M1, S2, C1 - Aerodrome Control Flashcards

1
Q

An aerodrome control unit shall provide:

A
  • Aerodrome control service
  • Basic service
  • alerting service

…principally to aircraft flying with visual reference to the surface in, and in the vicinity of, the ATZ and operating on the manoeuvring area.

It is normally a separate unit but can be combined permanently or temporarily with an Approach Control Unit.

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2
Q

Aerodrome control shall issue information and instructions to aircraft under its control to achieve…

A

…a safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic with the objective of:

1) Preventing collisions between:
- aircraft flying in, and in the vicinity of, the ATZ
- aircraft taking off and landing
- aircraft and vehicles, obstructions and other aircraft on the manoeuvring area
2) assist in preventing collisions between aircraft on the apron

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3
Q

Aerodrome controllers shall maintain as far as practicable…

A

…a continuous watch by visual observation on all flight operations on and in the vicinity of an aerodrome as well as vehicles and personnel on the manoeuvring area.

Visual observations shall be achieved through direct out-of-the-window observation or through indirect observation utilising a visual surveillance system which is specifically approved for the purpose by the CAA.

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4
Q

Aerodrome control has the following specific responsibilities:

A

1) notifying emergency services as per local instructions
2) informing aircraft under its control of any depletion of the RFFS
3) providing an approach control service when carrying out functions delegated by approach control
4) supplying the following info to approach:

A) pertinent data on IFR, VFR and SVFR traffic including departures, missed approaches and overdue aircraft

B) appropriate items of essential aerodrome information

5) informing the aerodrome operator when it becomes apparent that there is a deterioration in the state of the aerodrome or associated facilities for which the AO is responsible
6) initiating overdue action at aerodromes where no approach control unit is established

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5
Q

Approach control may instruct approaching IFR flights to contact aerodrome control before transfer of control has become effective.

Until approaching aircraft are…

A

…flying with visual reference to the surface, ADC shall not issue any instructions or advice which would reduce the separation established by APC

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6
Q

ADC shall co-ordinate with APC:

A

1) Departing IFR flights

2) Arriving aircraft which make their first call on the tower frequency (unless they are transferred to APC)

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7
Q

APC will co-ordinate with ADC:

A

1) aircraft approaching to land, if necessary requesting landing clearance
2) arriving aircraft which are to be cleared to visual holding points
3) aircraft routing through the traffic circuit

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8
Q

Unless specified otherwise in MATS 2, the responsibility for control of a departing aircraft shall be transferred from ADC to APC:

A

1) in VMC, prior to the aircraft leaving the vicinity of the aerodrome, or prior to the aircraft entering IMC
2) in IMC, immediately after the aircraft is airborne

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9
Q

When the reported met conditions at aerodromes in Class D airspace reduce below

a ground visibility of 5km
and/or
A cloud ceiling of 1500ft

…both by day or night, ATC shall…

A

…advise pilots of aircraft intending to operate under VFR to or from such aerodromes, and request the pilot to specify the type of clearance required.

Except for helicopters using Police, Helimed, Rescue, Electricity, Grid, Powerline, Pipeline call signs, or SAR training flights operating IAW M2, or rail track inspection flights, controllers shall not…

…issue any further VFR clearances to aircraft wishing to operate VFR to or from an aerodrome, or enter the ATZ, or aerodrome traffic circuit, of an aerodrome in Class D when the official met report at that aerodrome indicates, by day or night, a ground visibility lass then 5km and/or a cloud ceiling less than 1500ft

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10
Q

Traffic information and instructions shall be passed to aircraft…

A

…on any occasion that a Controller considers it necessary in the interests of safety, or when requested by the pilot.

In particular ADC shall provide:

1) generic TI to enable VFR pilots to safely integrate their flight with other aircraft
2) specific TI appropriate to the stage of flight and risk of collision
3) timely instructions as necessary to prevent collisions and to enable safe, orderly and expeditious flight within and in the vicinity of the ATZ

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11
Q

Aircraft under the jurisdiction of ADC and in receipt of information critical to the continuing safe operation of the aircraft must be kept informed of any subsequent changes, for example:

A

1) significant changes in met and runway conditions
2) changes in essential aerodrome information
3) changes in the notified operational status of approach and landing aids

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12
Q

Essential aerodrome information is…

A

…that concerning the state of the manoeuvring area and it’s associated facilities that may constitute a hazard to a particular aircraft.

