. Database currency - In many receivers, an updatable database is used for navigation fixes, airports, and instrument procedures. These databases must be maintained to the current update for IFR operation, but no such requirement exists for VFR use.
c. Antenna location - In many VFR installations of GPS receivers, antenna location is more a matter of convenience than performance. Handheld GPS receiver antenna location is limited to the cockpit or cabin only and is rarely optimized to provide a clear view of available satellites. Loss of signal, couples with a lack of RAIM capability, could present erroneous position and navigation information with no warning to the pilot.

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30
Q

Define VFR Waypoint

A

provides pilots with a supplementary tool to assist with positional awareness while navigating visually in and aircraft equipped with area navigation receivers.

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31
Q

1 Nautical Mile = __________ Statute Miles

A

1.15

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32
Q

Flight Log Example, VFR Flight Plan:

A

a. Get a preflight briefing consisting of the latest or most current weather, airport, and enroute NAVAID information
b. Draw course lines and mark checkpoints on the chart
c. Enter checkpoints on the log
d. Enter NAVAIDs on the log
e. Enter VOR courses on the log
f. Enter altitude on the log
g. Enter the wind and temperature on the log
h. Measure the true course on the chart and enter it on the log.
i. Compute the true airspeed and enter it on the log
j. Compute the WCA and GS and enter it on the log
k. Determine variation from chart and enter it on the log
l. Determine deviation from compass correction card and enter it on the log
m. Enter the compass heading on the log.
n. Measure distances on the chart and enter them on the log
o. Figure ETE and ETA and enter them on the log
p. Calculate fuel burn and usage; enter them on the log
q. Compute weight and balance
r. Compute takeoff and landing performance
s. Complete a Flight Plan Form
t. File the Flight Plan with FSS

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33
Q

After takeoff, you attempt to activate your VFR flight plan, but are unable to contact FSS. What will happen to your filed flight plan?

A

When a VFR flight plan is filed, it is held by FSS until 1 hour after the proposed departure time, then it is canceled.

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34
Q

What actions should be taken if you become disoriented or lost on a cross country flight?

A

Condition 1: Plenty of Fuel
Straighten up and fly right, Fly a specific heading in a direction you believe is correct (or circle if unsure); don’t wander aimlessly
If you have been flying a steady compass heading and keeping a relatively accurate navigation log, it’s not likely you’ll have a problem locating your position
If several VOR’s are within reception distance, use them for a cross-bearing to determine the position or fly to the station - there’s no doubt where you are then
Use knowledge of your last known position, elapsed time, approximate wind direction, and ground speed, to establish how far you may have traveled since your last checkpoint
Use this distance as a radius to draw a semicircle ahead of your last known position on the chart.
If still unsure, loosen up the eyeballs and start some first-class pilotage. Look for something big. Often there will be linear figures such as rivers, mountain ranges, or prominent highways or railroads that can be used as easy references and thus find them of great value in fixing your approximate position.
Condition 2: Low on fuel
Get on the ground immediately

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35
Q

If it becomes apparent that you cannot locate your position, which action is recommended?

A

FAA’s 4 C’s
Climb - higher altitude allows for better communication ability and better visual range
Communication - Use 121.5 MHz if no other frequency’s work.
Confess - Once communications are established, let them know your problem
Comply - Follow instructions

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36
Q

When en route on a cross country flight, weather has deteriorated and it has become necessary to divert to an alternate airport. Assuming no GPS or DME capability, describe how you will navigate to the alternate.

A
  • After selecting the alternate, approximate the magnetic course to the alternate using a straightedge and a compass rose from a nearby VOR or an airway that closely parallels my direction from the alternate
  • I can use the straight edge and scale at the bottom to approximate a distance to the alternate. I can fine-tune this course and distance later, as time permits, with a plotter.
  • If time permits, I’ll start my diversion over a prominent ground feature. However, in an emergency, I will divert promptly toward my alternate.
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37
Q

What is the most common type of communication radio equipment installed in GA aircraft? How many channels are available?

A

most common types are VHF. Channels vary from 118.0 to 136.975 MHz and is classified as 720 or 760, depending on the number of channels it can accommodate.

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38
Q

What us the universal VHF emergency frequency?

A

121.5 MHz

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39
Q

What frequencies are ground frequencies?

A

A majority are 121.6 to 121.9

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40
Q

What is a CTAF?

A

A CTAF (common traffic advisory frequency) is a frequency designated for the purpose of carrying out airport advisory practices while operating to or from an airport without an operating control tower.

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41
Q

What is UNICOM?

A

Non Government communication facility that provides airport information at certain airports.

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42
Q

What does ATIS mean?

A

Automatic Terminal Information System

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43
Q

What do you do when operating near an airport with no tower, UNICOM, of FSS?

A

Use the MULTICOM frequency 122.9

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44
Q

What frequencies are monitored by most FSS’s other than 121.5?

A

FSS has assigned frequencies for their different functions. If in doubt for what frequency to use, use 122.2 for common enroute simplex frequency at most FSS’s.

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45
Q

What is an RCO?

A

Remote communications outlet, an unmanned communications facility controlled by ATC personnel. Provides ground-to-ground communications between ATC and pilots located at satellite airports.

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46
Q

How can a pilot determine what frequency is appropriate for activating a VFR flight plan?

A

Two ways

a. ask the FSS briefer for the preflight weather briefing
b. Consult the communications section under flight service for the airport of departure

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47
Q

What is the meaning of a heavy-lined blue cox surrounding a NAVAID frequency?

A

indicates FSS frequencies

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48
Q

Why would a frequency be printed on top of a heavy line box?

A

This usually means that this frequency is available in addition to the standard FSS frequencies.

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49
Q

What is the meaning of a thin-lined blue box surrounding a NAVAID frequency?

A

No frequencies on top of box indicate that there are no standard FSS frequencies available. NAVAIDs will have “no voice” symbol.

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50
Q

Why would a frequency be printed on top of a thin-lined blue box?

A

Indicate the best frequencies to use in the immediate vicinity of the NAVAID site

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51
Q

How can a pilot determine the availability of HIWAS when looking at a VFR sectional chart?

A

Navaids that have HIWAS capability are depicted on sectional charts with an H in the upper right corner of the identification box.

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52
Q

What meaning does the letter T in a solid blue circle appearing in the top right corner of a NAVAID frequency box have?

A

(Alaska only) A transcribed weather broadcast is available. A TWEB is a continuous recording of meteorological and aeronautical information that is broadcast on L/MF and VOR facilities for pilots.

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53
Q

In an inflight emergency requires immediate action by the pilot, what authority and responsibilities do they have?

A

a. PIC is directly responsible, and is the final authority for the operations of the aircraft
b. In an inflight emergency requiring immediate action, the PIC may deviate from any rule in Part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency
c. Each PIC who deviates from a Part 91 rule shall, upon request from the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the administrator

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54
Q

What restrictions apply to pilots concerning the use of drugs and alcohol?

A

No person may act or attempt to act as a crew member of a civil aircraft:

a. within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage;
b. while under the influence of alcohol
c. while using any drug that affects the person’s faculties in any way contrary to safety or
d. while having an alcohol concentration of .04 percent or more in a blood or breath specimen

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55
Q

Is it permissible for a pilot to allow a person who is obviously under the influence of intoxicating liquors or drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?

A

No. Except in an emergency, no pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a person who appears to be intoxicated or who demonstrates by manner or physical indications that the individual is under the influence of drugs (except a medical patient under proper care) to be carried in the aircraft.

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56
Q

May portable electronic devices be operated onboard an aircraft?

A

Aircraft operated by a holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an aircraft operating under IFR may not allow operation of electronic devices onboard their aircraft. Exceptions are: portable voice recorders, hearing aids, heart pacemakers, electric shavers, or any device that the operator of the aircraft has determined will not cause interference with the navigation or communication system of the aircraft on which it is to be used.

