105 exam 2012 Flashcards

(51 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning the development of the professional code of conduct, code of ethics and competency standards?

A) They provide regulatory bodies with a basis for evaluation of conduct

B) They were developed to restrict nursing practice

C) They outline minimum standards for nurses to uphold

D)They inform the public of standards of professional conduct

A

Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning the development of the professional code of conduct, code of ethics and competency standards?

A) They provide regulatory bodies with a basis for evaluation of conduct

B) They were developed to restrict nursing practice

C) They outline minimum standards for nurses to uphold

D)They inform the public of standards of professional conduct

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2
Q

The concept of health incorporates all of the following except:
A) Health promotion
B) Environmental context
C) Healthcare system
D) Disease prevention
E) Social context

A

The concept of health incorporates all of the following except:
A) Health promotion
B) Environmental context
C) Healthcare system
D) Disease prevention
E) Social context

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3
Q

3.
Depending on the clinical situation, the nurse may establish one of four kinds of database. An episodic is described as:

A) Including a complete health history and full physical examination
B) Concerning mainly one problem
C) Evaluation of a previously identified problem
D) Rapid collection of data in conjunction with lifesaving measures

P:85

A

3.
Depending on the clinical situation, the nurse may establish one of four kinds of database. An episodic is described as:

A) Including a complete health history and full physical examination
B) Concerning mainly one problem
C) Evaluation of a previously identified problem
D) Rapid collection of data in conjunction with lifesaving measures

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4
Q

4.
Nursing diagnoses, based on assessment of a number of factors, give nurses a common language which to communicate nursing findings. The best description of a nursing diagnosis is that it is;

A) Used to evaluate the etiology of a disease
B) A pattern of coping
C) A concise description of actual or potential health problems or of wellness strengths
D) The patient’s perceptions of and satisfaction with their own health status

Jarvis : 85

A

4.
Nursing diagnoses, based on assessment of a number of factors, give nurses a common language which to communicate nursing findings. The best description of a nursing diagnosis is that it is;

A) Used to evaluate the etiology of a disease
B) A pattern of coping
C) A concise description of actual or potential health problems or of wellness strengths
D) The patient’s perceptions of and satisfaction with their own health status

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5
Q

5.
When becoming culturally safe, knowledge is required in all of the following areas except

A) Your own personal cultural identity
B) The culture of the nursing profession
C) The healthcare system hierarchy
D)The cultural identity of the client as they describe it to you

A

5.
When becoming culturally safe, knowledge is required in all of the following areas except

A) Your own personal cultural identity
B) The culture of the nursing profession
C) The healthcare system hierarchy
D)The cultural identity of the client as they describe it to you

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6
Q

6.
Draw a line to match the following theories of illness (A-C) with the associated definitions (1-3)
A: biomedical
B: Naturalistic
C: Magico-religious

1: The world is seen as an areana in which supernatural forces dominate
2: All events in life have a cause and effect; the human body functions more or less mechanically
3: The belief that human life is only one aspect of nature and is part of the general order of the cosmos

A

6.
Draw a line to match the following theories of illness (A-C) with the associated definitions (1-3)

A 2: biomedical
B 3: Naturalistic
C 1: Magico-religious

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7
Q

7.
Recognizing and accepting the other persons feeling’s without criticism within a communication context is an example of;

A: Empathy
B: Liking others
C: Facilitation
D: A non verbal listening technique

A

7.
Recognizing and accepting the other persons feeling’s without criticism within a communication context is an example of;

A: Empathy
B: Liking others
C: Facilitation
D: A non verbal listening technique

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8
Q

8.
During an interview a good rule to follow is to:
A: stop the patient each time something is said that is not understood
B: Spend more time listening to the patient than talking
C: Consistently think of your next response so the patient will know that you understand them
D: Use ‘why’ questions to seek clarification of unusual symptoms or behavior

A

8.
During an interview a good rule to follow is to:
A: stop the patient each time something is said that is not understood
B: Spend more time listening to the patient than talking
C: Consistently think of your next response so the patient will know that you understand them
D: Use ‘why’ questions to seek clarification of unusual symptoms or behavior

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9
Q

9.
The organs that aid the lymphatic system are:
A: Liver, Lymph nodes and stomach
B: Pancreas, small intestine and thymus
C: Spleen, tonsils and thymus
D: Pancreas, spleen and tonsils

A

9.
The organs that aid the lymphatic system are:
A: Liver, Lymph nodes and stomach
B: Pancreas, small intestine and thymus
C: Spleen, tonsils and thymus
D: Pancreas, spleen and tonsils

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10
Q

10.
The registered nurse wants to assess for arterial deficit in the lower extremities. After raising the legs 30cm off the table then having the person sit up and dangle the leg, the colour should return in:
A: 5 seconds or less
B: 10 seconds or less
C: 15 seconds
D: 30 seconds

Jarvis 187

A

10.
The registered nurse wants to assess for arterial deficit in the lower extremities. After raising the legs 30cm off the table then having the person sit up and dangle the leg, the colour should return in:
A: 5 seconds or less
B: 10 seconds or less
C: 15 seconds
D: 30 seconds

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11
Q

11
The function of the pulmonic valve is to:

A: Divide the left atrium and the left ventricle
B: Guard the opening between the right atrium and right ventricle
C: Protect the orifice between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery
D: Guard the entrance to the aorta from the left ventricle

A

11
The function of the pulmonic valve is to:

A: Divide the left atrium and the left ventricle
B: Guard the opening between the right atrium and right ventricle
C: Protect the orifice between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery
D: Guard the entrance to the aorta from the left ventricle

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12
Q

12
The second heart sound (S2) is the result of:

A: Opening of the mitral and tricuspid valves
B: Closing of the mitral and tricuspid valves
C: Opening of the aortic and pulmonic valves
D: Closing of the aortic and pulmonic valves

A

12
The second heart sound (S2) is the result of:

A: Opening of the mitral and tricuspid valves
B: Closing of the mitral and tricuspid valves
C: Opening of the aortic and pulmonic valves
D: Closing of the aortic and pulmonic valves

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13
Q

13
The frenulum is:

A: The middle fold of tissue that connects the tongue to the lower floor of the mouth
B: The anterior boarder of the oral cavity
C: The arching roof of the mouth
D: The free projection hanging down from the middle of the soft palate

A

13
The frenulum is:

A: The middle fold of tissue that connects the tongue to the lower floor of the mouth
B: The anterior boarder of the oral cavity
C: The arching roof of the mouth
D: The free projection hanging down from the middle of the soft palate

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14
Q

14
In order to differentiate between an acute infection and chronic inflammation, you palpate the lymph nodes. Your findings would reveal which of the following to confirm an acute infection:

A: Nodes are hard, unilateral, non tender and fixed
B: Nodes are bilateral, enlarged, warm, tender and firm but they move freely
C: Nodes are enlarged, firm, non-tender and mobile
D: Nodes are clumped in strings

A

14
In order to differentiate between an acute infection and chronic inflammation, you palpate the lymph nodes. Your findings would reveal which of the following to confirm an acute infection:

A: Nodes are hard, unilateral, non tender and fixed
B: Nodes are bilateral, enlarged, warm, tender and firm but they move freely
C: Nodes are enlarged, firm, non-tender and mobile
D: Nodes are clumped in strings

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15
Q

15
After examining a patient, you make the following notation: Increased respiratory rate, chest expansion decreased on the left side, dull to percussion over left lower lobe, breath sounds louder with fine crackles over left lower lobe,. These are consistent with a diagnosis of:

A: Bronchitis
B: Asthma
C: Plural effusion
D: Lobar pneumonia

Jarvis 316

A

15
After examining a patient, you make the following notation: Increased respiratory rate, chest expansion decreased on the left side, dull to percussion over left lower lobe, breath sounds louder with fine crackles over left lower lobe,. These are consistent with a diagnosis of:

