Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology I > Lecture 01_Fall > Flashcards

Lecture 01_Fall Flashcards

2
Q

Define Pharmacokinetics

A

What the body does to the drug. How does concentration in blood vary with dose, time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define Bioavailability

A

the relative amount of drug that reaches the systemic circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the typical bioavailability of IV drugs?

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is bioavailability dependent on?

A
  1. Drug absorption (ideally high)
  2. 1st pass effect (ideally low)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is “First-pass Metabolism?”

A

metabolism that occurs before the drug reaches systemic circulation/target site

the liver metabolizes part of an oral or rectal medication before it can reach the site of action

(less common - Other organs - ex: lungs - first pass uptake fentanyl)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

T or F. Drugs have to cross the membrane in order to be active in a cell and charged particles have an easier time crossing into the cell.

A

False. They do need to cross the membrane to be active, but charged particles have trouble crossing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does pKa tell you?

A

the pH where ionization occurs (“50-50 point”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If the pH is more acidic than the pKa, which way will the equation be driven?

A

to the RIGHT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

T or F. A base in a basic solution will not ionize.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the PROs and CONs of enteral medication?

A

Enteral = PO

PROs - easy, cheap

CONs - unreliable, need a working gut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is an advantage of sublingual medication?

A

has direct absorption into systemic venous circulation, bypasses the liver, and avoids hepatic metabolism(oral transmucosal -> veins of mouth -> SVC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

T or F. A benefit of medications given rectally is that it bypasses the liver. *Note - this was in my lecture but not your lecture notes*

A

False…it MAY bypass the liver, but it depends on where it is absorbed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Parenteral includes ___, ___, and ___ , and of these 3 routes, ___ is the best. *Note - this was in my lecture but not your lecture notes*

A

IV, IM, SQ. IV is the best

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name the 4 Classic Tissue Groups

A

Vessel-Rich, Muscle, Fat, and Vessel-Poor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the % Body Weight for each of the 4 tissue groups?

A

Vessel-Rich - 10%

Muscle - 50%

Fat - 20%

Vessel-Poor - 20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What % of Cardiac Output goes to each of the 4 tissue groups?

A

Vessel-Rich - 75%

Muscle - 19%

Fat - 6%

Vessel-Poor - ~0%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

T or F. A drug must bind to protein in order for it to be available for uptake by an organ?

A

False. Drugs that are bound to protein are unavailable for uptake by an organ.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What protein binds to acidic drugs?

A

albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What protein binds to basic drugs?

A

Alpha-1-acid glycoprotein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Would a drug be more or less effective in a malnourished person?

A

more effective - lower protein levels -> higher free drug levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

T or F. The effects of many anesthetic drugs terminate due to redistribution.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the formula for Volume of Distribution (Vd)?

A

Vd - Dose / Plasma Concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T or F. Drugs that are ionized and protein bound typically have a small Vd (Volume of Distribution).

A

True. They are usually confined to intravascular space.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

T or F. Most drugs have a large Vd (Volume of Distribution) and don’t stay in the plasma.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

If the normal Total Body Water for an adult is ~42L, how can the Vd of fentanyl be 350L?

A

Fentanyl is VERY fat soluble, so it is all accumulating in the fat and the plasma concentration is very low compared to the dose given.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

T or F. Elimination includes Bio-transformation and Excretion?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

T or F. Pancuronium is very fat soluble and has a large Vd.

A

False. Vd= 10L and TBW is 42L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is biotransformation?

A

the alteration of the drug by a metabolic process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Where does biotransformation usually take place?

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Describe Phase I of Biotransformation.

A

Phase 1: Oxidation, Reduction, Hydrolysis -> increases polarity to make the drug water soluble for excretion in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What enzyme system catalyzes most of the Phase I reactions?

A

Cytochrome P-450 (CYP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

T or F. Because CYP activity decreases with drug exposure, overtime, less drug is required to reach the same effect.

A

False. It increases with drug exposure - often requiring more drugs to reach the desired effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

T or F. Many opioids , benzodiazepines, and local anesthetics are metabolized by CYP450 enzyme system.

A

False. CYP3A4/5 enzyme system

35
Q

What is Phase II of biotransformation?

A

Phase II: Conjugation with a polar substance -> water soluble for excretion in urine

36
Q

Hepatic Clearance is dependent on ____ and ____.

A

hepatic blood flow and hepatic extraction ratio

37
Q

Hepatic clearance of drugs with a high extraction ratio is limited by _______.

A

Hepatic blood flow (“perfusion-limited”)

38
Q

What does the term “capacity-limited” indicate about hepatic drug clearance?

What groups of patients are effected by drugs that are “capacity-limited”?

A

Drugs that have a low-extraction ratio and clearance is limited by hepatic function.

Patients with liver disease will be more effected by these drugs

39
Q

Which of the following drugs have a low extraction ratio?

A. Thiopental

B. Diazepam

C. Lorazepam

D. All of the above

A

D

40
Q

What are the 3 routes of excretion?