It shall be given to every aircraft, except when it is known that he aircraft already has received the information from other sources.

The information shall be given in sufficient time for the aircraft to make proper use of it, and the hazards shall be identified as distinctly as possible. This may include the provision of urgent information to pilots during aircraft take-off and landing runs.

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13
Q

Essential aerodrome information shall include:

A

1) construction work or maintenance on the manoeuvring area
2) rough or broken portions of the manoeuvring area and whether marked or not
3) failure or irregular function of AGL. Defects must be be passed to pilots in the form that they have been reported to the controller. Controllers should not make assumptions that a particular defect renders an associated aid unserviceable or not available. The pilot is responsible for deciding his course of action.
4) failure or irregular function of approach aids
5) aircraft parked close to the runways or taxiways and aircraft engaged in ground running of engines
6) water, snow, slush, ice or frost on a runway, taxiway or apron
7) in snow and ice conditions: information concerning anti-icing or de-icing liquid chemicals or other contaminants or sweeping and/or sanding of runways, taxiways and aprons
8) bird formations or individual large birds reported or observed on or above the manoeuvring area or in the immediate vicinity of the aerodrome and the extent of any bird dispersal action being carried out. When flocks of birds or single large birds are seen, the AO or bird control unit must be informed.
9) information on the location and operational status of any arrest or gear installation

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14
Q

The movements of aircraft, persons or vehicles on the manoeuvring area and the movement of aircraft on the apron are at all times…

A

…subject to permission from ADC.

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15
Q

ADC responsibility on the apron is limited to providing…

A

…advice and instructions to assist the prevent of collisions between moving aircraft.

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16
Q

The apron may be out of sight from some visual control rooms and in these circumstances any of the following procedures may be used to control moving aircraft:

A

1) an aircraft is cleared to taxi: a second aircraft may be given taxi clearance plus information on the position and intention of the first aircraft, with clear instruction to follow or give way to it
2) an aircraft is cleared to taxi and all further requests for aircraft movement are refused until the first aircraft comes into sight of the controller. A second movement is then approved following the same procedure
3) an aircraft is cleared to taxi and asked to report when clear of the apron or passing an easily identifiable reference point. A second movement may then be cleared subject to the known progress of the first

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17
Q

Vehicles moving along a runway or taxiway shall give way at all times to aircraft taking off, landing, taxiing or being towed except that…

A

…emergency services vehicles proceeding to the assistance of an aircraft in distress shall be afforded priority over all other surface movement traffic.

In the latter case, all movement of surface traffic should, to the extent practicable, be halted until it is determined that the progress of the emergency vehicles will not be impeded.

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18
Q

The phrase ‘give way’ must not be used in RT phraseology to…

A

…vehicles to resolve conflict ions between vehicles and aircraft on the manoeuvring area.

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19
Q

If the instructions given to surface traffic involve crossing a runway in use, clearance to cross should normally be withheld until no confliction exists.

However, to achieve greater efficiency of operation clearance to cross may be given subject to aircraft which are landing or taking off.

The conditional clearance shall contain…

A

…sufficient information to enable the pilot of the taxiing aircraft or vehicle driver to identify the other traffic and should relate to one movement only.

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20
Q

When issuing a crossing instruction of a runway in use to a taxiing aircraft, controllers shall ensure that…

A

…the crossing instruction is issued on the same frequency as that utilised for the issuing of take off and landing clearances on that runway.

Any subsequent instruction to change frequency shall be issued to the taxiing aircraft after it has vacated the runway.

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21
Q

When a clearance to cross a runway in use is issued..

A

…a report vacated instruction shall be included.

However, this instruction may be omitted when ADC has continuous sight of the aircraft or vehicle crossing.

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22
Q

When aircraft, persons or vehicles have been given permission to cross or occupy a runway in use, the controller shall, as a positive reminder that the runway is blocked…

A

…display a strip or marker on the part of the flight progress board that is used to represent the runway

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23
Q

A runway incursion is…

A

…any occurrence at an aerodrome involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft, vehicle or person on the protected area of a surface designated for aircraft take off and landing.