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57
Q

Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?

A

No pilot in command of a civil aircraft may allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property. However, this section does not prohibit the dropping of any object if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property.

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58
Q

Concerning a flight in the local area, is any preflight action required, and if so, what must it consist of?

A

Yes, pilot must familiarize with all available information concerning that flight.

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59
Q

Preflight action as required by regulation for all flights away from the vicinity of the departure airport shall include a review of what specific information?

A

For an IFR flight or a flight not in the vicinity of an airport
NOTAMS
Weather Reports and forecasts
Known ATC traffic delays
Runway lengths at airports of intended use
Alternatives available if planned flight cannot be completed
Fuel Requirements
Takeoff and Landing distance data

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60
Q

Which persons on board an aircraft are required to use seatbelts and when?

A

Each person on board a U.S. registered civil aircraft must occupy an approved seat or berth with a safety belt, and if installed, shoulder harness, properly secured about him or her during movement on the surface, takeoff and landing. However a person who has not reached his or her second birthday and does not occupy or use any restraining device may be held by an adult who is occupying a seat or berth, and a person on board for the purpose of engaging in sport parachuting may use the floor of the aircraft as a seat.

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61
Q

What responsibility does the pilot in command have concerning passengers and their use of seatbelt?

A

No pilot may take off a U.S. registered civil aircraft unless the pilot in command of that aircraft ensures that each person on board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten that person’s safety belt and shoulder harness, if installed. The pilot in command shall ensure that all persons on board have been notified to fasten their seatbelt and shoulder harness, if installed, before movement of the aircraft on the surface, takeoff or landing.

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62
Q

When are flight crewmembers required to keep their seatbelts and shoulder harnesses fastned?

A

During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required flight crew member shall keep his/her seatbelt fastened while at his/her station. During takeoff and landing this includes shoulder harnesses, if installed, unless it interferes with other required duties.

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63
Q

If aircraft in close proximity to each other, such as formation flight, what regulations apply?

A

a. No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard
b. No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangement with the PIC of each aircraft in the formation
c. No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire in formation flight

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64
Q

What is the order of right of way as applied to the different categories of aircraft?

A
Balloons
Gliders
Airships
Airplanes
Rotorcraft
Aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft have the right of way over all other engine driven aircraft.
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65
Q

When would an aircraft have the right of way over all other air traffic?

A

An aircraft in distress has the right of way over all other air traffic.

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66
Q

State the required action for each of the aircraft confrontations (same category), below.

A

Converging - aircraft on right has the right of way
Approaching head on - both aircraft shall alter course to right
Overtaking - aircraft being overtaken has the right of way; pilot or the overtaking aircraft shall alter course to the right

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67
Q

What right of way rules apply when two or more aircraft are approaching an aircraft for the purpose of landing?

A

Aircraft on final approach to land or while landing have the right of way over aircraft in flight or operating on the surface, except that they shall not take advantage of this rule to force an aircraft off the runway surface which has already landed and is attempting to make way for an aircraft on final approach. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right of way, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another which is on final approach to land or to overtake that aircraft.

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68
Q

Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?

A

No person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL at an indicated airspeed or more than 250 knots (288 MPH).

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69
Q

What is the minimum safe altitude that an aircraft may be operated over a congested area of a city?

A

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate an aircraft over an congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open air assembly of persons, below an altitude of 1,000ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000ft of the aircraft.

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70
Q

In areas other than congested areas, what minimums safe altitudes shall be used?

A

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft shall be operated no lower than 500 feet above the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas. In those cases, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle or structure.

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71
Q

Define minimum safe altitude.

A

An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

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72
Q

What is the lowest altitude an aircraft may be operated over an area designated as a U.S wildlife refuge, park or forest service area?

A

All aircraft are requested to maintain a minimum altitude of 2000ft above the surface.

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73
Q

When flying below 18,000 ft MSL, cruising altitude must be maintained by reference to an altimeter set using what procedure?

A

When the barometric pressure is 31.00 Hg or less, each person operating an aircraft must maintain the cruising altitude of that aircraft by reference to an altimeter that is set to the current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 nautical miles of the aircraft. If there is no station within this area, the current report altimeter setting of an available station may be used. If the barometric pressure exceeds 31.00 Hg, consul the aeronautical information manual for correct procedures.

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74
Q

If an altimeter setting is not available before the flight, what procedure should be used?

A

Use the same procedure as in the case of an aircraft not equipped with a radio: the elevation of the departure airport or an appropriate altimeter setting available before departure should be used.

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75
Q

When a pilot intentionally deviate from an ATC clearance or instruction?

A

No pilot may deviate from an ATC clearance unless:

a. an amended clearance has been obtained
b. an emergency exists,
c. or in response to a traffic and collision avoidance system resolution advisory

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76
Q

As pilot in command, what action, if any, is required of you if you deviate from an ATC instruction and priority is given?

A

Two actions are required of you as PIC:

a. Each pilot in command who, in an emergency or in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory, deviates from an ATC clearance or instruction must notify ATC of that deviation as soon as possible
b. Each pilot in command who is given priority by ATC in an emergency shall submit a detailed report of that emergency within 48 hours to the manager of that ATC facility, if requested by ATC (on the ground responsibility)

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77
Q

If the aircraft radio rails in flight under VFR while operating into a tower controlled airport, what conditions must be met before landing may be made at that airport?

A

a. Weather conditions must be at or above basic VFR weather minimums;
b. Visual contact with the tower is maintained; and
c. A clearance to land is received

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78
Q

What procedures should be used when attempting communications with a tower when the aircraft transmitter or receiver or both are inoperative?

A

Arriving aircraft receiver inoperative:
a. Remain outside or above Class D surface area
b. Determine direction and flow of traffic
c. Advise tower of aircraft type, position, altitude, and intention to land. Request to be controlled by light signals
d. At 3 to 5 miles, advise tower of position and join traffic pattern
e. Watch tower for light gun signals
Arriving aircraft transmitter inoperative
a. Remain outside or above Class D surface area
b. Determine direction and flow of traffic
c. Monitor frequency for landing or traffic information
d. Join the traffic pattern and watch for light gun signals
e. Daytime, acknowledge by rocking wings. Night Time, acknowledge by flashing landing light or navigation lights
Arriving aircraft transmitter and receiver inoperative
a. Remain outside or above Class D surface area
b. Determine direction and flow or traffic
c. Join the traffic pattern and watch for light gun signals
d. Acknowledge light signals as noted above

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79
Q

What general rules apply concerning traffic pattern operations at non tower airports within Class E or G airspace?

A

Each person operating an aircraft to or from an airport without an operating control tower shall:

a. in the case of an airplane approaching to land, make all turns of that airplane to the left unless the airport displays approved light signals or visual markings indicating that turns should be made to the right, in which case the pilot shall make all turns to the right
b. in the case of an aircraft departing an airport, comply with any traffic patterns established for that airport in part 93

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80
Q

When operating in Class D airspace, what procedure should be used when approaching to land on a runway with a visual approach slope indicator?

A

Aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator shall maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.

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81
Q

What is the fuel requirement for VFR flight at night?

A

No person may begin a flight in an airplane under VFR conditions unless (considering wind and forecast weather conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, at night, to fly after that for at least 45 minutes.

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82
Q

What is the fuel requirement for VFR flight during the day?

A

During the day, you must be able to fly to the first point of intended landing, and assuming normal cruising speed, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes.

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83
Q

When operating an aircraft under VFR in level cruising flight at an altitude of more than 3,000 ft above the surface, what rules apply concerning specific altitudes flown?