A: Bronchitis
B: Asthma
C: Plural effusion
D: Lobar pneumonia

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16
Q

16
Match column (A-F) to column B (1-6)
A: Normal chest
B: Barrel chest
C: Pectus excavatum
D: Pectus carinatum
E: Scoliosis
F: Kyphosis

1: Anterior > transvers diameter
2: Exaggerated posterior curvature of the thoracic spine
3: Lateral, S shaped curvature of the thoracic and lumbar spine
4: sunken sternum and adjacent cartilages
5: Elliptical shape with anterioposterior : transverse diameter in the ratio of 1:2
6: forward protrusion of the sternum with ribs sloping back at either side

A

16
Match column (A-F) to column B (1-6)
A 5: Normal chest
B 1: Barrel chest
C 4: Pectus excavatum
D 6: Pectus carinatum
E 3: Scoliosis
F 2: Kyphosis

1: Anterior > transvers diameter
2: Exaggerated posterior curvature of the thoracic spine
3: Lateral, S shaped curvature of the thoracic and lumbar spine
4: sunken sternum and adjacent cartilages
5: Elliptical shape with anterioposterior : transverse diameter in the ratio of 1:2
6: forward protrusion of the sternum with ribs sloping back at either side

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17
Q

17
During an assessment of the spine, the patient would be asked to:

A: adduct and extend
B: Suprinate, evert and retract
C: Extend, adduct, invert and rotate
D: Flex, extend, abduct and rotate

A

17
During an assessment of the spine, the patient would be asked to:

A: adduct and extend
B: Suprinate, evert and retract
C: Extend, adduct, invert and rotate
D: Flex, extend, abduct and rotate

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18
Q

18
Anterior and posterior stability is provided to the knee joint by the:

A: medial and lateral menisci
B: Patellar tendon ligament
C: Medial collateral ligament and quadriceps muscle
D: Anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments

A

18
Anterior and posterior stability is provided to the knee joint by the:

A: medial and lateral menisci
B: Patellar tendon ligament
C: Medial collateral ligament and quadriceps muscle
D: Anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments

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19
Q

19
A risk factor for melanoma is:

A: Brown eyes
B: Darkly pigmented skin
C: Skin that freckles or burns before tanning
D: Use of screen products

A

19
A risk factor for melanoma is:

A: Brown eyes
B: Darkly pigmented skin
C: Skin that freckles or burns before tanning
D: Use of screen products

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20
Q

20
The capillary beds should refill after being depressed in:

A: <1 sec
B: >2 sec
C: 1-2 sec
D: Time is not significant a long as colour returns

A

20
The capillary beds should refill after being depressed in:

A: <1 sec
B: >2 sec
C: 1-2 sec
D: Time is not significant a long as colour returns

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21
Q

21
Select the sequence of techniques used during an examination of the abdomen:

A: Percussion, inspection, palpation, auscultation
B: Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
C: Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
D: Auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion

A

21
Select the sequence of techniques used during an examination of the abdomen:

A: Percussion, inspection, palpation, auscultation
B: Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
C: Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
D: Auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion

22
Q

22
Peptic ulcer disease occurs with which of the following (abcd)

  1. Frequent use of non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
  2. Alcohol consumption
  3. Smoking
  4. Helicobactor pyloi infection

A: 1,2 and 4
B: 1,2 and 3
C: None of the above
D: All of the above

A

22
Peptic ulcer disease occurs with which of the following (abcd)
1.Frequent use of non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
2. Alcohol consumption
3. Smoking
4. Helicobactor pyloi infection

A: 1,2 and 4
B: 1,2 and 3
C: None of the above
D: All of the above

23
Q

23
Although a full mental status examination may not be required, the nurse must be aware of the four main headings of the assessment while performing the interview and physical examination. These headings are:

A: Mood, affect, consciousness and orientation
B: Memory, attention, thought content and perceptions
C: Language, orientation, attention and abstract reasoning
D: Appearances, behavior, cognition and thought processes

A

23
Although a full mental status examination may not be required, the nurse must be aware of the four main headings of the assessment while performing the interview and physical examination. These headings are:

