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gyna > mcq part 2 > Flashcards

mcq part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Lacerations after labor which involve the perineal fascia and muscles, both external and internal anal sphincters and the anal epithelium are……degree of perineal rupture:

A

third
First
Second
Fourth

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2
Q

An 18-year-old adolescent female undergoes laparoscopy for an acute abdomen.
Erythematous fallopian tubes are noted and a diagnosis of PD is made. Cultures of the pure drainage would most likely reveal which of the following?

A

D.A. Multiple organisms
D.B. Chlamydia trachomatis
D.C. Peptostreptococcus species
D.D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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3
Q

Variable decelerations during labor are caused by:

A

A. Placental abruption
B. Placental insufficiency
C. Cord compression
D. Head compression

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4
Q

The first stage of labor is said to be completed

A

A. When the membranes rupture
B. When active phase of labor begins
C. When the cervix fully dilates (10 cm)
D. With the appearance of bearing down efforts

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5
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the role of FSH in menstruation?

A

A. FSH induces theca cell aromatase
B. FSH induces granulosa cell LH receptors within the dominant follicle
C. FSH increases its own receptor numbers on theca cells.
D. FSH stimulates follicular growth only in the early preantral stage.

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6
Q

A 28-year-old G1PO presents in active labor at term. Her history is remarkable only for a LEEP 4.
years prior for HGSIL. The labor was Complicated by complete effacement of the cervix and descent of the vertex at +1 station. However, the cervix did not dilate. A dimple may be noted at the external os.
What is this condition called?

A

Conglutinate cervix

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7
Q

Progress in labor is determined by which of the following:

A

A. Dilation and descent
B. Dilation and intensity of contractions
C. Frequency of contractions
D. Dilation and effacement

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8
Q

A 29-year-old G1P0 at 11 weeks gestation is being seen for her first prenatal visit Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding tests for isoimmunization?

A

A. If the patient is Rh positive an antibody screen does not need to be performed
B. in a patient with a positive antibody screen for Rh antibodies RHOGAM is not needed
C. Antibody screen on paternal blood is important in Rh negative women to determine likelihood of the fetus being affected
D. the antibody screen is positive there is strong likelihood of isoimmunization

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9
Q

A 24-year-old woman underwent a normal vaginal delivery of a term infant female After the delivery, the placenta does not deliver even after 30 minutes Which of the following would be the mod step for this patient?

A

A. Hysterectomy
B. İnitiate oxytocin
C. Attempt a manual extraction of the placenta
D. Wait for an additional 30 minutes

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10
Q

A patient at 17 weeks gestation is diagnosed as having an intrauterine fetal demise. She returns to your office 5 weeks later and her vital signs are: blood pressure 11072 mm Hg, pulse 93 beats per minute, temperature 36.38°C, respiratory rate 16 breaths per minute. She has not had a miscarriage, although she has had some occasional spotting Her cervix is closed on examination. This patient is at increased risk for which of the following?

A 
A. Septic abortion 
    B. Recurrent abortion 
    C. Consumptive coagulopathy with hypofibrinogenemia 
    D. Future infertility 
    E. Ectopic pregnancies
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11
Q

You’re assessing a patient’s chart and find that the patient is 36 weeks pregnant. Where should you find the fundus of the uterus during your assessment of fundal height?

A

A. 4 cm below the xiphoid process
B. At the umbilicus
C. Xiphoid process
D. Pubic symphysis

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12
Q

Complications of multiple pregnancy - which of the following is true?

A

A. Twin pregnancies are at an increased risk of pre-eclampsia.
B. First trimester miscarriage is more common in multiple pregnancy, but late miscarriage
C. Preterm labour is not the main cause of perinatal mortality.
D. In the majority of pregnancies, the presenting twin is breech.

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13
Q

Human placenta is derived from?