A

When operating above 3000 feet AGL but less than 18,000 feet MSL on a magnetic course of 0 to 179, fly at an odd thousand foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet. When on a magnetic course of 180 to 359, fly at an even thousand foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet.

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84
Q

What is an ELT?

A

Emergency Locator Transmitter - radio transmitter attached to the aircraft structure which operates from its own power source on 121.5. it aids in locating downed aircraft by radiating a downward Sweeping audio town 2-4 times a second.

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85
Q

Is an emergency locator transmitter required on all aircraft?

A

No person may operate a U.S. registered civil aircraft unless there is attached to the airplane an automatic type emergency locator transmitter that is in operable condition. Several exceptions exist, including the following:

a. Aircraft engaged in training operations conducted entirely within a 50 nautical mile radius of the airport from which such local flight operations begin
b. Aircraft engaged in design and testing
c. New aircraft engaged in manufacture, preparation and delivery
d. Aircraft engaged in agricultural operations

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86
Q

When must the ELT batteries be replaced or recharged?

A

a. When the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 hour

b. When 50% of the battery’s useful life has expired

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87
Q

What are the regulations concerning use of supplemental oxygen on board an aircraft?

A

a. At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL: for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is more than 30 minutes, the required minimum flight crew must be provided with and use supplemental oxygen
b. At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet MSL: for the entire flight time at those altitudes, the required flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen
c. At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL: each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen

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88
Q

When is acrobatic flight not permitted?

A

a. over congested areas
b. Over an open air assembly
c. Within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, C, D, or E boundaries
d. Within 4 nautical miles of the center line of a federal airway
e. Below an altitude of 1,500 AGL
f. When flight visibility is less than 3 miles

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89
Q

Define acrobatic flight.

A

An intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in the aircraft’s attitude, abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration

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90
Q

When are parachutes required on an aircraft?

A

No person may execute the following maneuvers unless each occupant is wearing a parachute:
a. bank angle of 60 or more
b. nose-up or nose-down pitch of 30 relative to the horizon
Regulation does not apply to:
a. test pilots for pilot certification
b. spins and other flight maneuvers requiring for any certificate or rating when given instruction

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91
Q

What is Class A airspace?

A

Generally, that airspace from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL600, including that airspace overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and alaska; and designated international airspace beyond 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska within areas of domestic radio navigational signal or ATC radar coverage, and within which domestic procedures are applied.

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92
Q

Can a flight under VFR be conducted within Class A airspace?

A

No, unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each person operating an aircraft in Class A airspace must operate that aircraft under instrument flight rules (IFR).

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93
Q

What is the minimum pilot certification for operations conducted within Class A airspace?

A

The pilot must be at least a private pilot with an instrument rating.

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94
Q

What minimum equipment is required for flight operations within Class A airspace?

A

a. Two way radio capable of communicating with ATC on the frequency assigned
b. A mode C altitude encoding transponder
c. Equipped with instruments and equipment required for IFR operations

95
Q

How is Class A airspace depicted on navigational charts?

A

Class A airspace is not specifically charted.

96
Q

What is the definition of Class B airspace?

A

Generally, that airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation’s busiest airports in terms of IFR operations or passenger enplanements. The configuration of each Class B airspace area is individually tailored and consists of a surface area and two or more layers (some Class B airspace areas resemble upside down wedding cakes), and is designated to contain all published instrument procedures once an aircraft enters the airspace.

97
Q

What minimum pilot certification is required to operate an aircraft within Class B airspace?

A

No person may take off or land a civil aircraft at an airport within a class B airspace area or operate a civil aircraft within a Class B airspace area unless:
a. The pilot in command holds at least a private pilot certificate
b. The pilot in command holds a recreational pilot certificate and has met the requirements of 14 CFR 61.101; or for a student pilot seeking a recreational pilot certificate met the requirements of 14 CFR 61.94
c. The pilot in command holds a sport pilot certificate and has met the requirements of 14 CFR 61.325; or the requirements for a student pilot seeking a recreational pilot certificate in 14 CFR 61.94
d. The aircraft is operated by a student pilot who has met the requirements of 14 CFR 61.94 or 61.95 of this chapter, as applicable
Certain Class B airspace areas do not allow pilot operations to be conducted to or from the primary airport, unless the pilot in command holds at least a private pilot certificate

98
Q

What is the minimum equipment required for operations of an aircraft within Class B airspace?

A

a. An operable two way radio capable of communications with ATC on the appropriate frequencies for that area
b. A mode C altitude encoding transponder
c. If IFR, an operable VOR or TACAN receiver or an operable and suitable RNAV system

99
Q

Before operating an aircraft into Class B airspace, what basic requirement must be met?

A

Arriving aircraft must obtain an ATC clearance from the ATC facility having jurisdiction for that area prior to operating an aircraft in that area.

100
Q

What minimum weather conditions are required when conduction VFR flight operations within Class B airspace?

A

VFR flight operations must be conducted clear of clouds with at least 3 statute miles flight visibility.

101
Q

How is Class B airspace depicted on navigational charts?

A

Class B airspace is charted on sectional charts, IFR enroute low altitude, and terminal area charts. A solid shaded blue line depicts the lateral limits of Class B airspace. Numbers indicate the base and top.

102
Q

What basic ATC services are provided to all aircraft operations within Class B airspace?

A

VFR pilots will be provided sequencing and separation from other aircraft while operating within Class B airspace.

103
Q

It becomes apparent that wake turbulence may be encountered while ATC is providing sequencing and separation services in Class B airspace. Whose responsibility is it to avoid this turbulence?

A

The pilot in command is responsible.

104
Q

What is the maximum speed allowed when operating inside Class B airspace, under 10,000 feet and within a Class D surface?

A

Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet above the surface within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots.

105
Q

When operating beneath the lateral limits of Class B airspace, or in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, what maximum speed is allowed?

A

No more than 200 knots

106
Q

What is Class C airspace?

A

Generally, that airspace from the surface to 4000 feet above the airport elevation surrounding those airports that have an operation control tower, are serviced by a radar approach control, and that have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger enplanements.

107
Q

What are the basic dimensions of Class C airspace?

A

5 NM radius
4000 feet above airport elevation
10 NM radius shelf area that extends from 1200 feet to 4000 feet
outer area radius 20 NM

108
Q

What minimum pilot certification is required to operate an aircraft within Class C airspace?

A

A student pilot certificate

109
Q

What minimum equipment is required to operate an aircraft within Class C airspace?

A

a. A two way radio

b. Automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment with Mode C capability

110
Q

When operating an aircraft through Class C airspace or to an airport within Class C airspace, what basic requirement must be met?

A

Each person must establish two way radio communications with the ATC facilities providing air traffic services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain those communications while within that airspace.

111
Q

Two way radio communications must be established prior to entering Class C airspace. Define what is meant by established in this context.

A

If a controller responds to a rado call with, (aircraft call sign) standby, radio communications have been established.

112
Q

When departing a satellite airport without an operative control tower located within Class C airspace, what requirement must be met?

A

Each person must establish and maintain two way radio communications with the ATC facilities having jurisdiction over the Class C airspace area as soon as practicable after departing.

113
Q

What minimum weather conditions are required when conducting VFR flight operations within Class C airspace?

A

VFR flight operations within Class C airspace require 3 statute miles flight visibility and cloud clearances of at least 500 feet below 1000 feet above and 2000 feet horizontal to clouds.

114
Q

How is Class C airspace depicted on navigational charts?

A

A solid magenta line is used to depict Class C airspace.

115
Q

What type of air traffic control services are provided when operating within Class C airspace?