A

Kidneys (urine)

Bile (stool)

Lungs (mostly volatile agents, some clearance of fentanyl)

41
Q

T or F. Protein bound drugs are filtered into the kidneys, are ionized in urine and are unable to be reabsorbed.

A

False. All is true except that it is non-protein bound drugs that are filtered into the kidneys

42
Q

Define clearance.

A

Removal of drug from the plasma - specifically, the volume of plasma cleared of drug (by metabolism or excretion) per unit of time

43
Q

T or F. Drugs must be metabolized to an inactive metabolite in order to be excreted by the kidneys.

A

False.

44
Q

Define half-life.

A

time required for serum concentration to drop by one-half

45
Q

What are the two compartments in the 2-Compartment Model?

A

Central Compartment (Plasma + VRG) and the Peripheral Compartment

46
Q

T or F. The alpha phase described in the 2-Compartment Model refers to the Elimination Phase which is characterized by slower decline in drug concentration in the plasma.

A

False. The alpha phase is the Distribution Phase in which a quick decline occurs. The beta phase is the Elimination Phase which is characterized by slower decline in drug plasma concentration.

47
Q

Does the following describe Zero-Order or First -Order Kinetics?

a fixed percentage of the drug is metabolized per unit of time for any given plasma concentration.

A

First order kinetics

48
Q

Does the following describe Zero-Order or First -Order Kinetics?

a constant amount of drug is metabolized per unit of time, independent of plasma concentration.

A

Zero order kinetics

49
Q

Alcohol is an example of ______-order kinetics

A

Zero-order kinetics

50
Q

Most drugs are metabolized according to ____-order kinetics.

A

First-order kinetics

51
Q

On a Concentration Vs. Time graph, elimination by ____-order kinetics is characterized by a straight line.

A

zero-order kinetics

(there is zero change in the slope!)

52
Q

Define Pharmacodynamics

A

What the drug does to the body

53
Q

Define Efficacy

A

the maximum effect a drug can cause

54
Q

Define Potency

A

the amount of effect a drug causes for a given dose

55
Q

What is ED50?

A

The drug dose required to produce a specific effect in 50% of the population

56
Q

What is LD50?

A

The drug dose required to cause death (or toxicity) in 50% of the population

57
Q

T or F. An ideal drug has a very narrow therapeutic index.

A

False.

58
Q

What is the formula for Therapeutic Index?

A

LD50/ED50

59
Q

_____ is a diminished response to a drug due to chronic exposure.

A

Tolerance

60
Q

______ is an acute drug tolerance after only a few doses.

A

Tachyphylaxis

61
Q

______ antagonists bind reversibly to the same binding site as agonists

A

Competitive Antagonists

62
Q

_____ antagonists bind to a separate binding site on the same receptor as the agonist

A

Non-competitive Antagonists

63
Q

____ antagonists could be overcome by increasing the dose of an agonist.

A

Competitive Antagonists

64
Q

T or F. Partial Agonists have higher efficacy than full agonists.

A

False. They produce a lower maximal response

65
Q

Lipophilic drugs rapidly equilibrate into ____.

A

CNS tissue

66
Q

single doses of lipophilic drugs have a ____ CNS duration of action.

A

short

67
Q

Multiple doses of lipophilic drugs leads to increasing _____ concentrations and ____ duration of action.

A

peripheral tissue, longer

68
Q

After multiple doses of a lipophilic drug, decrease in plasma concentration becomes dependent on _____.

A

drug elimination from the body

69
Q

T or F. Facilitated diffusion of drugs through the lipid bilayer requires energy since carrier proteins are needed.

A

False. Carrier proteins are needed but requires no energy

70
Q

Passive transport is typically limited by ____ not ___.

A

blood flow, not lipid solubility

71
Q

T or F. Unlike lipophilic drugs, hydrophilic drugs need active transport to deal with concentration gradients.

A

False. They both do.

72
Q

What age group has diminished Phase I and Phase II activities?

A

neonates - 1 yr

73
Q

What is hepatic drug clearance?

A

the fraction of drug removed when blood passes through liver

74
Q

GFR = ___% RBF

A

20%

75
Q

Why is passive transport insufficient for renal drug clearance?

A

due to protein binding

76
Q

To determine what loading dose to give, you must multiply ____ and ____.

A

Loading dose = Vd x target concentration

77
Q

In general, do lipophilic or hydrophilic drugs have a larger Vd?

A

lipophilic

78
Q

Why does Thiopental have a prolonged 1/2-life in the elderly?

A

Vd is increased

79
Q

Our drugs often have a two-tailed therapeutic index. What does this mean?

A

There are both low (awareness) and high (overdose) “toxicities” to avoid.

80
Q

What is redundancy of drug receptors?

A

excess of receptors. Max drug effect typically occurs at far below max receptor binding

81
Q

NMJ only needs __% of receptors to be bound by Ach for clinical strength, which is why you need >___% blockage to get clinical weakness.

A

25%, 75%

82
Q

T or F. You should ALWAYS be very familiar with the graphs on the notes because there is a good chance you will have to draw and label it on your quizzes or tests.

A

TRUE :)

Pharmacology I (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions