Quiz Questions HR Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 12Cs for team building?

A
  1. Clear expectations
  2. Context
  3. commitment
  4. competence
  5. charter
  6. control
  7. Collaboration
  8. communication
  9. creative innovation
  10. consequences
  11. coordination
  12. Cultural Change
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2
Q

David Pink defines motivation as “the desire to do things because they matter”. However, three elements must exist for intrinsic motivation to occur. What are they?

A
  1. Autonomy
  2. Mastery
  3. Purpose
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3
Q

Define the CRAFT formula for compliance.

A

C=R+A+FT

C=compliance standards of care

R=Recommendation

A=Acceptance

FT=Follow Through

The formula shows that veterinarians control three out of the four components of compliance.

Vet set the C, vet make the R, the clients responsibility is the A and staff provide the FT

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4
Q

Whether an individual is classified as an employee or an independent contractor is an important factor in determining the responsibilities of your practice under a variety of acts and regulations, and one of those is the Fair Labor and Standards Act. One test the FLSA may use in determining an employee from an independent contractor is called the Economic-Realities Test. The Economic Realities Test turns on whether the individual is economically dependent on the business for which it renders service.

What six factors are generally considered by the courts in applying the Economic-Realities Test under the FLSA?

A

The degree of control exercised by the practice over the individual’s work performance.
The extent of the relative investments by the practice and the individual in equipment and supplies used.
The individual’s opportunity for profit and loss through managerial skill.
The skill and initiative required by the work. Lower skill requirements weigh toward employee status.
The permanence of the relationship.
The extent to which the worker’s services are an integral part of the practice.

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5
Q

Emotional intelligence is often described by five levels of competence in which to focus personal improvement. What are those five levels?

A
Self-awareness
Regulation
Motivation
Empathy
Social skills
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6
Q

Veterinary staff ratio, veterinary production, team member production, and staff payroll percentage are 4 of the key factors involved in considering when to hire, what is the 5th key factor?

A. Percent of gross profit increase per quarter.
B. Liabilities as a percent of gross.
C. Apiary footage of building per DVM
D. Hospital work flow

A

D. Hospital work flow

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7
Q

_______refers to the degree to which the test actually measures what it claims to measure.
A.validity
B.Tenability
C.Reliability

A

A.Validity

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8
Q

A pre-adverse action letter should be used when?
A.When considering not hiring a candidate due to details revealed in a pre-employment background check.

B. To advise a candidate they will not be hired due to details revealed in the pre-employment background check.

C. To request further detail/clarification on the candidate from the background investigation company when considering not hiring a candidate due to details on the initial background check.

A

A. When considering not hiring a candidate due to details revealed in a pre-employment background check.

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9
Q

When it comes to enhancing employee productivity, which of the below answers is NOT one of the suggestions?
A. Engage and Empower.

B. Personal Focus

C. Accountability and Acceptance

D. Performance Standards

A

C. Accountability and Acceptance

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10
Q

When it comes to Individual development plans; what are the three main details that should be addressed?
A. Coaching, training, accountability
B. Coaching, training, career development
C.development, training, career management

A

C. Development, training, career management

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11
Q
On-board with EASE stands for Encourage, Align, Solve, and\_\_\_\_
A. Elevate
B. End
C.Endorse
D.Embrace
A

B. End

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12
Q

A doctor is using 2 exam rooms simultaneously for appointments, what type of scheduling is this considered?
A. Ten Minute Flex
B. High Density
C.Concurrent

A

B.High Density

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13
Q

Regarding the practice client schedule;what is the definition of an emergency?
A. Where no doctor is immediately available and one must be pulled from another client.
B. When the patient is triaged and determined to take priority over other patients.
C. Where the client arrives without an appointment for a legitimate patient concern.

A

A. Where no doctor is immediately available and one must be pulled from another client.

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14
Q

What are the federal retention laws for applicant documents such as resumes and employment applications?