A

When two way radio communications and radar contact are established, all VFR aircraft are:

a. sequenced to the primary airport
b. provided Class C services within the Class C airspace and the outer area
c. Provided basic radar services beyond the outer area on a workload permitting basis. This can be terminated by the controller if workload dictates

116
Q

What are the various terminal radar services available to VFR aircraft?

A

Basic Radar Service - safety alerts, traffic advisories, limited radar vectoring and sequencing at locations where procedures have been established
TRSA service - radar sequencing and separation service for VFR aircraft in a TRSA
Class C service - provides, in addition to basic radar service, approved separation between aircraft and sequences of VFR arrivals to the primary airport
Class B service - provides, in addition to basic radar service, approved separation between aircraft and sequences of VFR arrivals to the primary airport
What are the various terminal radar services available to VFR aircraft?

117
Q

When is a Mode C Transponder Required?

A

a. At or above 10,000ft MSL above the 48 contiguous states or DC.
b. Within 30 miles of a Class B airspace primary airport, below 10,000ft MSL
c. Within and above all Class C airspace, up to 10,000ft MSL
d. Within 10 miles of certain designated airports, excluding airspace which is both outside the Class D surface area and below 1,200ft AGL
e. All aircraft flying into, within, or across the U.S. ADIZ

118
Q

What is the maximum speed an aircraft may be operated within Class C airspace?

A

no more than 200 knots at or below 2500 feet above the surface within 4 nautical miles

119
Q

What is Class D airspace?

A

extends upward from the surface to 2500 feet above airport elevation.

120
Q

When operating an aircraft through Class D airspace or to an airport within Class D airspace, what requirement must be met?

A

Each person must establish two way radio communication with the ATC facilities providing air traffic services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain those communications while within that airspace.

121
Q

When departing a satellite airport without an operative control tower located within Class D airspace, what requirement must be met?

A

Each person must establish and maintain two way radio communications with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the Class D airspace area as soon as practicable after departing.

122
Q

Is an ATC clearance required if flight operations are conducted through a Class E surface area arrival extension?

A

Class E airspace may be designated as extensions to Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E surface areas. Class E airspace extensions begin at the surface and extend up to the overlying controlled airspace. The extensions provide controlled airspace to contain standard instrument approach procedures without imposing a communications requirement on pilot’s operating under VFR. Surface area arrival extensions become part of the surface area dn are in effect during the same times as the surface area

123
Q

What minimum weather conditions are required when conducting VFR flight operations within Class D airspace?

A

VFR flight operations within Class D airspace require 3 statute miles flight visibility and cloud clearances of at least 500 feet below, 1000 feet above and 2000 feet horizontal to clouds

124
Q

How is Class D airspace depicted on navigational charts?

A

blue segmented lines

125
Q

What type of air traffic control services are provided when operating within Class D airspace?

A

No separation services are provided to VFR aircraft.

126
Q

What is the maximum speed an aircraft may be operated within Class D airspace?

A

no more than 200 knots

127
Q

When a control tower, located at an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the lower limit of the controlled airspace?

A

During the hours the tower is not in operation, Class E surface area rules, or a combination of Class E rules down to 700 feet AGL and Class G rules to the surface, will become applicable.

128
Q

Will all airports with an operating control tower always have Class D airspace surrounding them?

A

No; some airports do not have the required weather reporting capability necessary for surface based controlled airspace. The controlled airspace over these airports normally begins at 700 feet or 1200 AGL and can be determined form visual aeronautical charts

129
Q

What is the definition of Class E (controlled) airspace?

A

Controlled airspace is airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flights and to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification. Controlled airspace is a generic term that covers Class A, B, C, D, and E

130
Q

State several examples of Class E airspace.

A

a. Surface designated for an airport where a control tower is not in operation
b. Extension to a surface area
c. Airspace used for transition
d. Enroute domestic areas
e. Federal airways and low-altitude RNAV routes
f. Offshore airspace areas
g. Unless designated at a lower altitude
h. Airspace above FL600

131
Q

What are the operating rules and pilot/equipment requirements to operate within Class E airspace?

A

a. minimum pilot certification - student pilot certificate
b. No specific equipment requirements in Class E
c. No specific requirements for arrival or through flight in Class E

132
Q

When a Class C or Class D surface area is not in effect continuously (for example, where a control tower only operates part time), what will happen to the surface area airspace when the tower closes?

A

The surface area airspace will change to either a Class E surface area or Class G airspace.

133
Q

Explain the purpose of Class E transition areas.

A

Class E transition areas extended upward from either 700 feet AGL or 1200 feet AGL and are designated for airports with an approved instrument procedure. Class E transition areas exist to help separate arriving and departing IFR traffic from VFR aircraft operating in the vicinity.

134
Q

Are you required to establish communications with a tower located within Class E airspace?

A

Yes. Communications must be established prior to 4 nautical miles from the airport, up to and including 2500 feet AGL.

135
Q

How is Class E airspace depicted on navigational charts?

A

Most of the airspace in The United States is Class E airspace. Class E airspace extends from 1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL (18,000 feet is the floor of Class A airspace). Class E airspace can also extends down to the surface or 700 feet AGL.

136
Q

How are Class E surface extension areas depicted on navigational charts?

A

Class E airspace areas that serve as extensions to Class B, C, and D airspace are depicted by a magenta segmented line.

137
Q

What is the definition of Class G airspace?

A

Class G airspace is typically the airspace very near the ground (1,200 feet or less), beneath class E airspace and between class B-D cylinders around towered airstrips. Radio communication is not required in class G airspace, even for IFR operations. Class G is completely uncontrolled.

138
Q

Are you required to establish communications with a tower located within Class G airspace?

A

unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower unless two-way radio communications are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 nautical miles from the airport, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.

139
Q

What are the vertical limits of Class G airspace?

A

Class G airspace begins at the surface and continues up to the overlying controlled (Class E) airspace, not to exceed 14,500 feet MSL

140
Q

What are the minimum cloud clearance and visibility required when conducting flight operations in a traffic pattern at night in class G airspace below 1200 feet AGL?

A

If the visibility is less than 3 statute miles but not less than 1 statute mile during night hours and you are operating in an airport traffic pattern within 1/2 mile of the runway.

141
Q

What is the main difference between Class G airspace and Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace?

A

The main difference which distinguishes Class G airspace from the rest is the flight visibility/cloud clearance requirements necessary to operate within it.

142
Q

What minimum flight visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR flight in the following situations?

A

Class C, D, or E airspace
less than 10,000 feet MSL:
visibility: 3 statute miles
Cloud clearance: 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, 2000 feet horizontal

at or above 10,000 feet MSL:
visibility: 5 statute miles
cloud clearance: 1000 feet below, 1000 feet above 1 statute mile

Class G
1200 feet or less above the surface
Day
Visibility: 1 statute mile
cloud clearance: clear of clouds
Night
visibility: 3 statue mile
cloud clearance: 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, 2000 feet horizontal
more than 1200 feet above the surface but less than 10,000 feet MSL:
Day
visibility: 1 statute miles
cloud clearance: 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, 2000 feet horizontal
Night
visibility: 3 statute miles
cloud clearance: 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, 2000 feet horizontal

More than 1200 feet above the surface and at or above 10,000 feet MSL:
visibility: 5 statute miles
cloud clearance: 1000 feet below, 1000 feet above, 1 statute mile horizontal

143
Q

What are the basic VFR weather minimums required for operation of an aircraft into Class B, C, D, or E airspace?

A

1000 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility. Except as provided in 14 CFR 91.157 (special VFR), no person may:

a. operate an aircraft beneath the ceiling under VFR within the lateral boundaries of controlled airspace designated to the surface for an airport when the ceiling is less than 1000 feet
b. Take off or land an aircraft, or enter the traffic pattern of an areas, under VFR, within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, C, D, or E airspace designated for an airport unless ground visibility is not reported, unless flight visibility during landing or takeoff, or while operating in the traffic pattern is at least 3 statute miles.