A

A. Allantois and Amnion
B. Chorion
C. Amnion
D. Allantois

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14
Q

Engaging diameter in fully flexed vertex presentation is:

A 
ngaging diameter in fully flexed vertex presentation is: 
    A. Suboccipitobregmatic  
    B. Occipitofrontal 
    C. Mento Vertical 
    D. Sub Occipitofrontal
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15
Q

Maternal indication for induction of labor

A

A. Post-term pregnancy
B. Pre-term pregnancy
C. Major degree placenta praevia
D. Major degree of cephalopelvic disproportion

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16
Q

In dysaesthetic vulvodynia

A

A. The pain experienced by the patient is typically neuropathic
B. The standard dosage of amitriptyline is 10 mg/day C. Irritant contact dermatitis of the vulva cannot occur
D. Patients are usually 20–30 years of age.

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17
Q

Most ectopic pregnancies occur where?

A

A. Abdominal cavity
B. Ovary
C. Fallopian tube
D. Cervix

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18
Q

A 19 year-old woman and her boyfriend wish to use condoms as a barrier contraceptive method. This couple should be advised that the most common reason for failure (pregnancy or STD transmission) is which of the following?

A

A. A Leakage caused by spermicidal creams
B. Breakage
C. İnconsistent use
D. Use without concomitant use of a spermicide

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19
Q

A 34-year-old male undergoes vasectomy. Which of the following is the most frequent immediate complication of this procedure?

A

A. Hematoma
B. İmpotence
C. spontaneous reanastomosis
D. Infection

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20
Q

A 20-year-old woman (gravida 1) has just delivered. After expression of the placenta, a red, raw surface is seen at the vaginal introitus. Simultaneously, the nurse states that the patient is pale and her BP is 70/40
mm Hg. External bleeding has been of normal amount. Which of the following would be the most likely diagnosis?

A

A. A Second twin
B. Vaginal rupture
C. Uterine inversion
D. Ruptured uterus

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21
Q

Delivery is not possible per vaginam in

A

A. Persistent mentoposterior position
B. Mentoanterior position
C. Occipitoposterior position
D. Breech with extended legs

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22
Q

In a cephalic presentation, the position is determined by the relationship of what fetal part to the mother’s pelvis?

A 
A. Mentum 
    B. Sacrum  
    C. Acromion 
    D. Occiput  
    E. Sinciput
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23
Q

False contractions are characterized by all except:

A

A. Occur at irregular intervals
B. Cervix dilates
C. Intensity doesn’t change
D. Pain is primarily in the lower abdom

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24
Q

What is the most common type of postoperative infection following an emergency caesarean section?

A

A. Wound infection
B. Urinary tract infection
C. Lower respiratory tract infection
D. Endometritis

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25
Q

An 18-year-old nulliparous woman comes into your office, complaining of a 24-hour history of urinary frequency, urgency, and suprapubic pain. She had intercourse for the first time earlier this week. She is using a diaphragm for birth control. Which of the following statements reflects current knowledge about uncomplicated urinary tract infections?

A

A. In women who have frequent UTis related to coitus infection can be prevented with low-dose postcoital antibiotics
B. In a freshly voided, clean-catch urine specimen leukocyte esterase and nitrites, in combination have a poor test performance in diagnosing UTI
C. Use of a diaphragm helps prevent the development of UTIS
D. Cystitis occurs two times more commonly in men than in women

26
Q

Which hormone we don’t use for management dysfunctional uterine bleeding?

A

A. Methylergometrine
B. Progestin releasing IUCD LNG - IUS
C. 19 NorSteroid derivative
D. Combined estrogens and progestogens

27
Q

With regard to vulval skin diseases:

A

A. In vulvovaginal candidiasis, topical antifungals are less effective than oral preparations
B. Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a fungal condition
C. Hidradenitis suppurativa is a disorder of the eccrine glands
D. Psoriasis affecting the vulva is best managed with tar preparation

28
Q

All are true about breastmilk except:

A

A. There is less protein than in cow’s milk
B. The main carbohydrate is glucose
C. Colostrum contains large quantities of protein
D. There are fewer minerals than in cow’s milk

29
Q

Which is true about the stages of labour

A

A. Third stage of labor lasts 5 hours
B. First stage of labour ends with delivery of the fetus
C. Second stage of labor is divided into latent and active phase
D. Second stage begins with full cervical dilation

30
Q

Eclampsia is characterized by

A

A. Hypertension
B. Albuminuria
C. Seizures
D. Oliguria

31
Q

Question 79 the case scenario, which of the following missing pieces of information is most important before proceeding with forceps delivery

A

A. The position of the fetal head.
B. The estimated fetal weight.
C. The bispinous diameter of the maternal pelvis.
D. Whether there was meconium in the amniotic fluid.