A

One year from filling the position, unless you suspect applicant is over 40 years of age, then it is recommended to keep records 2 years.

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15
Q

List the four elements necessary to hold working interviews.

A

Must be on payroll

Must be eligible to work in U.S.

Must be paid at least minimum wage.

Must be covered under workers compensation

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16
Q

FIT is how a candidate will complement the culture, and POTENTIAL is the measure of growth the new hire would be expected to experience. Define IMPACT

A

IMPACT-is the measure of results the candidate has achieved in the past and is likely to achieve in the future.

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17
Q

As it relates to interviewing candidates, what are the benefits of the use of a rating scale?

A

A rating scale can help helpful when hiring because it is challenging to compare candidates equally and consistently, especially if there are multiple members of the management team interviewing candidates for the same position.

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18
Q

Information revealed in the background checks can be helpful with hiring decisions and should be conducted on all candidates who make it to the final hiring pool to choose from. True or False

A

False- background checks should only be made after a contingent employment offer has been made.

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19
Q

What is a reasonable budget to spend on training annually?

A

1-2%

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20
Q

New employees must have immediate knowledge of what 5 safety details?

A
Location of the first aid kit, eye wash station
Location of PPE
Location of all mandatory posters
Location of the hospital safety manual
Copies of all application OSHA
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21
Q

List the 3 common reasons a staff member leaves a practice

A

Lack of positive feedback

Lack of training

Failure of management to include them in the larger strategic vision of the practice

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22
Q

Name 4 elements of enhancing employee productivity.

A
Shares Purpose
Tools to do the job
Standard operating procedures 
Performance standards
Engage and empower
Recognize and reward
Physical fitness
Personal focus
Team focus
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23
Q

The___and___of the practice help define the core competencies that should be expected of employees.

A

Mission and Values

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24
Q

Why are core competencies important in staff development?

A

Because they can be tiered to beginner, intermediate and expert and because they can be considered in terms of reward based compensation.

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25
Q

Name at least 4 of the 10 elements that should be considered in virtual team training.

A
Put your training on a diet
Gain attention from the start
Establish relevance
Present I formation with a twist
Ask compelling questions
Conduct realistic demonstration 
Provoke discussion
Employ interactive activities 
End with a bang
Prepare prepare prepare
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26
Q

In the 70/20/10 learning and development model; define the element involved.

A

70% of learning within an organization should come from on the job training g

20% from coaching and mentoring

10% courses, Lea tires and formal training

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27
Q

An effective appointment system should have what two goals?

A

To eliminate client wait time

To maximize the efficiency of the doctors, the support staff and the facility by minimizing downtime between clients or patients.

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28
Q

In the example of dense scheduling in practice made perfect list the breakdown of the three 5 min sections for a 15 min annual wellness appointment.

A

The first 5 min is the technician check I period for patient history and vitals.

The doctor is present for the next five min to perform physical exam, answer questions

In the remaining five min the technician and/or doctor may collect lab samples, fill prescriptions or vaccinate

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29
Q

What are three ways to try to avoid appointment problems with clients?

A

Appointment cards should always be given when appointments are made in the clinic

Proper hospital protocols that prepare the team for I expected appointment challenges

Advance reminders within 24 hours of the appointment

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30
Q

Name five of the nine details to consider regarding appointment scheduling criteria making appointment schedules.

A

The number of doctors available during any particular period.

The relative efficiency of the doctor

The time allotted to each appointment

The number of patients presented by each client

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31
Q

The___is responsible for the efficiency, function and flow of the practice

A

Manager

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32
Q

What does SMART stand for

A

Specific-define the task

Measurable-how is the task going to be measured in terms of progress and completion

Agreed- both parties agree on the importance of the task and how the results will be achieved.

Realistic-the task being delegated and the goals being sought are realistic with the time constraints that are in place.

Time bound- how and when will the results be expected

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33
Q

In regards to identifying your practices “trade area”, there are two common calculations: Radius Rings, and Drive Times. Which calculation is considered the best?