144
Q

If VFR flight minimums cannot be maintained, can a VFR flight be made into Class B, C, D, or E airspace?

A

No, with one exception. A special VFR clearance may be obtained from ATC prior to operating within a Class B, C, D, or E surface area provided the flight can remain clear of clouds with at least one statute mile ground visibility if takeoff or landing or, one statute mile flight visibility for operations within Class B - E surface areas.

145
Q

Are special VFR clearances always available to pilots in all classes of airspace?

A

A VFR pilot may request and be given a clearance to enter, leave, or operate within most Class D and E surface areas and some Class B and C surface areas traffic permitting and providing such flight will not delay IFR operations.

146
Q

If it becomes apparent that a special VFR clearance will be necessary, what facility should the pilot contact in order to obtain one?

A

When a control tower is located within a Class B, C, or D surface area, requests for clearances should be made to the tower. In a Class E surface area, a clearance may be obtained from the nearest tower, FSS, or center

147
Q

Can a special VFR clearance be obtained into or out of Class B, C, D, or E airspace at night?

A

Special VFR operations by fixed wing aircraft are prohibited between sunset and sunrise unless the pilot is instrument rated and the aircraft is equipped for IFR flight.

148
Q

What is a prohibited area?

A

An area on the surface on the earth in which the flight of aircraft is prohibited

149
Q

What is a restricted area?

A

An area on the surface within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restrictions.

150
Q

Under what condition, if any, may pilots enter restricted or prohibited areas?

A

No person may operate within a restricted, contrary to the restrictions imposed, or within a prohibited area, unless that person has the permission to of the using or controlling agency. Normally no operations are permitted in a prohibited area and prior permission must always be obtained before operating within a restricted area.

151
Q

What is a warning area?

A

airspace of defined dimensions extending from 3 nautical miles outward from the US coast, containing activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft.

152
Q

What is an MOA?

A

Military Operating Area consists of airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established for the purpose of separating military training activities from IFR traffic. Pilot operating VFR should use extreme caution and should contact FSS within 100 miles of the area to obtain real-time info concerning the MOA hours of operation.

153
Q

What is an Alert Area?

A

Informs nonparticipating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. All activities within the Alert Area shall be conducted in accordance with regulations.

154
Q

What are controlled firing areas?

A

Controlled firing areas (CFAs) contain activities that, if not conducted in a controlled environment, could be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft.

155
Q

What is a National Security Area?

A

airspace at locations where there is a requirement for increased security and safety of ground facilities. Pilots are requested to avoid flying through a depicted NSA.

156
Q

What is a Special Flight Rules Area (SFRA)?

A

A SFRA is an area of airspace within which Special Federal Regulations apply.

157
Q

Where can you find a Special Use Airspace?

A

They are found on IFR or visual charts.

158
Q

Where can a pilot find info on VFR flyways in Class B?

A

They can look on the back of the TAC of that specific airspace.

159
Q

What are Military Training Routes?

A

routes used for by the military for conducting low-altitude, high speed training. Routes above 1,500 AGL are flown under IFR (3 digits). Below 1,500 AGL is VFR (4 digits)

160
Q

What is a TRSA?

A

Terminal Radar Service Area is an airspace rounding the designated airport where ATC provides radar vectoring, sequencing, and separation on a full time basis.

161
Q

What class airspace is TRSA?

A

TRSA do not fit into any U.S . airspace classes. The primary airport of the TRSA, however, is a Class D

162
Q

How are TRSAs depicted on navigational charts?

A

TRSAs are depicted on VFR sectional and terminal area charts with a solid black line and attitudes for each segment. The class D portion is charted with a blue segmented line.

163
Q

What are ADIZ and where are they located?

A

Air Defense Identification Zone, and area of airspace over land or water, the location and control of aircraft are required in the interest of national security. ADIZ locations are:
Domestic - located within U.S. along an international boundary
Coastal - located over coastal waters of U.S.
Distant Early Warning Identification Zone - located over coastal waters of Alaska
Land-based ADIZ - located over U.S. metropolitan areas

164
Q

What requirements must be satisfied prior to operations into, within or across an ADIZ?

A
Flight plan - IFR or DVFR flight plan must be filed
Two-way radio
Transponder
Position reports
Aircraft position tolerances
165
Q

Discuss Class A airspace

A
Vertical dimensions - 18,000 feet MSL up to and include FL600
Operations permitted - IFR
Entry prerequisites - ATC clearance
Minimum pilot qualifications - instrument rating
Two way radio communications - yes
VFR minimum visibility - N/A
VFR minimum distance from clouds - N/A
Aircraft separation - All
Conflict resolution - N/A
Traffic advisories - N/A
Safety advisories - Yes
166
Q

Discuss Class B airspace

A

Vertical dimensions - surface to 10,000 feet MSL
Operations permitted - IFR and VFR
Entry prerequisites - ATC clearance
Minimum pilot qualifications - private/student
Two way radio communications - yes
VFR minimum visibility - 3 statute miles
VFR minimum distance from clouds - clear of clouds
Aircraft separation - All
Conflict resolution - Yes
Traffic advisories - Yes
Safety advisories - Yes

167
Q

Discuss Class C airspace

A

Vertical dimensions - surface to 4000 feet AGL
Operations permitted - IFR and VFR
Entry prerequisites - ATC clearance for IFR; radio contact for all
Minimum pilot qualifications - student rating
Two way radio communications - yes
VFR minimum visibility - 3 statute miles
VFR minimum distance from clouds - 500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal
Aircraft separation - IFR, SVFR and runway operations
Conflict resolution - Between IFR and VFR operations
Traffic advisories - Yes
Safety advisories - Yes

168
Q

Discuss Class D airspace

A

Vertical dimensions - surface to 2500 feet AGL
Operations permitted - IFR and VFR
Entry prerequisites - ATC clearance for IFR; radio contact for all
Minimum pilot qualifications - student rating
Two way radio communications - yes
VFR minimum visibility - 3 statute miles
VFR minimum distance from clouds - 500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal
Aircraft separation - IFR, SVFR and runway operations
Conflict resolution - no
Traffic advisories - workload permitting
Safety advisories - Yes

169
Q

Discuss Class E airspace

A

Vertical dimensions - none except for 18,000 feet MSL
Operations permitted - IFR and VFR
Entry prerequisites - ATC clearance for IFR
Minimum pilot qualifications - student certificate
Two way radio communications - yes for IFR
VFR minimum visibility - 3 statute miles
VFR minimum distance from clouds - 500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal
Aircraft separation - IFR, SVFR
Conflict resolution - no
Traffic advisories - workload permitting
Safety advisories - Yes

170
Q

Discuss Class G airspace

A

Vertical dimensions - surface to the overlying controlled airspace, not to exceed 14,500 feet MSL
Operations permitted - IFR and VFR
Entry prerequisites - none
Minimum pilot qualifications - student certificate
Two way radio communications - no
VFR minimum visibility - 1 statute miles
VFR minimum distance from clouds - 500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal
Aircraft separation - none
Conflict resolution - no
Traffic advisories - workload permitting
Safety advisories - Yes

171
Q

When is immediate notice to the NTSB required?

A

Operator shall immediately notify the nearest NTSB office of an aircraft or any of the following:

a. Flight control system malfunction
b. Crewmember unable to perform normal duties
c. Inflight fire
d. Aircraft collision inflight
e. Property damage, other than aircraft, estimated to exceed 25,000
f. Overdue aircraft
g. Release of all or a portion of a propeller blade from an aircraft
h. Complete loss of information from more than 50% of the aircraft’s EFIS cockpit displays

172
Q

What is an aircraft incident?