32
Q

A complication of placental abruption IS NOT

A

A. Hemorrhagic shock
B. Consumptive coagulopathy (DIC)
C. Uterine inversion
D. Renal failure

33
Q

Temperature of 38-C or higher on any two of the first 10 days postpartum, exclusive of the first 24 hours is any of the following EXCEPT

A

A. Puerperal pyrexia
B. Normal physiological reaction in puerperium
C. Can be a sign of thrombophlebitis
D. Can be a sign of endometritis

34
Q

MRI can be used during pregnancy in assessing

A

A. Pelvimetry
B. Placenta previa
C. All of the above
D. Central nervous system abnormalities of the fetus

35
Q

In which of the following conditions there is constriction of the pulmonary blood vessels as a result of hypoxia and acidosis?

A

A. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
B. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia ?
C. Persistent pulmonary hypertension
D. Pulmonary hypoplasia

36
Q

Physiological bloodstained uterine discharge that is composed of blood & necrotic decidua is the lochial secret on days:

A

A. 1-3
B. 7-10
C. 4-6
D. After 10th day

37
Q

Which of the following factors is the main reason for the development of physiological jaundice?

A

A. breastfeeding
B. decreased hepatic bilirubin excretion
C. immaturity of the liver enzyme systems
D. increased bilirubin production

38
Q

What is the most sensitive test for detection of Trichomonas vaginalis infection?

A

A. Immunochromatographic capillary flow (dipstick) assay
B. Light-field microscopy
C. Laboratory culture
D. Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)

39
Q

Which is true about the stages of labour

A

A. Third stage of labor lasts 5 hours
B. First stage of labour ends with delivery of the fetus
C. Second stage of labor is divided into latent and active phase
D. Third stage begins with delivery of the infant and ends with placental delivery

40
Q

An 18-year-old adolescent female presents to the emergency department with a 36-hour history of abdominal pain and nausea. Her temperature is 100.5°F (38.05°C). Her abdominal examination reveals tenderness in the right lower quadrant with some mild rebound tenderness. Pelvic examination shows some cervical motion tenderness and adnexal tenderness, and also some right-sided abdominal tenderness. The pregnancy test is negative. In considering the differential diagnosis of appendicitis versus PID, which of the following is the most accurate method of making the diagnosis?
A. Following serial abdominal examinations

A

A. Following serial abdominal examinations
B. Sonography of the pelvis and abdomen
C. Laparoscopy
D. Serum leukocyte count and cell differential

41
Q

When performing a vaginal hysterectomy for any indication, prevention of future enterocele or vaginal vault prolapse is aided by which of the following?

A

A. Closing the vaginal mucosa
B. Reattachment of the round ligaments to the vaginal cuff
C. Complete a purse string suture closure of the cul-de-sac peritoneum
D. Reattachment of the cardinal and uterosacral ligaments to the vaginal cuff

42
Q

Woman with a prior pregnancy complicated by Eclampsia are at at a higher risk in a subsequent pregnancy of which of the following?

A 
A. Placental abruption 
    B. IUGR 
    C. Preterm delivery 
    D. All of the others 
    E. None of the others
43
Q

A 29-year-old G1P0 at 11 weeks’ gestation is being seen for her first prenatal visit. Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding tests for isoimmunization?

A

A. If the antibody screen is positive there is strong likelihood of isoimmunization.
B. In a patient with a positive antibody screen for Rh antibodies, RhoGAM is not needed
C. If the patient is Rh positive, an antibody screen does not need to be performed
D. Antibody screen on paternal blood is important in Rh negative women to determine likelihood of the fetus being affected

44
Q

If there is a missed abortion with long duration, the main danger is:

A

A. A risk of developing sepsis from decaying fetus parts
B. Development of coagulopathy
C. Fibrosis and organization of the chorial parts with subsequent sterility
D. Development of mola hydatidosa

45
Q

Urinary incontinence is a major problem for some women. Which of the following characteristics of the female urethra helps prevent incontinence?