The protected area of a surface for aircraft take off and landing is determined by the existence and location of the runway strip, clear and graded area, obstacle free zone and ILS sensitive areas.

The precise configuration of these areas is dependent on the aerodrome layout and operations that are taking place.

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24
Q

When issuing instructions and clearances on the aerodrome, controllers must take into account the hazards of…

A

…jet blast and propeller slip stream.

Even at ground idle, large I react can produce localities wind velocities of sufficient strength to cause damage to other aircraft.! Vehicles and personnel operating within the affected area.

Particular care should be taken when multiple line up clearances at different points on the same runway are issued and aircraft later in the departure sequence will be subjected to jet blast or prop wash from preceding departures.

Research has demonstrated that the affected area behind large aircraft with engines at ground idle extends up to 600m

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25
Q

When the pilot of an aircraft requests start up or taxi clearance the following information shall be given:

A

1) runway in use
2) surface wind direction and speed, including significant variations
3) aerodrome QNH
4) outside air temperature (turbine engined aircraft only)
5) significant met conditions eg RVR or marked temperature inversion

Those items which are known to have been received by the pilot may be omitted.

When requested, aircraft shall be provided with a time check; such time checks shall be accurate to the nearest minute.

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26
Q

Heavy aircraft are not to be given clearance or instructions that would require…

A

…the use of more than normal power for taxiing or for entry on to the runway.

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27
Q

Heavy aircraft when at the holding position…

A

…are not to be cleared for an immediate take off

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28
Q

In the interest of safety, use of the active runway for taxiing purposes…

A

…is to be kept to a minimum

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29
Q

Controllers are not to instruct aircraft or vehicles to cross…

A

…illuminated red stop bars used at runway and intermediate taxiway holding positions.

The AO may decide on the grounds of safety that inoperable stop bars and associated taxiways be withdrawn from service and alternative routes used where practicable.

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30
Q

Where illuminated red stop bars are used at runway holding positions they are only to be de-selected when…

A

…clearance has been given for an aircraft or vehicle to enter the runway.
if a conditional clearance had been issued in respect of a landing aircraft, the stop bar must not be de-selected until the landing aircraft has passed the position at which the vehicle or aircraft will enter the runway.

This requirement may be satisfied either visually by the controller or by the use of SMR

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31
Q

For aircraft departing from the same runway holding position, when a conditional line up clearance has been issued to a succeeding departing aircraft the illuminated red stop bar…

A

…may remain de-selected provided that it will be the next movement on that runway.

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32
Q

On the occasions when the withdrawal of inoperable stop bars is not possible and the stop bars cannot be readily suppressed, under exceptional circumstances an aircraft may be instructed to cross such an illuminated stop bar subject to the following minimum conditions:

A

1) the affected runway or intermediate holding position and the aircraft are visible to the controller.
2) The phraseology used is to leave the pilot or driver in no doubt that the crossing instruction only applies to the particular inoperable stop bar. Conditional clearances shall not be used under these circumstances.
3) additional MATS 2 procedures may apply

In all cases, care should be taken if this contingency procedure is to be used in LVPs or at night as the green taxiway lights linked to the stop bar will not be available.

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33
Q

In addition to providing instructions about the route to be followed, all taxi clearances are to contain…

A

…a specific clearance limit.

This clearance limit should be a location on the manoeuvring area or apron.

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34
Q

Care must be exercised when clearing an aircraft to the holding point of the runway in use, for the aircraft is then permitted to…

A

…cross all runways which intersect the taxi route designated in the clearance, whether active or not.

Therefore, when a taxi clearance contains a taxi limit beyond a runway, it is to contain an explicit clearance to cross that runway.

If such a clearance cannot be given, the clearance limit and the specified route must exclude that runway and any route beyond it.

When the controller considers it appropriate the phrase ‘hold short’ may be used to emphasise that the aircraft is not authorised to cross an intermediate runway eg taxi to holding point D2, hold short of runway 25R

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35
Q

The phrase ‘follow the…’ is useful when issuing taxi instructions. However, controllers are warned that this phrase could lead to…

A

…aircraft inadvertently following another past a holding position or on to the active runway.

