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Med Surg > Test 4-Oncology, Immunologic Diseases, Osteoporosis, Women’s Health > Flashcards

Test 4-Oncology, Immunologic Diseases, Osteoporosis, Women’s Health Flashcards

1
Q

Malignant tumors ______ through the _____ and ______ system and invade surrounding tissue.

A

Metastasize

Lymphatic and circulatory

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2
Q

_____ neoplasm: arises from cells that are normally of that structure

A

Primary neoplasm

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3
Q

____ neoplasm: arises from cells that metastasizes from another part of the body.

A

Secondary neoplasm

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4
Q

______ tumors do not respond to the rules that govern growth.

A

Malignant

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5
Q

A ____ tumor is one that grows slowly and the cells resemble normal cells of that tissue from which it originated. It is usually encapsulated and does NOT infiltrate surrounding tissue.

A

Benign

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6
Q

(Benign tumor)

Def: soft, fatty tumor that develops in adipose tissue, commonly found on the neck, back, and buttocks.

A

Lipoma

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7
Q

(Benign tumor)

Def: tumor of the muscle, they are rare in voluntary muscles; if found in uterus, they are called fibroid tumors.

A

Myoma

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8
Q

(Benign tumor)

Def: tumor composed of blood vessels, typically red birthmark or port wine stain

A

Angioma

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9
Q

(Benign tumor)

Def: Refers to the common mole

A

Nevus

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10
Q

(Benign tumor)

Def: an epithelial tumor that grows as a projection on the skin, polyp.

A

Papilloma

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11
Q

(Benign tumor)

Def: tumor of glandular tissue

A

Adenoma

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12
Q

Cancer cells differ from normal cells in that:
- They are [less or more?] likely to survive bc they lack the machinery necessary to sustain life.

  • They have ____ nutrient demands since they are unable to make their own food
  • Lack cellular _______, they do adhere to each other, but not at the same extent. It is easier for them to break free and travel.
A

Less likely to survive

Higher nutrient demands

Lack cellular cohesiveness

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13
Q

When it comes to classifying tumors, the terms used are ____ and ____.

A

Staging and grading

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14
Q

In grading of tumor cells:

Grade __ : Tumor cells are well differentiated, closely resembling normal parent tissue. Individuals have a high survival rate.

A

Grade I

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15
Q

Grade __ and __: Tumor cells are intermediate in appearance, moderately or poorly differentiated.

A

II and III

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16
Q

Grade __: Tumor cells are so anaplastic that recognition of the tumor’s tissue origin is difficult. These individuals have a poor survival rate.

A

IV

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17
Q

Which is thought to be more useful, staging or grading?

A

Staging

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18
Q

Staging neoplasms involves estimating the extent to which a tumor has spread.
Staging is often done by the ____ system.

A

TNM

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19
Q

The T in the TNM system refers to the ____ and extent of the primary tumor.

A

Size

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20
Q

The N refers to the ____ of area lymph nodes involved.

A

Number

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21
Q

The M refers to any ____ of the primary tumor.

A

Metastasis

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22
Q

Normal tissue contains cells of uniform size, shape, maturity, and nuclear structure. Normal cells also have the characteristic of cell _______.

A

Differentiation

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23
Q

Def: Refers to the specialized structure and function of any given cell and to the extent to which each cell resembles its normal parent cell.

A

Differentiation

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24
Q

In _____ cells, differentiation is altered and may be lost completely so that the cell may not be recognizable in relationship to its _____ cell. In general, the less differentiated a tumor is, the worse the prognosis.

A

Malignant

Parent cell

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25
Q

Def: Indicates a disorganization of cells in which the adult cell varies from its normal size, shape, or organization. It may reverse itself or progress to cancer.

A

Dysplasia

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26
Q

Def: This is sometimes referred to as early dysplasia. It is when one adult cell changes from one type to another.

A

Metaplasia

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27
Q

Def: Loss of cellular differentiation. It is the most advanced form of metaplasia and is characteristic of malignant cell only.

A

Anaplasia

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28
Q

Def: Increase in the number of cells, resulting in increased tissue mass. This can be a normal process, however.

A

Hyperplasia

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29
Q

Def: Increase of cell mass due to tumor formation and is an ABNORMAL process.

A

Neoplastic hyperplasia

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30
Q

Factors that may increase susceptibility to cancer:

A 
Heredity
Occupation
Tobacco use
Diet
Sun exposure
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31
Q 
Cancer’s 7 warning signs: CAUTION
C:
A:
U:
T:
I:
O:
N:
A

Change in bowel or bladder habits

A sore that does not heal

Unusual bleeding or discharge

Thickening or lump in breast or elsewhere

Indigestion or difficulty in swallowing

Obvious change in wart or mole

Nagging cough or hoarseness
*if any last more than 5 days, consult doctor

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32
Q

Proximal muscle weakness and change in 2 or more deep tendon reflexes known as ______ _______.

A

Carcinomatous neuromyopathy

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33
Q 
ABCD method of skin lesion abnormality:
A-
B-
C-
D-
and
E-
A

Asymmetry
Border (irregular edges scalloped or poorly defined)
Color (black, red, white, shades of brown)
Diameter (larger than a pencil eraser)
Evolving

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34
Q

Cancer cells can spread throughout the body through the blood stream via ______ system or by direct extension into neighboring _____.

A

Lymphatic system

Tissues

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35
Q

Benign Mechanical transport:
2 potential modes of mechanical transport: Transport of ______ cells displaced by biopsy of the primary tumor and ______ ______ assisted sentinel lymph node localization-breast cancer staging.