A

A. Its junction with the bladder at the level of the mid trigone
B. Its 15-to 20-cm length
C. Its intrinsic resting tone
D. Its true anatomic sphincter

46
Q

Screening tests for diabetes in pregnancy include everything except

A

A. Performing glycosylated haemoglobin estimations on all women who have had a macrosomic baby >45 kg)
B. Random blood sampling at 28-32 weeks.
C. A 50 g glucose load at booking.
D. A 50 g glucose load at 28 weeks if potential diabetic features pertain
E. Glucose testing of the urine

47
Q

Most ectopic pregnancies occur where?

A

A. Abdominal cavity
B. Ovary
C. Fallopian tube
D. Cervix

48
Q

Emergency contraception can be effective if administered up until how long after intercourse?

A

A. 5 days
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 24 hours

49
Q

When does the development of heart begin?

A

A. 1st week
B. 12th week
C. 3rd week
D. 10th week

50
Q

In case of suspected infection of the newborn the antibiotic of choice is from the group of …?

A

A. aminoglycosides
B. aminopenicillins
C. carbapenems
D. cephalosporins

51
Q

Most common cause of breech presentation is ?

A

A. Prematurity
B. Postmaturity
C. Contracted pelvis
D. Diabetes mellitus

52
Q

Intrapartum CTG finding of late deceleration is:

A

A. Is most commonly due to placental Insufficiency
B. Caused by umbilical cord
C. is not something worrisome
D. Compression of the fetal head mediated by the Vagus

53
Q

The following investigations are not useful in women suspected of having PID?

A

A. Endocervical test for Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Plain abdominal X-ray.
C. Endocervical test for Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
D. Pregnancy test

54
Q

A maternal fetal medicine specialist is consulted and performs an in-depth conogram on a 30-year-old G1 st 28 weeks with a twin gestation.The sonogram indicates that the use o both male and the placenta be diamniotic and monochorionic Twin B is noted to have oligohydramnios and to be much smaller than twin Which of the following would be a finding most associated with twin A?

A 
A. Congestive heart failure 
    B. Anemia 
    C. Hypovolemia  
    D. Hypotension 
    E. Low amniotic fluid level
55
Q

In a cephalic presentation, the position is determined by the relationship of what fetal part to the mother’s pelvis?

A 
A. Mentum  
    B. Sacrum 
    C. Acromion 
    D. Occiput  
    E. Sinciput
56
Q

A 52-year-old patient undergoes a hysterectomy for a rapidly growing uterine mass. At surgery the frozen biopsy is reported as a sarcoma. What is the most common uterine sarcoma?

A

A. leiomyosarcoma
B. Malignant mixed mullerian tumor
C. Endometrial stromal sarcoma
D. Endolymp

57
Q

A 36-year-old woman, G1PO, underwent induction for severe preeclampsia. Her antepartum course was notable for obesity and gestational diabetes She underwent a low forceps delivery for fetal distress of a 4000-g male infant. Which is the main risk factor for a puerperal hematoma?

A

A. Forceps delivery
B. Obesity
C. Large-for-gestational-age infant
D. Chronic hypertension

58
Q

Normal labour is the process by which contractions of the gravid uterus expel the fetus and other products of conception in which gestational week from the last menstrual period

A

A. After 24 weeks
B. After 42 weeks
C. between 37 and 42 weeks
D. Before 37 weeks

59
Q

Which type of contracted pelvis is the following. All diameters are reduced equally by 1-2 cm each

A

A. Generally contracted pelvis
B. Flat
C. Oblique
D. Osteomyelitic pelvis

60
Q

The clinical diagnostic criteria for acute salpingitis are all of following without

A

A. Pain in the anal canal
B. Cervical and uterine motion tenderness
C. Abdominal tenderness
D. Rebound tenderness (+)

gyna (6 decks)

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