A: Mood, affect, consciousness and orientation
B: Memory, attention, thought content and perceptions
C: Language, orientation, attention and abstract reasoning
D: Appearances, behavior, cognition and thought processes

24
Q

A major Characteristic of dementia is:

A: Impairment of short and long term memory

B:Hallucinations

C: Sudden onset of symptoms

D: Substance- induced

A

A major Characteristic of dementia is:

A: Impairment of short and long term memory

B:Hallucinations

C: Sudden onset of symptoms

D: Substance- induced

25
25 The National Stroke Foundation Australia (2010) recommends the FAST test as an easy way to recognise and remember the signs of stroke. What does the acronym FAST stand for? A: Fear, Arms, Stand, Test B: Face, Arms, Speech, Time C: Face, Artery, Stroke, time D: Race, Artery, Slurring, Time
The National Stroke Foundation Australia (2010) recommends the FAST test as an easy way to recognise and remember the signs of stroke. What does the acronym FAST stand for? A: Fear, Arms, Stand, Test **B: Face, Arms, Speech, Time** C: Face, Artery, Stroke, time D: Race, Artery, Slurring, Time
26
26 The medical record indicates that a person has an injury to Broca’s area. When meeting this person you expect: A: Difficulty speaking B: Receptive aphasia C: Visual disturbances D: emotional liability
26 ## Footnote The medical record indicates that a person has an injury to Broca’s area. When meeting this person you expect: **A: Difficulty speaking** B: Receptive aphasia C: Visual disturbances D: emotional liability P630 - 642
27
27 Several changes occur in the eye with the ageing process. The thickening and yellowing of the lens is referred to as: A: Presbyopia B: Floaters C: Macular degeneration D: Senile cataract
27 Several changes occur in the eye with the ageing process. The thickening and yellowing of the lens is referred to as: A: Presbyopia B: Floaters C: Macular degeneration **D: Senile cataract**
28
28 During ocular examinations, the nurse keeps in mind that movement of the extracular muscles is: A: Decreased in the elderly B: impaired in a patient with cataracts C: Stimulated by cranial nerves I and II D: stimulated by cranial nerves III, IV and VI
28 During ocular examinations, the nurse keeps in mind that movement of the extracular muscles is: A: Decreased in the elderly B: impaired in a patient with cataracts C: Stimulated by cranial nerves I and II **D: stimulated by cranial nerves III, IV and VI?** **Not 100% sure**
29
29 In examining the ear of an adult, the canal is straightened by pulling the auricle: A: Down and forwards B: Down and back C: Up and back D: Up and forwards
29 In examining the ear of an adult, the canal is straightened by pulling the auricle: A: Down and forwards B: Down and back **C: Up and back** D: Up and forwards
30
30 The sensation of vertigo is the result of: A: Otitis media B: Pathology in the semicircular canals C: Pathology in the cochlea D: 4th cranial nerve damage
The sensation of vertigo is the result of: ## Footnote A: Otitis media **B: Pathology in the semicircular canals** C: Pathology in the cochlea D: 4th cranial nerve damage
31
31 When teaching the breast self-examination, you would inform the woman that the best time to conduct the examination is: A: at the onset of the menstrual period B: on the 14th day of the menstrual cycle C: on the 4th-7th day of the cycle D: just before the menstrual period
31 When teaching the breast self-examination, you would inform the woman that the best time to conduct the examination is: A: at the onset of the menstrual period **B: on the 14th day of the menstrual cycle** C: on the 4th-7th day of the cycle D: just before the menstrual period
32
32 The most common site for a breast tumour is: A: Upper inner quadrant B: Upper outer quadrant C: Lower inner quadrant D: Lower outer quadrant
32 The most common site for a breast tumour is: A: Upper inner quadrant **B: Upper outer quadrant** C: Lower inner quadrant D: Lower outer quadrant
33
33 Qualitative research’s main aim is to: A: Investigate issues that quantitative research is unable to B: Understand naturally occurring social phenomena C: Include participants in the research
33 Qualitative research’s main aim is to: **A: Investigate issues that quantitative research is unable to** B: Understand naturally occurring social phenomena C: Include participants in the research
34
What is accepted as the main means for understanding others experience of phenomena? A: Numerical data B: Language C: Observation D: surveys