A

Occurrence other than an accident associated with the operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of operations

173
Q

What is an aircraft accident?

A

An occurrence associate with the operation of the aircraft in which any person suffers death or a serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives subsequent damage

174
Q

Define the term serious injury

A

a. Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours
b. Result in a fracture of any bone
c. Causes severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle or tendon damage
d. Involves any internal organ
e. Involves second or third degree burns affecting more than 5% of the body.

175
Q

Define the term substantial damage.

A

Substantial damage means damage or failure which adversely affects the structural strength, performance or flight characteristics of the aircraft and which would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component.

176
Q

Will notification to the NTSB always be necessary in any aircraft accident even if there were no injuries?

A

Yes

177
Q

Where are accident or incident reports files?

A

Operator shall file any report with the field office of the board nearest the accident or incident

178
Q

How soon must a report be filed after an accident or incident?

A

Within 10 days after an accident
When, after 7 days, an overdue aircraft is still missing
Incident reports should only be filed if requested by an authorized representative

179
Q

Can the FAA use reports submitted to NASA for enforcement purposes?

A

The FAA will not use reports submitted to NASA under the aviation safety reporting program in any enforcement action except information concerning accidents or criminal offenses which are wholly excluded from the program.

180
Q

What type of aeronautical lighting is VASI?

A

Visual approach slope indicator (VASI) - is a system of lights so arranged to provide visual descent guidance information during the approach to the runway.
Red over red - below glide path
Red over white - on glide path
White over White - above glide path

181
Q

What is PAPI?

A
The precision approach path indicator uses light units similar to VASI, but are installed in a single row of either two or four light units. 
Four white lights - high
Three white one red - slightly high
Two white two red - on glide path
One white three red - slightly low
Four red lights - low
182
Q

What does the operation of an airport rotating beacon during the hours of daylight indicate?

A

In Class B, C, D, and E surface areas, operation of the airport beacon during the hours of daylight often indicates that the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1000 feet.

183
Q

What are the six types of signs installed at airports?

A

a. Mandatory instruction sign - red background/white inscription; denotes an entrance to a runway, a critical area, or a prohibited area
b. Location sign - black background/yellow inscription/yellow border; do not have arrows; used to identify a taxiway or runway location, the boundary of the runway, or identify an ILS critical area
c. Direction sign - yellow background/black inscription; identifies the designation of the intersecting taxiway(s) leading out of an intersection that a pilot would expect to run onto or hold short of
d. Destination sign - yellow background/black inscription and also contain arrows; provides information on locating runways, terminals, cargo areas, and civil aviation areas
e. Information sign - yellow background/black inscription; used to provide the pilot with information on areas that can’t be seen from the control tower, applicable radio frequencies, and noise abatement procedures
f. Runway distance remaining sign - black background/white numeral inscription; indicates the distance of the remaining runway in thousands of feet

184
Q

What color are runway markings? Taxiway markings?

A

Markings for runways are white. Markings for taxiways, areas not intended for use by aircraft (closed and hazardous areas), and holding positions (even if they are on a runway) are yellow.

185
Q

What airport marking aids will be used to indicate the following?

A

Runway threshold markings - These come in two configurations. They either consist of eight longitudinal stripes of uniform dimensions disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline, or the number of stripes is related to the runway width. A threshold marking helps identify the beginning of the runway available for landing

Displaced threshold - A threshold located at a point on the runway other than the designated beginning of the runway. A displaced threshold reduces the length of runway available for landings. The portion of runway behind a displaced threshold is available for takeoffs in either direction. A ten foot wide white placed threshold. White arrows are located and displaced threshold. White arrowheads are located across the width of the runway just prior to the threshold bar.

Runway hold position markings - For taxiways, these markings indicate where an aircraft is supposed to stop when it does not have clearance to proceed onto the runway. They are also installed on runways only if the runway is normally used by air traffic control for land, hold short operations. They consist of four yellow lines, two solid and two dashed, spaced six inches apart and extending across the width of the taxiway or runway.

Temporarily closed runways and taxiways - provides a visual indication to pilots that a runway/taxiway is temporarily closed. Yellow crosses are placed on the runway only at each end of the runway. Closed taxiways are blocked with barricades or may utilize a yellow cross at the entrance to the taxiway.

Permanently closed runways and taxiways - For runways and taxiways which are permanently closed, the lighting circuits will be disconnected. The runway threshold, runway designation, and touchdown markings are obliterated and yellow crosses are placed at each end of the runway and at 1000 foot intervals.

186
Q

What are the different methods a pilot may use to determine the proper runway and traffic pattern in use at an airport without an operating control tower?

A

a. At an airport with a full time or part time UNICOM station in operation, an advisory may be obtained which will usually include wind direction and velocity, favored or designated runway, right or left traffic, altimeter setting, known traffic, NOTAMs
b. Many airports are now providing completely automated weather, radio check capability and airport advisory information on an automated UNICOM system. Availability of the automated UNICOM will be published in the chart supplement U.S. and approach charts
c. At those airports where these services are not available, a segmented circle visual indicator system, if installed, is designated to provide traffic pattern information. The segmented circle system consists of the following components:
The segmented circle
The wind direction indicator (wind sock, cone, or tee)
The landing direction indicator (a tetrahedron)
Landing strip indicators
Traffic pattern indicators

187
Q

What is the standard direction of turns when approaching an uncontrolled airport for landing?

A

When approaching for landing, all turns must be made to the left unless a traffic pattern indicator indicates that turns should be made to the right.

188
Q

What is considered standard for traffic pattern altitude?

A

Unless otherwise established, 1000 feet AGL is the recommended traffic pattern altitude. At most airports and military air bases, traffic pattern altitudes for propeller driven aircraft generally extend from 600 feet to as high as 1500 feet AGL. Also, traffic pattern altitudes for military turbojet aircraft sometimes extend up to 2500 feet AGL

189
Q

What recommended entry and departure procedures should be used at airports without an operating control tower?

A

A pilot should plan to enter the traffic pattern in level flight, abeam the midpoint of the runway at pattern altitude. When departing a traffic pattern, continue straight out, or exit with a 45 degree turn (to the left when in a left hand traffic pattern; to the right when in a right hand traffic pattern) beyond the departure end of the runway, after reaching pattern altitude.

190
Q

If in doubt about the traffic pattern altitude for a particular airport, what publication can provide this information?

A

The chart supplement U.S.

191
Q

What is an ARTCC and what useful service can it provide to VFR flights?

A

An air route traffic control center is a facility established to provide air traffic control service primarily to aircraft operating on IFR flight plans within controlled airspace and principally during the en route phase of flight. Air route surveillance radar allows them the capability to detect and display an aircraft’s position while en route between terminal areas. When equipment capabilities and controller workload permit, certain advisory/assistance service may be provided to VFR aircraft (VFR flight following). Frequencies may be obtained from FSS or the chart supplement U.S. Also, IFR enroute charts have ARTCC sector frequencies depicted. If departing from an airport with a control tower, you can request the appropriate frequency from them.

192
Q

What are the following transponder codes?

A

1200 - VFR operations
7500 - Hijack
7600 - Communications failure
7700 - Emergency

193
Q

When conducting flight operations into an airport with an operating control tower, when should initial contact be established?

A

When operating at an airport where traffic control is being exercised by a control tower, pilots are required to maintain two way radio contact with the tower while operating within Class B, C, and D surface areas, unless the tower authorizes otherwise. Initial call up should be made about 15 miles from the airport. Also, not all airports with an operating control tower will have Class D airspace. These airports do not have weather reporting, which is a requirement for surface based controlled airspace. Pilots are expected to use good operating practices and communicate with the control tower.

194
Q

What communication procedures are recommended when departing a Class D airspace area?