Controllers are therefore to use caution when issuing taxi instructions containing the phrase ‘follow the…’ especially in the area of the active runway or runway holding positions.

Controllers must be alert to the potential for visual misidentification of aircraft on the aerodrome. This is particularly important when an aircraft may not be displaying a livery synonymous with its callsign

36
Q

If an aircraft wishes to depart from an aerodrome in airspace where VFR flight is permitted and the flight details are unknown…

A

…the pilot is to be asked ‘are you departing VFR?’

37
Q

Aircraft shall not be permitted to hold on the end of the runway if…

A

…another aircraft has been cleared to land.

Aircraft will hold clear of the runway at the marked holding position or, if on is not provided, not closer than those distances from the runway centreline prescribed in CAP 168

38
Q

To guard against pilots misinterpreting a clearance message as permission to take off, after an aircraft has been instructed to hold at a runway holding position and a clearance message is passed…

A

…the clearance message shall be prefixes with a repetition of the appropriate holding instruction.

39
Q

Conditional clearances shall not be used for movements affecting the active runway except when…

A

…the aircraft or vehicles concerned can be seen by both controller and pilot or driver.

Conditional clearances are to relate to one movement only and, in the case of landing traffic, this must be the first aircraft on approach.

However, when a number of aircraft are at a holding position adjacent to a runway, then a conditional clearance may be given to an aircraft in respect of another that is ahead in the departure sequence.

In both cases, no ambiguity must exist as to the identity of the aircraft concerned.

40
Q

Line up instructions may be issued to more than one aircraft at different points on the same or crossing runways provided that:

A

1) it is during daylight hours
2) all aircraft are continuously visible to the aerodrome controller
3) all aircraft are on the same frequency
4) pilots are advised of the number of aircraft ahead in the departure sequence, and the position/runway from which these aircraft will depart
5) the physical characteristics of the runway do not render preceding aircraft in the departure sequence invisible to succeeding aircraft on the same runway

41
Q

When line up will take place at a position other than for a full length runway departure…

A

…the intermediate holding position designator shall be included in the line up instruction.

Controllers may include holding position designators in any line up clearance as considered appropriate.

42
Q

Conditional line up clearances have been identified as a significant contributory factor in many runway incursion incidents.

The use of non-standard phraseology when issuing a conditional line up clearance exacerbates the risk of misunderstanding or confusion, which has the potential to increase the likelihood of runway incursions.

The phrase ‘line up in turn’…

A

…has been identified as ambiguous and misleading and is not to be used

43
Q

Unless MATS 2 states otherwise, take off clearance shall include…

A

…the designator of the departure runway

44
Q

Take off clearance may be issued when the aircraft is…

A

…at or approaching the holding point for the runway in use or when the aircraft is lined up on or entering the runway in use.

Controllers may include holding position designators in any clearance to take off as considered appropriate

45
Q

A take off clearance shall be issued separately from…

A

…any other clearance message.

If an aircraft is lined up on the runway and a revised clearance or post departure instructions need to be passed, the revised clearance or post departure instruction shall be prefixed with an instruction to hold position.

46
Q

An aircraft shall not be permitted to begin take off until…

A

…the preceding departing aircraft is seen to be airborne or has reported airborne by RT and all preceding landing aircraft have vacated the runway in use.

47
Q

A departing aircraft shall not be given instructions which would require it to make a turn before…

A

…it has reached a height of 500ft.

This need not apply in the case of a light aircraft.

48
Q

If an ATC clearance could initially be confused with a ground movement instruction (eg a turn) or otherwise to avoid pilots taking off without a clearance…

A

…it should commence with the phrase ‘after departure’

49
Q

An aircraft on an IFR flight is not to be given take off clearance until:

A

1) The ATC clearance from area control has been passed and acknowledged
And
2) approach control have authorised its departure and any specific instructions have been passed to the aircraft

Eg turn after take off, track to make good before turning onto desired heading, level to maintain

50
Q

When giving the instruction ‘cleared for immediate take off’ it is expected that the pilot will act as follows:

A

1) at the holding position; taxi immediately on to the runway and commence take off without stopping the aircraft (not to be given to Heavy aircraft)
2) if already lined up on the runway, take off without delay
3) if an immediate take off is not possible, he will advise the controller

51
Q

ADC may, after co-ordination with APC:

A

1) expedite departing aircraft by suggesting a take off direction which is not into wind. The pilot has the right to reject the suggestion
2) reduce the overall delay to traffic by altering the order in which he clears aircraft to take off
3) when ATS surveillance systems are not available, clear departing IFR flights to climb VMC and maintain their own separation until a specified time, location or level, if reports indicate that this is possible.