What is accepted as the main means for understanding others experience of phenomena? A: Numerical data B: Language **C: Observation** D: surveys
35
Grounded theory aims to: ## Footnote A: Develop a well-rounded theory for use later in research B: Develop theoretical explanation for socially constructed events and ideally generate hypothesis for further research C: Develop a rationale for linking qualitative findings to quantitative findings D: Develop theoretical explanations for experimentally constructed events and ideally generate hypothesis for further research
Grounded theory aims to: ## Footnote **A: Develop a well-rounded theory for use later in research** B: Develop theoretical explanation for socially constructed events and ideally generate hypothesis for further research C: Develop a rationale for linking qualitative findings to quantitative findings D: Develop theoretical explanations for experimentally constructed events and ideally generate hypothesis for further research
36
Ethnography has ts origins in: A: Quantitative research B: Feminist research C: Historical research D: Anthropology
Ethnography has ts origins in: ## Footnote A: Quantitative research B: Feminist research C: Historical research **D: Anthropology**
37
Ethnography typically includes: A: The study of cultures, fieldwork, surveys, insider/outsider reality B: The study of cultures, fieldwork, observation, insider/ outsider reality C: The study of individuals, fieldwork, observation, insider/outsider reality D: The study of individuals, laboratory work, observation, insider/outsider reality
Ethnography typically includes: A: The study of cultures, fieldwork, surveys, insider/outsider reality **B: The study of cultures, fieldwork, observation, insider/ outsider reality** C: The study of individuals, fieldwork, observation, insider/outsider reality D: The study of individuals, laboratory work, observation, insider/outsider reality
38
What is the most common method used for collecting qualitative data: ## Footnote A: Questionnaire B: Interview C: Observation D: Survey
What is the most common method used for collecting qualitative data: ## Footnote A: Questionnaire **B: Interview** C: Observation D: Survey
39
When interviewing, starting off with simple and broad questions to help ease the participant into the process is referred to as: ## Footnote A: Nurturing B: Channelling C: Funnelling D: Easing
When interviewing, starting off with simple and broad questions to help ease the participant into the process is referred to as: ## Footnote A: Nurturing B: Channelling C: Funnelling **D: Easing?**
40
Observational methods can employ which of the following approaches: A: In-place participant; participant as observer, observer as participant and absolute observer B: Complete participant, participant as observer; observer as participant; and complete observer C: Absolute participant; participant as observer; and in place observer D: Complete participant; in-place observer; in place participant and complete observer
Observational methods can employ which of the following approaches: ## Footnote A: In-place participant; participant as observer, observer as participant and absolute observer B: Complete participant, participant as observer; observer as participant; and complete observer C: Absolute participant; participant as observer; and in place observer D: Complete participant; in-place observer; in place participant and complete observer ??????????
41
What is flexion?
What is flexion? The act of bending or condition of being bent
42
What is Extension?
What is Extension? The movement by which ends of jointed parts are drawn away from each other
43
What is Abduction?
What is Abduction? A movement that brings a part of the body away from the middle sagittal line
44
What is Adduction?
What is Adduction? A movement that brings a part of the body closer to the middle sagittal line
45
What is Pronation?
What is Pronation? Forearm or palm faces towards the dorsal (back) of the body
46
What is supination?
What is supination? Forearm or palm faces to the front of the body
47
Name the four clusters of moral principles?
What are the four clusters of moral principles? Autonomy beneficence nonmaleficence Justice
48
# Define Autonomy:
# Define Autonomy: The right of an individual to make a choice ## Footnote
49
# Define Beneficence
# Define Beneficence Acting in the best interest of the patient ## Footnote
50
# Define nonmaleficence
# Define nonmaleficence The principle to above all do no harm
51
# Define justice
# Define justice Fairness and equality for all