A

Unless there is good reason to leave the tower frequency before exiting the Class B, C, and D, surface areas, it is good operating practice to remain on the tower frequency for the purpose of receiving traffic information. In the interest of reducing tower frequency congestion, pilots are reminded that it is not necessary to request permission to leave the tower frequency once outside of Class B, C, and D surface areas.

195
Q

How do you convert from standard time to coordinated universal time?

A
You should take the local time (converted to military time) and add the time differential to convert to UTC. 
Eastern Standard Time - add 5 hours
Central Standard Time - add 6 hours
Mountain Standard Time - add 7 hours
Pacific Standard Time - add 8 hours
Alaska Standard TIme - add 9 hours
Hawaii Standard Time - add 10 hours
196
Q

Arrange the radio facilities listed below in the order they would be used when operating into or out of a tower controlled airport within Class B, C, or D airspace

A

Arriving aircraft - ATIS, approach control, control tower, ground control
Departing aircraft - ATIS, clearance delivery (if required for the surrounding airspace, ground control, control tower, departure control

197
Q

What are NOTAMs?

A

A notice to airmen is a notice filed with an aviation authority to alert aircraft pilots of potential hazards along a flight route or at a location that could affect the safety of the flight.

198
Q

What are the five categories of NOTAMs?

A

a. NOTAMs - Information that requires wide dissemination via telecommunication and pertains to en route navigational aids, civil public use airports listed in the AFD, facilities, services, and procedures
b. FDC NOTAMs - Flight information that is regulatory in nature including, but not limited to, changes to IFR charts, procedures, and airspace usage
c. POINTER NOTAMs - issued by a flight service station to highlight or point out another NOTAM; such as an FDC NOTAM. These NOTAMs assist users in cross referencing important information that may not be found under an airport or NAVAID identifier
d. SAA NOTAMs - are issued when special activity airspac will be active outside the published schedule times and when required by the published schedule.
e. MILITARY NOTAMS - pertain to U.S. Air Force, Army, Marine, and Navy navigational aids/airports that are part of the NAS.

199
Q

All NOTAMS will have keywords contained within the first part of the text. What are several examples of these keywords?

A

RWY, TWY, RAMP, APRON, AD, OBST, NAV, COM, SVC, AIRSPACE, U unverified, O other

200
Q

What is a TFR?

A

A Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR) is a type of Notices to Airmen (NOTAM). A TFR defines an area restricted to air travel due to a hazardous condition, a special event, or a general warning for the entire FAA airspace. The text of the actual TFR contains the fine points of the restriction.

201
Q

Where can NOTAM information be obtained?

A

a. Flight service station
b. Notice to airmen publication - printed NOTAMs
c. DUATs vendors
d. Internet website
e. Broadcast flight information services

202
Q

When are VFR flight plans required to be filled?

A

No (with one exception). Unlike, IFR flight plans, VFR flight plans are not usually required, but they’re highly recommended. Remember VFR flight plans help emergency workers find you if you crash. If you never file and open a VFR flight plan, no one will look for you.

203
Q

What is a DVFR flight plan?

A

DVFR flight plan (defense visual flight rules flight plan)
A flight plan filed for a VFR (visual flight rules) aircraft that intends to operate in airspace within which the ready identification, location, and control of aircraft are required in the interest of national security.

204
Q

When you land at an airport with an ATC tower in operation will the tower automatically close your flight plan?

A

do not assume that the control tower will automatically close your flight plan for you because ATC does not always know whether a particular VFR aircraft is on a flight plan

205
Q

If your flight is behind schedule, and you do not report the delay, or you forget to close your flight plan, how much time form ETA does the FSS allow before search and rescue efforts are begun?

A

one half hour

206
Q

What is wake turbulence?

A

Wake turbulence is a disturbance in the atmosphere that forms behind an aircraft as it passes through the air.

207
Q

Where are wake turbulence and wingtip vortices likely to occur?

A

All aircraft generate turbulence and associated wingtip vortices. In general, avoid the area behind and below the generating aircraft, especially at low altitudes. Also of concern is the weight, speed, and shape of the wing of the generating aircraft. The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow.

208
Q

What operation procedures should be followed when wake vortices are suspected to exist?

A

a. Landing behind a larger aircraft on the same runway - stay ato or above the larger aircraft final approach flight path. Note its touchdown point and land beyond it.
b. Landing behind a larger aircraft, when parallel runway is closer than 2500 feet - consider possible drift to your runway. Stay at or above the larger aircraft final approach flight path, and note its touchdown point.
c. Landing behind a larger aircraft, crossing runway - Cross above the larger aircraft’s flight path.
d. Landing behind a departing larger aircraft on the same runway - Note the larger aircraft’s rotation point, and land well prior to rotation point
e. Landing behind a departing larger aircraft, crossing runway - Note the larger aircraft’s rotation point. If past the intersection, continue the approach, and land prior to the intersection. If larger aircraft rotates prior to the intersection, avoid flight below the larger aircraft’s flightpath. Abandon the approach unless a landing is ensured well before reaching the intersection.
f. Departing behind large aircraft - Note the larger aircraft’s rotation point and rotate prior to the larger aircraft’s rotation point. Continue climbing above the larger aircraft’s climb path until turning clear of the larger aircraft’s wake. Avoid subsequent headings that will cross below and behind a larger aircraft.
g. Intersection takeoffs, same runway - Be alert to adjacent larger aircraft operations, especially of your runway. If intersection takeoff clearance is received, avoid subsequent heading which will cross below a larger aircrat’s path.
h. Departing or landing after a larger aircraft executing a low approach, missed approach or touch and go landing - Vortices settle and move laterally near the ground. Because of this, the vortex hazard may exist along the runway and in your flight path after a larger aircraft has executed a low approach, missed approach or a touch and go landing, particularly in light quartering wind conditions. You should ensure that an interval of at least 2 minutes has elapsed before your takeoff or landing
i. En route VFR (thousand foot altitude plus 500 feet) - Avoid flight below and behind a large aircraft’s path. If a larger aircraft is observed above or on the same track (meeting or overtaking) adjust your position laterally, preferably upwind.

209
Q

What are several examples of illusions that may lead to landing errors?

A

Runway width illusion - A narrower than usual runway can create the illusion that the aircraft is a higher altitude than it actually is. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a lower approach, with the risk of striking objects along the approach path or landing short. A wider than usual runway can have the opposite effect, with the risk of leveling out high and landing hard or overshooting the runway.
Runway and terrain slopes illusion - An upsloping runway, upsloping terrain, or both, can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a lower approach. A downsloping runway, downsloping approach terrain, or both, can have the opposite effect.
Featureless terrain illusion - An absence of ground features, as when landing over water, darkened areas, and terrain made featureless by snow, can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a lower approach.
Atmospheric illusions - Rain on the windscreen can create the illusion of greater height, and atmospheric haze can create the illusion of being at a greater distance from the runway. The pilot who does not recognize these illusions will fly a lower approach.

210
Q

The acronym LAHSO refers to what specific air traffic control procedure?

A

LAHSO is an acronym for land and hold short operations. At controlled airports, ATC may clear a pilot to land and hold short of an intersection runway, an intersection taxiway, or some other designated point on a runway. Pilots may accept such a clearance provided that the pilot in command determines the aircraft can safely land and stop within the available landing distance. Student pilots or pilots not familiar with LAHSO should not participate in the program. Pilots are expected to decline a LAHSO clearance is they determine it will compromise safety or if weather is below basic VFR conditions.

211
Q

Where can available landing distance (ALD) data be found?

A

Special notices in the chart supplement and U.S. terminal procedures publication

212
Q

Discuss recommended collision avoidance procedures and considerations in the following situations.