52
Q

The pilot of a departing aircraft may request a delay in take off because of…

A

…the danger of wake turbulence from the preceding aircraft.

There is a particular danger for aircraft commencing their take off run part of the way along the runway

53
Q

If take off clearance has to be cancelled before the take off run has commenced…

A

…the pilot shall be instructed to hold position and to acknowledge the instruction

54
Q

In certain circumstances ADC may consider it necessary to cancel take off clearance after the aircraft has commenced the take off run.

In this event the pilot shall be instructed to…

A

…stop immediately and to acknowledge the instruction.

55
Q

The cancellation of a take off clearance after an aircraft has commenced its take off roll should only occur when…

A

…the aircraft will be in serious and imminent danger should it continue.

Controllers should be aware of the potential for an aircraft to overrun the end of the runway if the take off is abandoned at a late stage; this is particularly so with large aircraft or those operating close to their performance limit, such as at maximum take off mass, in high ambient temperatures or when the runway braking action may be adversely affected.

Because of this risk, even if a take off clearance is cancelled, the commander of the aircraft may consider it safer to continue the take off than to attempt to stop the aircraft.

56
Q

As the aircraft accelerates, the risks associated with abandoning the take off increase significantly.

For modern jet aircraft, at speeds above…

A

…80kt, flight deck procedures balance for the seriousness of a failure with the increased risk associated with rejecting the take off.

Consequently, above 80kt the take off clearance should normally only be cancelled if there is a serious risk of collision should the aircraft continue its take off, or if substantial debris is observed or reported on the runway in a location likely to result in damage to the aircraft.

The typical distance at which a jet aircraft reaches 80kt is approximately 300m from the point at which the take off roll commenced

57
Q

Controllers should also be aware of the possibility that an aircraft that abandons its take off may suffer…

A

…overheated brakes or another abnormal situation and should be prepared to declare the appropriate category of emergency or to provide other suitable assistance.

58
Q

If an aircraft enters a traffic circuit without proper authorisation, the possibility of…

A

…an emergency must be recognised.

The aircraft should be permitted to land if it’s actions indicate that it wishes to do so and, if necessary, other aircraft are to be instructed to give way

59
Q

Unless MATS 2 states otherwise, landing, low approach and tough and go clearances shall include…

A

…the designator of the landing runway

60
Q

Unless specific procedures have been approved by the CAA, a landing aircraft shall not be permitted to…

A

…cross the beginning of the runway on its final approach until a preceding aircraft, departing from the same runway, is airborne

61
Q

When a pilot requests the instantaneous surface wind…

A

…the word ‘instant’ is to be inserted to indicate that the wind being reported is not the 2 minute average

62
Q

When aircraft are using the same runway, a landing aircraft may be permitted to touch down before a preceding landing aircraft which has landed is clear of the runway provided that:

A

1) the runway is long enough to allow safe separation between the 2 aircraft and there is no evidence to indicate that braking may be adversely affected
2) it is during daylight hours
3) the preceding landing aircraft is not required to backtrack in order to vacate the runway
4) the controller is satisfied that the landing aircraft will be able to see the preceding aircraft which has landed, clearly and continuously, until it has vacated the runway
5) the pilot of the following aircraft is warned. Responsibility for ensuring adequate separation rests with the pilot of the following aircraft

63
Q

A landing aircraft which is considered by a controller to be dangerously positioned on final approach shall be instructed to…

A

…carry out a missed approach.

An aircraft can be considered as dangerously positioned when it is poorly placed either laterally or vertically for the landing runway

64
Q

With the exception of instructions to go around…

A

…instructions shall not be issued to aircraft in the final stages of approaching to land that would require it to deviate from its expected flight path unless exceptional and overriding safety considerations apply.