A

Drive times

Using drive times to estimate the potential trade area’s boundary takes into account factors that the radius ring does not.

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34
Q

True or False- staff meetings are a good way to create team bonding and introduce new policies or products, but they rarely show a financial return on investment.

A

False- well done staff meetings raise practice benchmarks, thereby providing for total quality management, increase profits and improved compliance with staff recommendations and client acceptance.

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35
Q

What are some ways to engage team members at a staff meeting? Multiple choice)

A

Publicly praise work well done and celebrate successes

Do not allow meetings to turn into gripe sessions

Share important information, changes and progress towards goals so that people want to be at the meeting and not miss out on the announcements

Learning games or ice breaker exercises

36
Q

Training meetings should be 20-40 minutes long for attendance to remain engaged

A

False

37
Q

Employee performance reviews should include (multiple choice)

A. Conversations about wage and compensation structure.

B clarity about goals and direction

C addressing team member accomplishments

D address concerns over policy and procedures

A

B,C, D

38
Q

One potential employee performance review pitfall is ____

A management pre-conceives ideas or expectations

B measuring the trivial

C. Not giving the employee all the time they need to discuss their concerns.

A

B. Measuring the trivial

39
Q

Which element below is Not included in the ABCDEFFormula?

A accountability
B. Decision confirmed
C. Consequences

A

A. Accountability

40
Q

Avoidance of the other person, personal attacks, hurtful gossip, barbed humor and lack of cooperation are all potential symptoms of what dynamic within your practice?

A. Vague guidelines/policies regarding conflict resolution.

B. Symptoms of conflict within the practice

C. Lack of accountability and leadership

A

B. Symptoms of conflict within the practice

41
Q

What are the top 3 that cause conflict in the workplace environment?

A. Gossip, lack of training, lack of communication

B. Lack of diversity, lack of training, lack of accountability

C. Lack of communication, lack of training, lack of accountability

A

A

42
Q

After meeting with two team members who are experiencing conflict and you have told them that you have confidence in them to find a solution, how much time do you give before you meet again to hear their solution?

A one week

B one or two days

C by the end of the day

A

B one or two days

43
Q

In what type of employment relationship can an employee only be disciplined or terminated for a sufficient reason( some examples are misconduct, negligence or theft)?

A. Justifies action
B. Just grounds
C just cause

A

C Just cause

44
Q

Do not misrepresent the qualifications or character of a former employee if you have knowledge of that employees propensity for violence, or illegal behavior in order to avoid liability claims of ______.

A. Negligent referral
B. Derelict referral
C adverse referral

A

A. Negligent referral

45
Q

An employment contact that details a specific length of employment is an exception to At Will employment.
True or False

A

True

46
Q

What are five responsibilities in the role of the facilitator in a staff meeting?

A
  1. Start and ending the meeting on time.

2 controlling topics

3 preventing negativity from overcoming the team

4 prioritizing topics

5 tactfully preventing a team member from dominating the meeting

47
Q

It is vital that staff meetings stay on track, and _____can help facilitate this.

A

Agendas

48
Q

List five of the seven ways to engage employees during a staff meeting.

A

1 using visual aids

2 tasteful appropriate humor

  1. Publicly praise work well done and celebrate successes
  2. Do not allow meetings to turn into gripe sessions
  3. Share important information, changes and progress towards goals so that people want to be at the meeting and not miss out on the announcements
  4. Request/require team members to present topics
  5. Learning games or I’ve breaker excercises
49
Q

What details should be included in meeting minutes?

A
  1. Record decisions and assignments
  2. Designate responsible parties
  3. Record the deadline agreed upon during the meeting
  4. Who was present
  5. What topics, if any will be revisited at the next meeting
50
Q

What is the best way to end a staff meeting

A

On a positive note

51
Q

Employee performance reviews should be developed from the________

A

Job description

52
Q

What renders an employee performance review useless?