A

a. Before takeoff - Prior to taxiing onto a runway for landing area in preparation for takeoff, pilots should scan the approach area for possible landing traffic, executing appropriate maneuvers to provide a clear view of the approach areas
b. Climb and descents - During climbs and descents in flight conditions that permit visual detection of other traffic, pilots should execute gentle banks left and right at a frequency that allows continuous visual scanning of the airspace.
c. Straight and level - During sustained periods of straight and level flight, a pilot should execute appropriate clearing procedures at periodic intervals.
d. Traffic patterns - Entries into traffic patterns while descending should be avoided.
e. Traffic at VOR sites - due to converging traffic, sustained vigilance should be maintained in the vicinity or VORs and intersections
f. Training operations - Vigilance should be maintained and clearing turns should be made prior to a practice maneuver. During instruction, the pilot should be asked to verbalize the clearing procedures (call out clear left, right, above, and below). High wing and low wing aircraft have their respective blind spots. High wing aircraft should momentarily raise the wing in the direction of the intended turn and look for traffic prior to commencing the turn. Low wing aircraft should momentarily lower the wing.

213
Q

Where should you look for drones in your area?

A

Unmanned aircraft systems (UAS, also called drones) cannot operate in controlled airspace without obtaining a waiver from the FAA. However, it is possible I might see drones in my area. Drones must fly below 400 feet AGL, can only operate in daylight hours, and must stay clear of clouds.

214
Q

What are three major areas that contribute to runway incursions?

A

a. Communications - misunderstanding the given clearance; failure to communicate effectively
b. Airport knowledge - failure to navigate the airport correctly; unable to interpret airport signage
c. Cockpit procedures for maintaining orientation - failure to maintain situational awareness

215
Q

Preflight planning for taxi operations should be an integral part of the pilot’s flight planning process. What information should this include?

A

a. Review and understand airport signage, markings and lighting
b. Review the airport diagram, planned taxi route, and identify any hot spots
c. Review the latest airfield NOTAMs and ATIS for taxiway/runway closures, construction activity
d. Conduct a pre taxi/pre landing briefing that includes the expected/assigned taxi route and any hold short lines and restrictions based on ATIS information or previous experience at the airport
e. Plan for critical times and locations on the taxi route
f. Plan to complete as many aircraft checklist items as possible prior to taxi

216
Q

What is an airport hot spot?

A

A hot spot is a runway safety related problem area or intersection on an airport.

217
Q

Why is use of sterile cockpit procedures important when conduction taxi operations?

A

Pilots must be able to focus on their duties without being distracted by non flight related matters unrelated to the safe and proper operation of the aircraft.

218
Q

When should a pilot request progressive taxi instructions?

A

If the pilot is unfamiliar with the airport or for any reason confusion exists as to the correct taxi routing, a request may be made for progressive taxi instructions, which include step by step routing directions.

219
Q

After completing your pre taxi/pre landing briefing of the taxi route you expect to receive, ATC calls and gives you a different route. What potential pitfall is common in this situation?

A

A common pitfall of pre taxi and pre landing planning is setting expectations and then receiving different instructions from ATC.

220
Q

Why is it a good idea to write down taxi instructions, especially at larger or unfamiliar airports?

A

It helps pilots not forget the instruction.

221
Q

When issued taxi instructions to an assigned takeoff runway, are you automatically authorized to cross any runway that intersects your taxi route?

A

no

222
Q

When receiving taxi instructions from a controller, pilots should always read back what information?

A

a. The runway assignment
b. Any clearance to enter a specific runway
c. Any instruction to hold short of a specific runway or line up and wait

223
Q

What are some recommended practices that can assist a pilot in maintaining situational awareness during taxi operations?

A

a. A current airport diagram should be available for immediate reference during taxi
b. Monitor ATC instructions/clearances issued to other aircraft for the big picture
c. Focus attention outside the cockpit while taxiing
d. Use all available resources to keep the aircraft on its assigned taxi route
e. Cross reference heading indicator to ensure turns are being made in the correct direction and that you’re on the assigned taxi route
f. Prior to crossing any hold short line, visually check for conflicting traffic; verbalize clear left, clear right
g. Be alert for other aircraft with similar call signs on the frequency
h. Understand and follow all ATC instructions and if in doubt - ask

224
Q

How can a pilot use aircraft exterior lighting to enhance situational awareness and safety during airport surface operations?

A

To the extent possible and consistent with aircraft equipment, operating limitations, and pilot procedures, pilots should illuminate exterior lights as follows:

a. Engines running - Turn on the rotating beacon whenever an engine is running
b. Taxiing - Prior to commencing taxi, turn on navigation/position lights and anti collision lights
c. Crossing a runway - All exterior lights should be illuminated when crossing a runway
d. Entering the departure runway for takeoff - All exterior lights (except landing lights) should be on to make your aircraft more conspicuous to aircraft on final and ATC
e. Cleared for takeoff - All exteriors lights, including takeoff/landing lights should be on

225
Q

During calm or nearly calm wind conditions, at an airport without an operating control tower, a pilot should be aware of what potentially hazardous situations?

A

Aircraft may be landing and/or taking off on more than one runway at the airport. Also, aircraft may be using an instrument approach procedure to runways other than the runway in sue for VFR operations. The instrument approach runway may intersect the VFR runway. It is also possible that an instrument arrival may be made to the opposite end of the runway from which a takeoff is being made.

226
Q

You have just landed at a tower controlled airport and missed your assigned taxiway for exiting the runway. Is it permissible for you to turn around on the runway and return to the exit taxiway?

A

No not without ATC approval

227
Q

When taxiing at a non towered airport, what are several precautionary measures you should take prior to entering or crossing a runway?

A

Listen on the appropriate frequency (CTAF) for inbound aircraft information and always scan the full length of the runway, including the final approach and departure paths, before entering or crossing the runway. Self announce your position and intentions and remember that not all aircraft are radio equipped.

228
Q

ATC has instructed you to line up and wait on the departure runway due to crossing traffic on an intersecting taxiway. What is considered a reasonable amount of time to wait for a takeoff clearance before calling ATC

A

more than 90 seconds

229
Q

What are several actions you can take to enhance aircraft security?

A

a. Always lock your aircraft
b. Keep track of door/ignition keys and don’t leave keys in unattended aircraft
c. Use secondary locks or aircraft disabler if available
d. Lock hanger when unattended

230
Q

What type of airport security procedures should you review regularly to prevent unauthorized access to aircraft at your airport?

A

a. Limitations on ramp access to people other than instructors and students
b. Standard for securing aircraft on the ramp
c. Securing access to aircraft keys at all times
d. New auxiliary security items for aircraft
e. After hours or weekend access procedures

231
Q

Give some examples of what you would consider suspicious activity at an airport.

A

a. Aircraft with unusual modifications or activity
b. Unfamiliar persons loitering for extended periods in the vicinity of parker aircraft
c. Anyone making threats
d. Events or circumstances that do not fit the pattern of lawful, normal activity at an airport
e. Pilots appearing to be under the control of others

232
Q

When witnessing suspicious or criminal activity, what are three basic ways for reporting the suspected activity?

A

If you determine that it’s safe, question the individual. If their response is unsatisfactory and they continue to act suspiciously:

a. Alert airport or FBO management
b. Contact local law enforcement if the activity poses an immediate threat to persons or property
c. Contact the 866-GA-SECURE hotline to document the reported event

233
Q

What is the purpose of the 866-GA-SECURE phone number?

A

TSA controls it and it is for security

234
Q

What are several sources of information available to pilots interested in additional guidance on aviation security?

A

It is a set of federally endorsed guidelines that offers an extensive list of options, ideas, and suggestions for the airport operator, sponsor, tenant and or user to choose from when considering security enhancements for GA facilities.