65
Q

Aircraft in the traffic circuit shall be controlled in accordance with the procedures above except that controllers are not required to apply the separation minima described in those paragraphs to:

A

1) aircraft in formation with respect to other aircraft in the same formation
2) aircraft operating in different areas or lanes on aerodromes equipped with runways suitable for simultaneous landings or take offs
3) aircraft operating under military necessity as determined by the appropriate authority

66
Q

An ATM is provided at certain aerodromes to assist in achieving maximum runway utilisation and aerodrome capacity.

Operation of an ATM is not associated with a particular rating and, unless authorised by the CAA, must not be used as an ATS surveillance system to provide approach radar services.

The information derived from the ATM may be used to:

A

1) determine the landing order, spacing and distance from touchdown of arriving aircraft
2) assist in applying longitudinal separation
3) enable the controller to confirm that the initial track of a departing aircraft conforms with the clearance issued
4) provide information to aircraft on the position of other aircraft in the circuit or carrying out an instrument approach

When approved by the CAA and subject to the conditions below, the ATM may also be used to:

1) following identification, validate SSR codes of departing aircraft and verify associated Mode C read outs
2) monitor the progress of overflying aircraft identified by APC to ensure that they do not conflict with the tracks of arriving or departing aircraft
3) establish separation between departing aircraft
4) pass TI
5) establish separation in the event of a missed approach
6) assist in taking corrective action when the separation between arriving aircraft becomes less than the prescribed minima

Provided that:

A) the controller has undertaken specified training

B) the controller is only providing an air control service and a separate ground control service is being provided by another controller on a separate frequency (if Air and GMC are combined, units may apply to be exempt)

C) the procedures are detailed in MATS 2

67
Q

If the runway in use is occupied by aircraft or vehicles, an approaching aircraft that has requested a low approach or a touch and go may be cleared to carry out a low approach…

A

…restricted to a height not below 400ft above threshold elevation.

In such circumstances, the pilot is to be informed of the aircraft or vehicle on the runway.

Additionally, the aircraft or vehicle on the runway is to be informed of the aircraft carrying out the low approach.

For aircraft operating on the aerodrome QNH the low approach altitude restriction is to be based on 400ft plus threshold elevation, rounded up to the nearest 50ft.

The runway in use is to be kept clear of aircraft and vehicles if an approaching aircraft is likely to descend below 400ft above threshold elevation.

68
Q

Normally the runway in use selected should be…

A

…that most closely aligned to the surface wind direction.

Where the surface wind conditions are light and variable, the 2000ft wind should be taken into account before selecting the runway in use

69
Q

When selecting the runway in use, ADC shall take into consideration other factors such as…

A

…traffic pattern, the length of runways or landing runs, approach aids available and any met conditions which may be significant to the choice of runway.

At certain aerodromes more than one runway may be in use at any one time.

70
Q

There are numerous reasons for using an out of wind runway, for example…

A

…operations, efficiency and noise abatement

71
Q

A runway may be nominated for noise abatement purposes, the objective being…

A

…to utilise whenever possible those runways that permit aeroplanes to avoid noise sensitive areas during the initial departure and final approach phases of flight

72
Q

A runway shall not be selected for noise abatement purposes for landing operations unless…

A

…visual or instrument glide path guidance is available to that runway

73
Q

Noise abatement shall not be the determining factor in runway nomination when it is known that…

A

…the crosswind component, including gusts, exceeds 15kt or the tailwind component, including gusts, exceeds 5kt

74
Q

Additional parameters when noise abatement is not to be used as a determining factor in runway selection shall be agreed with the AO, taking due consideration of:

A

1) the degree and type of runway surface contamination
2) minimum visibility and cloud ceiling
3) other weather conditions such as wind shear and thunderstorms
4) if the pilot, prompted by safety concerns, considers that a runway offered, including those for noise abatement purposes, is not suitable he may refuse that runway and request permission to use another. In such circumstances controllers shall inform pilots of the expected delay necessary to facilitate a change of runway

75
Q

Should a runway change be necessary ADC after consultation with APC shall inform the following:

A

1) aircraft under his control
2) RFFS
3) contractors working on the aerodrome who will be affected by the change
4) other agencies according to local instructions

76
Q

The AO is responsible for decisions regarding the operational status of the aerodrome including the apron and manoeuvring area in respect of:

A

1) routine operational limitations eg runway maintenance

2) unforeseen hazards to aircraft ops eg deteriorating surface conditions, obstructions etc

77
Q

Specifically, the AO will make decisions regarding:

A

A) the closure or re-opening of the aerodrome

B) the withdrawal or return to use of runways, taxiways and associated lighting aids

C) the revision of declared distances

D) any marking required in connection with the above

E) initiating NOTAM action to promulgate changes in serviceability

78
Q

The AO shall be informed immediately it becomes apparent from reports or observations that…

A

…there is a hazard to the movement of aircraft on the apron or manoeuvring area

79
Q

The AO may take some time to assess the situation. During this period the controller is to decide the action to take according to the circumstances:

A

1) where an operational occurrence has resulted in an obstruction in the vicinity of the runway in use:

A) with old take off and landing clearance when the obstruction is within the cleared and graded area of the runway

B) without take off and landing clearance if there is any doubt as to the position of the obstruction

Pilots will be advised of the reason for withholding clearance together with the position and nature of the obstruction

2) when the obstruction is obviously outside the cleared and graded area but on or in the vicinity of the apron or manoeuvring area the pilot will be advised of the position and nature of the obstruction.

It is the responsibility of the pilot to decide whether or not to continue operations.

80
Q

When the AO has decided the operational status of the apron or manoeuvring area they will inform ATC.

The parent ACC…

A

…should be informed of any situations which may restrict operations at the aerodrome.

81
Q

To cover the possibility of an aircraft which departs within 15 minutes of normal aerodrome closing time having to return…

A

…the AO will normally retain sufficient services and equipment for 15 minutes after ATD.

If the AO informs ATC of a change in the extent of the services or equipment which will be available during this period the pilot should be advised accordingly.

82
Q

When repair or installation work is to take place on the manoeuvring area, a representative of the working party must be briefed by ATC or the AO about subjects relating to the proposed work, for example:

A

1) methods of access to the working area
2) the area in which vehicles may operate
3) the runway in use and the effects of any changes
4) methods of obtaining permission to cross the runway in use
5) signals or methods of indicating that vehicles and personnel must leave the manoeuvring area

83
Q

Runway inspections:

A

MATS 2 will detail the arrangements at aerodromes where the AO retains the task of inspection or has delegated it to another agency.

Following any incident, or suspected incident, on a runway involving tyre failure, aircraft structural failure or, in the case of turbine engines aircraft, engine malfunction, the runway is to be inspected before any other aircraft are allowed to use it.

Runway inspections are to be arranged through the AO at aerodromes where ATC are not responsible for surface inspections

84
Q

The fire service category of an aerodrome is assessed according to…

A

…the length of the longest aircraft expected to use it

85
Q

Changes in the level of RFFS protection normally available at an aerodrome will be notified by…

A

…the AO to the appropriate ATC unit to enable the necessary information to be provided to arriving and departing aircraft.

ATC responsibilities are limited to the dissemination of information to flight crews as provided by the AO.

86
Q

ATC shall ensure that unplanned reductions in the RFFS category are notified to…

A

…flight crew either via ATIS or directly by RT.

On receipt of such information, flight crew will decide whether to continue their flight or to divert according to their SOPs.

Controllers should normally expect the aircraft to covert if the available RFFS category does not meet that required for the aircraft type.

Exceptions to the above could be expected for emergency landings and for occasions when, in the pilots opinion, a diversion or hold may introduce a more significant hazard.

Controllers shall continue to provide normal ATS and clearances in response to flight crew intentions.

87
Q

In agreement with the royal racing pigeon association, it has been agreed that…

A

…a proposed liberation of racing pigeons within 13km of a licensed aerodrome should be notified to the AO or ATSU at least 14 days prior to the date of release.

In addition, the ATCU should be notified by telephone at least 30 minutes before release time, in order to confirm the number of birds due to be liberated and the intended destination and direction of flight.

If necessary, the SCOD may request a delay in the liberation by up to 30 minutes (or longer in exceptional circumstances) for traffic purposes.