A

Lack of clear performance expectations in the job description because without them team members cannot be held accountable

53
Q

List four of the six elements that should be included in an employee performance review.

A
  1. Conversation about mission, vision and values

2 clarity about goals and direction

  1. Addressing team member accomplishments
  2. Address concerns over policy and procedures
  3. Address potential conflict with team members or management
  4. Address any lapses in standards or judgement
54
Q

What are the three most common types of employee performance reviews?

A

350 Peer Review

Self-review

Job satisfaction Survey

55
Q

What are the four disciplines necessary for an effective employee review?

A

Hold all employees accountable for their local performance outcomes.

Teach all employees to identify, deploy and develop their strengths.

Align all performance appraisals and review systems around identifying deploying and developing strengths.

Design and build each role to create world class performers in the role.

56
Q

The most successful employee performance review program typically combine what four elements?

A

Regular informal feedback from supervisors.

Performance goals that are set by the employee and the supervisor.

Action plans to address performance or disciplinary problems.

Formal reviews that document the “Big Picture”.

57
Q

List five of the nine potential pitfalls regarding employee reviews.

A

Spending more time on performance review than performance planning. More time should be spent preventing performance problems.

Be careful comparing employees

Forgetting the review is about performance and not blame.

Stopping reviews when pay is no longer tied to the review.

58
Q

A practice without conflict indicate what type of practice dynamic, and what are potential negative side effects of those dynamics?

A

Staff members may be afraid to speak up. The practice culture is one where team members are trained to do what they are told. The team all think so much alike that there is little creative tension to promote innovation or change.

This type of environment can sap the teams enthusiasm and initiative. It can also encourage passive resistance because open conflict and difference of opinions isn’t tolerated.

59
Q

What are the potential risks of delaying a discussion once an issue is known?

A

May result in additional conflict.

Maybe interpreted that management is not interested in the problem

60
Q

WhT is the four step method for successful intervention regarding conflict management?

A

Confront the behavior

Talk it out

Hold team members accountable for solutions

Follow-up and feedback

61
Q

Define At-Will Employment

A

Form of employment in which the employee is serving the employer at the will of both parties. This allows the employer to terminate its employees with or without cause.

62
Q

Define the ideal witness to a termination

A

The same gender, an in a supervisory position, not a direct peer of the employee being terminated.

63
Q

What is the suggested protocol for an employee who is performing poorly due to a short term personal life stressor?

A

They should be advised that it is unsatisfactory, and that if not for these problems, they would be terminated, but will be given the opportunity to improve once the short term problem resolved.

64
Q

Name 4 express exceptions to At-Will employment.

A

Collective bargaining agreement

Specific contracts that indicate a specific length of employment

Dismissals based on race, sex, color, national origin, or religion, prohibited by Title VII of the Civil Rights Act

Dismissal because of pregnancy

Based on age if over 40

Because an employee refuses to work in a workplace they consider unsafe or because they have exercised their rights under OSHA

Due to bankruptcy

Because of service on a federal jury

65
Q

Which plans are a blend of Fee For Service and HMO medical plans, They do not require a visit to a primary care provider prior to visiting a specialist, although they do have a network of preferred providers and it is more costly to go outside that network.

A. Point of service plan

B. Managed care plan

C. Preferred provider organization plan

A

C. preferred provider organization plan

66
Q

Which addition to medical insurance is owned by the employer.

A Health Savings Account

B Flexible Spending Account

A

B. Flexible Spending Account

67
Q

The patient Protection and affordable Care Act requires employers with ___ or more employees to provide group medical insurance or receive a penalty.

A. 20 full time employees

B. 50 full time employees

C. 50 total (part time/full time) employees

A

B 50 full time employees

68
Q

Why are employee medical documents stores separately from their main personnel file?

A. While it is sometimes appropriate or necessary for a direct supervisor to see some personnel records, there is rarely a reason for them to see medical records.

