Exam 2 pt 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what are some ways to increase the rate of a reaction?

A
  • using an enzyme lowers activation energy
  • increasing temperature: not ideal due to high temperatures destabilizing H bonds between proteins and can make it lose its shape/active site
  • increasing [substrate] - can only increase reaction until saturation pt of enzyme is reached
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2
Q

how does temperature and pH affect enzyme activity?d

A

enzymes have ideal temperature and pH

  • at high temperatures, H bonds in proteins can break and active site of enzyme is lost
  • different pH can cause protein to denature due to ions released from acids and bases interfering with H bonds of proteins
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3
Q

what are they types of enzyme inhibition?

A

competitive inhibition: inhibitor has similar conformation of the substrate of the enzyme and attaches to the active site of the protein to prevent rxn
- can be permanent loss of enzymatic activity or can be reversible by adding more of the substrate
non competitive inhibition: inhibitor binds to another part of the enzyme than the active site - allosteric site
- causes active site to change conformation so that it can no longer bind to the substrate

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4
Q

describe feedback inhibition. what type of inhibitions is it?

A

non competitive inhibitor
end product in a pathway can bind to almost eric site on an enzyme earlier in the pathway to prevent synthesis of substrates and products

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5
Q

what is sulfanilamide? what kind of inhibitor is it?

A

chemical similar to PABA

- bacterial enzyme that converts PABA into folic acid is inhibited by sulfanilamide

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6
Q

what are the two types of carbohydrate metabolism?

A

fermentation and cellular respiration

both pathways start with glycolysis

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7
Q

describe glycolysis. what is its major product?

A

splits glucose

  • starts with adding 2 phosphate groups to raise energy of molecule
  • 3 carbon G3P gets oxidized (loses H+ for P) into Pyruvic acid which can be fermented or go to the krebs cycle
  • generates 2 net ATP and 2 NADH
  • added phosphates reduced NADH, eventually lost to ATP
  • this is an example of substrate level phosphorylation
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8
Q

describe the krebs cycle

A

pyruvic acid from glycolysis releases a CO2 and adds a CoA to make acetyl CoA

  • oxaloacetic acid in krebs cycle takes 2 c groups from acetyl coa and goes through krebs cycle
  • produces 4 NADH, 1 FADH2, 1 ATP, and 3 CO2 per pyruvic acid molecule
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9
Q

describe the electron transport chain after the krebs cycle.

A

uses the energy or electrons from NADH and FADH2 to pump H+ protons against the concentration gradient of membrane

  • H goes through ATP synthase and the energy from the proton motor force is used to make ATP
  • example of oxidative phosphorylation
  • most efficient in making ATP - makes 34 ATP
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10
Q

what were some of the proteins mentioned in the ETC?

A
  1. flavoproteins : integral membrane protein that contains derivative of riboflavin
  2. metal containing proteins like FeS
  3. ubiquinones - nonprotein carriers found in all cells derived from Vit K
  4. cytochromes - associated with heme
    H’s donated by NADH and FADH2 - NADH donated higher at flavoproteins and can contribute more energy than FADH2 who donates at ubiquinones
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11
Q

what does an electron transport chain require?

A

requires a membrane that can be used to establish a proton gradient

  • inner membrane in mitochondria and cytoplasmic membrane in prok
  • used in oxidative and photo phosphorylation.
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12
Q

what are the differences between aerobic and anaerobic respiration?

A

aerobic respiration - the terminal electron acceptor is O2 which gets reducers into H2O
anaerobic respiration - terminal e- acceptor is not O2 ex. NO3- to NO2-

both can use pyruvic acid after glycolysis

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13
Q

describe the process of fermentation

A

paertial oxidation of sugar to release energy using organic molecule within cell as the e- acceptor

  • low amounts of ATP generated
  • regenerates NAD+ by oxidizing NADH so it can be used again in glycolysis
  • does not require O2 and does not use Krebs cycle or ETC
  • products are determined by the type of organism
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14
Q

describe protein catabolism

A

proteases - enzymes that break down proteins into amino acids

  • AA’s get deaminated (amino group removed) and hydrolyzed (add OH) and can go into the Krebs cycle
  • can increase ammonia in body - can be toxic
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15
Q

describe fat catabolism

A

lipases: enzymes that break drown fats into fatty acid and glycerol using 3 H2O molecules
- glycerol uses ATP to become GP3 that can go into glycolysis
beta oxidation: pairs of C’s get split off from hydrogenated carbon chains of fatty acids
- each pair gets a CoA to become Acetyl CoA and go into krebs cycle
- each pair removed generates an NADH and and FADH2
- occurs in cytosine

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16
Q

describe the pentose phostpate pathway

A

phosphorylated 5 carbon sugar intermediate formed from glucose

  • important formation of products used for anabolic reactions like NADPH for photosynthesis, precursors for nucleotides, AA’s and the calvin cycle
  • makes one ATP molecule per glucose
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17
Q

what is the purpose of the light dependent and light independent reactions?

A

light dependent - chlorophyll captures light energy by exciting electrons
- this generates ATP and NADPH needed for light independent reactions
light independent reactions - fixes CO2 into glucose

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18
Q

describe cyclic and non cyclic photophosrphylation

A

cyclic - PS1

  • light hits chloroplast of PS1, excites e- which goes down ETC
  • energy used to pump H+ against proton gradient, used to make ATP through ATP synthase
  • e- goes back into PS1 to get reexcited

non cyclic - PSII

  • excited e- gets passed to cytochromes, energy used to pump H+ against proton gradient and makes ATP
  • e- gets passed down ETC to NADPase, reduces NDAP+ to NADPH for calvin cycle
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19
Q

describe the light independent reactions of photosynthesis

A

calvin cycle

  • uses 6 ATP & 6 NADPH made in dependent rxns
  • RuBP: product of pentose phosphate cycle
  • RuBP + 3 C’s = 6 C molecule. add the ATP & NADPH to get G3P
  • 2 G3P from calvin or glycolysis makes 6 c glucose
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20
Q

what is an amphibolic pathway?

A

pathways that can proceed in either direction - anabolic or catabolic
- ex. fat catabolism or anabolism

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21
Q

what are some required elements of bacterial growth?

A
  • major element CHONPS
  • components of proteins, carbs, lipids, nuclei acids
  • trace elements: required in very small amounts (zinc, copper, etc.)
    growth factors; organic compounds needed that cannot be synthesized by the microbe
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22
Q

what are the sources of energy for photo vs chemo trophs? what are the carbon source of hetero vs auto trophs?

A

chemo: energy from chemical compounds
photo: energy from light
auto: carbon from CO2
hetero: carbon from organic compounds

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23
Q

define optimal growth temperature. what are the temperature philes described in lecture?

A

optimal growth temp: temp @ which the organism grows most rapidly

  • psychro: optimum temp below 15*
  • meso: optimum temp 20-40
  • thermo: above 45* - contains extra H bonds
  • hyperthermo: above 80* - can freeze @ room temp
24
Q

why do organisms have optimal growth temp?

A
  • proteins require specific 3D structure to perform properly
  • affects lipids: too high = too liquidy, too low = too rigid
25
Q

what are the other philes mentioned in lecture?

A
  • neutrophiles: best @ neutral pH
  • acidophiles: best at acidic, can prevent growth of other microbes
  • alkalknophiles: best at basic
    organisms sensitive to change in pH bc ions have effect on protein structure
  • many organisms produce acidic waste that can inhibit growth if not removed
26
Q

what are some ways that oxygen can be toxic? how do organisms protect themselves from these toxins?

A

toxic forms of O2 contain an extra e- that can cause damage to proteins and fats: O2- and O2 2-
enzymes can break down these molecules
SOD uses H+ to make O2 and H2O2
catalase makes hydrogen peroxide into O2 and H2O
peroxidase uses H2O2 and H+ atoms to make water

27
Q

what are the three examples of categories of microbes that have different O2 requirements?

A

obligate aerobes -grow only when oxygen is present
facultative anaerobes - grow best in oxygen but can grow without
obligate anaerobes - die in the presence of oxygen

28
Q

what is plasmolysis? how do cells cope?

A

plasmolysis - osmotic loss of water from a cell
osmosis - pressure exerted on a membrane by a solution with solutes that dont pass through membrane
cells can cope with this by balancing osmotic pressure with solutes inside the cell

29
Q

what is a halophile? what is osmotolerance?

A

halophiles - salt loving organisms

osmotolerant (facultative halophiles) able to tolerate relatively high [salt]

30
Q

describe quorum sensing

A

bacteria use and respond to chemical signals that tells other bacteria the microbial species and density present in the biofilm
- high [bacteria] produces high level of chemical signal
chemical signal level triggers bacteria to form a biofilm

31
Q

what happens when the threshold for a biofilm is reached?

A

when there is enough microbes bound, they activate suppressed genes and develop new characteristics

  • produce new enzymes, change in shape and formation of mating types, ability to form and maintain environment
  • synergistic environment allows microbes to have different metabolic and structural traits that are different from when they’re alone
  • primary residence of microbes - more defense against UV, anti-b, change in pH temp and humidity
32
Q

define a colony

A
  • cluster of identical cells that arise from a single cell
  • inoculum: culture sample
    medium : nutrients
33
Q

how do you prepare a pure culture using petri plates?

A

use a petri plate made of nutrients and agar
- agar is polysaccharide made from red algae that typically does not get eaten by microbes
aseptic technique: minimizes introduction of other contaminating organisms
- using sterile instruments, media, vessels

34
Q

what’s the difference between streak plates and pour plates?

A

streak - diluting bacteria by spreading on agar plates in quadrants
pour - mix sample with melted agar and dilute each time, pour into plate, colonies grow on and in agar

35
Q

compare defined media from complex media

A

defined: exact composition known
complex: media contains materials which vary in composition
- ex. blood, yeast extract, beef broth
- supports wider range of microorganisms

36
Q

compare the following: selective, differential and enrichment media

A

selective: encourages growth is some but suppressed growth of other organisms
- MacConkey selects from gram (-), e. coli does not grow
differential: produces observable changed that makes it easier to distinguished target organism over others
- MacConkey: red growth = lactose catabolism, clear = no lactose catabolism

enrichment: contains special nutrients that encourage growth of a specific organism

37
Q

describe anaerobic media. what must be used.

A

culture that removes free O2 from the media

  • sodium thioglucollate chemically removed O2 from medium
  • culture plates are stored in anaerobic vessels
  • palladium pellets can catalyze O2 into H2O
38
Q

describe the phases of microbial growth

A

lag phase: no significant growth due to microbes getting used to environment, enzyme phase
log phase: exponential growth
- generation time: amount of time required for a cell to divide into two cells
stationary phase: new cells produce and die at same rate, growth conditions limited bc nutrients running our and wastes accumulate, stress tolerant
decline/death: number of living cells decreasing

39
Q

what are some ways to measure bacterial growth?

A

plate counts: dilute organism from broth and culture every sample, count number of colonies on agar and multiply by reverse of dilution
filtration: concentrate bacteria on filter and apply to agar
turbidity: measure the cloudiness of a liquid using a spectrometer - used to measure the amount of light moving through a culture
direct microscopic count : use a special slide to count and average the amount of bacteria in a sample

40
Q

describe the differences between a gene, genome and chromosome

A

gene: basic unit of heredity that carries information from one generation to the next, molecular segment of DNA that codes for a functional product
genome: complete genetic material of a cell
chromosome: dna molecule complexed with protein in a cell

41
Q

what is a nucleotide made of?

A

sugar: deoxyribose for dna, ribose for rna
nitrogenous base: A T G C for dna, U for rna
phosphate

42
Q

describe dna the general process of DNA replication (without enzymesj

A

DNA replication is semiconservative : each daughter strand has half of original parent strand
always in 5’ carbon to 3’ hydroxyl
- leading strand: synthesized continuously
- lagging strand: synthesized in Okazaki fragments

43
Q

what are the enzymes involved in DNA replication

A

DNA helicase: breaks H bonds in strand to unwind the double helix
DNA polymerase: makes new DNA strand using parent strand as a template
primase: makes small RNA fragment that allows DNA polymerase to attach and replicate
- multiple needed for lagging strand
DNA ligase: seals gaps between Okazaki fragments

44
Q

describe transcription and the enzymes needed

A

DNA to mRNA
RNA polymerase: makes strand of RNA that is complementary to DNA template
- only one strand acts as a template, mRNA strand synthesized in 5’ to 3’ direction
sigma factor: protein needed for initiation of transcription
promoter: DNA sequence that RNA polymerase binds to start transcription

45
Q

what is a codon? what is an anticodon? how do they both relate to tRNA?

A

codon: 3 base sequence that codes for an amino acid
tRNA: transfer molecule that matches the codon with the corresponding AA
anticodon: sequence of 3 base pairs on tRNA that are complementary to the BP of the codon

46
Q

what’s a ribosome and what are its subunits? describe its role in anabolic rxns

A

protein/RNA complex that synthesize proteins
A site: accommodates tRNA delivering aa
P site : hold tRNA and growing polypeptide
E site: tRNA exits
ribosomes move one codon at a time
- can have multiple ribosomes on the sam strand at once
ribozymes: form H2O and polypeptide bond between terminal and new AA using GTP

47
Q

what are the steps of translation?

A

initiation: ribosome binds to AUG on mRNA
elongation: ribosome translates mRNA codons into AA sequence
termination: stop or nonsense codons that do not code for any aa stops synthesis

48
Q

describe genotype vs phenotype

A

genotype: genetic makeup of an organism that is IDd specifically by DNA sequence
phenotype: detectable, outward appearance of a specific genotype

49
Q

describe the following mutations: substitution, silent, missense, nonsense, frameshift

A

mutation: change in DNA sequence
substitution: base substituted for and other
silent: no change in AA sequence, many AA have similar first 2 aa in codon
missense: slight change in aa sequence, can be nonfunctional if in important part of protein
nonsense: stop codon, typically nonfunctional
frameshift: insertion or deletion of base causing codon to shift, major difference in AA sequence

50
Q

what is a mutagen and what are some examples?

A

mutagen: agent that causes change in DNA sequence
radiation- UV Light causes pyramidine dimers to form - prevents proper replication/transcription
benzopyrene: chemical mutagen in smoke and charbroiled food that causes frameshift mutations

51
Q

what is horizontal transmission and what are some examples?

A

gene transfer: movement of genetic information between organisms
transformation - gene transfer by naked DNA
transduction - gene transfer by bacteriophage
conjugation - gene transfer by F (fertility plasmid) and pills

52
Q

what was the Frederick Griffith experiments and what kind of gene transfer did it prove?

A

injected rough S. pneumoniae into mice - mice lived
injected smooth S. Pneumoniae into mice - mice died
injected live rough and dead smooth killed S. pneuominae - mice died
transformation - suggests that the live R cells took up pathogenic genes of S cells

53
Q

What was the oswald avery experiments and what did it prove?

A

using biochemical techniques, he got pure samples of Carbs, proteins and DNA of dead smooth S. pneumonia - only DNA killed mice via transformation
- discovered that DNA is the genetic material of the cells

54
Q

describe conjugation. what is the concern with plasmids?

A

transfer of genetic info through plus between donor and recipient cell (unidirectional)
- requires the F (fertility plasmid - for pilli) and other self-transmittable plasmid - small circular DNA found in bacteria
- rolling circle replication - one strand of plasmid DNA transfer, recipient makes copy
Resistance (R) plasmid encodes for antibiotic resistance

55
Q

describe the process of transduction

A

transfer of DNA from one cell to another via replicating virus

  • phage injects genome into host cell
  • new phage DNA and hybrid phage/host DNA is made - “transfusing phages”
  • transfusing phages inject into other host cells
  • donated DNA is incorporated into new host chromosome by recombination