B. The ADa and FMLA require that medical records be stored separately

C. Both A &b

D Neither A or b

A

C. Both A&b

69
Q

Employee Wage Garnishment Orders and Credit Report are to be filed;

A. With the payroll records

B. With the main employment records

C. Either location is acceptable

D. Neither location is acceptable

A

D. Neither location is acceptable

70
Q

Which entity or entities require employers to keep detailed payroll and benefits data? Access should be limited and ideally stores separately

A. The internal Revwnue code

B. Fair Labor Standards Act

C. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission

D all the above

A

A the internal Revenue Code

B Fair labor standards act

71
Q

At the core of any safety plan or manual is the ___law.

A OSHA Act

B. workplace Safety and Health

C Right to know

A

C Right to know

72
Q

A section on chemotherapy should be included in every veterinary health safety manual regardless of weather the practice performs chemotherapy. True or False

A

A True

73
Q

One way to begin to create an Operations and Procedure Manual is to refer to the ____ of the practice

A job description

B tasks check list

C health safety manual

A

A job description

74
Q

Which plan enables employees to make their medical insurance premium payment before taxes are deducted from their paycheck, and can also mean substantial pretax savings for employers?

A

A. Section 125 plans

75
Q

Regarding evaluating medical insurance plans; name at least four ingredients that should be included when creating a checklist to aid evaluation.

A
  1. Basic type of plan (pop, hmo, pos)

2 details of coverage

  1. Size of the providers and related service and facilities within the network

4 cost to employer, employees, dependents and deductibles and co-pays

  1. Employee eligibility

6 simplicity of administration

76
Q

What common veterinary employee be if it’s does the ITS require be reported as taxable and what percent is the cut off for not reporting it?

A

The employee per health discount policy that discounts services at greater than 20%need to be reported as taxable

77
Q

Name at least five documents that should be in a personnel file.

A

Employment application, resume, interview notes, background checks

Job description

Offer of employment letter

Performance evaluation education and training

Disciplinary documents

Emergency contact

Tax withholding forms
Copy of degree diplomas

Contract agreement

Employee wage

Leave of absence and attendance

78
Q

What one personnel file document should be stored away in a separate file or other similar documents?

A

A. I-9

79
Q

Name at least four documents that might be found in an employee medical personnel file.

A
  1. Health and life insurance forms
  2. Physician notes, return to work notice, limited duties notice or accommodations.
  3. Insurance or workers compensation claims.
  4. Physical exam results
  5. Family and Medical Leave Act documentation
80
Q

What elements of a job description can help you avoid hiring someone who is unable to perform essential duties of the position?

A

A. listing what is considered an impediment to satisfactory performance such as being afraid of aggressive pets.

81
Q

What specifics should be included in the accountability section of a job description?

A

A. Where does this position reside in the hierarchy of the practice?

B. Who do they report to?

C. Who evaluates their performance?

D. How much authority does this position have?

82
Q

Job descriptions are required by federal law- True or False?

A

A. False

83
Q

How often should job descriptions be evaluated for accuracy, and what changes to the practice might indicate an update is necessary?

A

A. Job descriptions should be evaluated for accuracy annually(more often in the case of staff reduction or growth).

84
Q

What three purposes do hospital manuals serve?

A

A reference tool for standard of care and practice guidelines.

Training and instructional tool.

They define a standard to which employees can be held accountable to reach

85
Q

Which of the ten subjects below is not considered a common element in an employee manual?

A

An Organizational Chart showing the proper hierarchy of the practice.

86
Q

Explain the difference between the Hospital Operations and Procedure Manual and the Employee Policies, Procedures and Guidelines Manual.

A

A Hospital Operations and Procedure Manual is a comprehensive text that details every aspect of specifically how you want work to be done. An Employee Policies, Procedures, and Guidelines Manual details clarity and purpose to the practice mission and values and also details expectations, compensation & benefits, legal disclaimers and other details surrounding employee specific policy and procedures.

87
Q

Where is it recommended to keep the Hospital Safety Manual?

A

A certain location