A

Epithelial cells
Breast massage

*Metastatic spread may occur as late as 15-20 years after initial diagnosis and treatment

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36
Q

5 most common sites of metastasis are:

A

Bone, lymph nodes, lung, liver, and brain

*PTA will most likely observe symptoms affecting skeletal, CNS, pulmonary, and hepatic systems

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37
Q

_____ and _____ carcinomas are responsible for half of all metastatic brain lesions.

A

Lung and breast

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38
Q

Primary tumors of CNS rarely develop metastases outside the CNS, however when metastasis does take place spread occurs via the ____ or by direct extension.
Spinal cord and nerve root _______ cause either insidious or rapid loss of neurologic function.

A

CSF

Compression

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39
Q

This compression factor of spinal nerves or cord occurs in approx __% of persons with systemic cancer caused by carcinomas of the lung, breast, prostate, or kidney. _______ and multiple _____ may also result in spinal cord/nerve root compression.

A

5%

Lymphoma and multiple myeloma

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40
Q

______ cancer is the most common primary tumor to metastasize to the brain.

A

Lung

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41
Q

Venous drainage of most areas of the body are through the superior and inferior vena cava into the heart making the ______ the first organ to filter malignant cells.

A

Lung

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42
Q

______ pain and dyspnea may be the first symptoms of pulmonary metastasis. Tumor cells traveling from the lung via pulmonary veins and carotid artery can result in metastases to the ____.

A

Pleural pain

CNS

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43
Q

______ metastases are among the most ominous signs of advanced cancer. The ____ filters blood coming in from gastrointestinal tract making it a primary metastatic site for tumors of the stomach, colorectum, and pancreas. Patient has abdominal tenderness with malaise and fatigue.

A

Liver (both blanks)

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44
Q

_____ metastases represent the initial site of metastatic disease in a large number of cancer cases. The primary symptom is pain. The three primary sites responsible for most metastatic ____ disease are the _____, _______, and ______.

A

Bone
Bone
Lung, breast, prostate

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45
Q

Biological mechanisms involved in the development of chronic cancer pain:

  • Bone destruction: Pain threshold is reduced through sensitization of free ____ ____
  • Obstruction of a hollow visceral organ and ducts: type of pain produced is _____, collicky, dull, burning etc.
  • Infiltration or distention of the integument or tissues
  • Inflammation, infection, and necrosis tissue
A

Nerve endings

Crampy

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46
Q

Basic modalities for cancer treatment are surgery, ______, _______, biologic response modifiers and bone marrow transplantation.
What are biologic response modifiers?

A

Chemo, radiation

Agents that modify the relationship between tumor and host for strengthening the host’s biologic response to tumor cells

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47
Q

Patients with cancer need to ______ frequently throughout exercise. Adequate nutrition and _____ are also important.

A

Rest

Hydration

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48
Q

Gels, lotions, oils or other topical agents should not be used over ______ skin without doctor approval.

A

Irradiated

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49
Q

Most common form of cancer diagnosed in U.S.

A

Skin

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50
Q

Three major types of skin cancer:

A

Basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma

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51
Q

Which two are most common of skin cancers?

A

Basal cell and squamous cell carcinoma

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52
Q

Between Basal cell and squamous cell which is more serious because it may metastasize?

A

Squamous cell

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53
Q

_____ cell carcinoma: Smooth, small, waxy nodule that appears translucent

A

Basal

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54
Q

______ cell carcinoma: A firm, red nodule with visible scales. Produces keratin.

A

Squamous

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55
Q

_______ melanoma: A neoplasm composed of abnormal melanocytes appearing in both the epidermis and dermis. Lesion has irregular borders and a diversity of colors

A

Malignant melanoma

*Causes more deaths than all other skin diseases

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56
Q

Treatment of melanoma: the level of invasion and measure of the melanoma’s _____ will determine the appropriate treatment. Surgical excision of the lesion is the most common treatment modality.

A

Thickness

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57
Q

Those at greatest risk of breast cancer are women over the age of ___ who have not had children or women who have not had children until age of ___.

A

50

35

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58
Q

Signs of breast cancer: breast changes such as a _____, thickening, Dimpling, swelling, skin irritation, distortion, retraction or scalenus of the nipple, nipple discharge, pain or tenderness.

A

Lump

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59
Q

Def:Removing the affected breast, underlying chest muscles, and associated lymphatics

A

Radical mastectomy

60
Q

Def: The removal of only the tumor and immediate adjacent breast tissue

A

Lumpectomy

61
Q

Def: Cancer of the lining of the uterus. Usually occurs in postmenopausal women between the ages of 55 and 70

A

Endometrial cancer

62
Q

S&S of Endometrial cancer:
A bloody discharge at anytime other than the menstrual period
Treatment: _________ and removal of ovaries, tubes and uterus, and surrounding lymph nodes, radiation, chemotherapy, and hormonal therapy

A

Hysterectomy

63
Q

What is the most common reproductive cancer in women?

A

Ovarian cancer

64
Q

The majority of prostatic neoplasms are classified as _____carcinomas. Prostate cancer tends to metastasize, often spreading to the bones of the ____ or ____ before it’s detected.

A

Adenocarcinomas

Spine or pelvis

65
Q

What type of cancer primarily affects young middle aged men?

A

Testicular cancer

66
Q

Def: A malignant disease of the blood forming organs. It is the most common cancer in children and young adults.

A

Leukemia

67
Q

Def: Type of leukemia that has a rapid onset and progression. This type is most common in children between two and four years with a second peak incidence at age 65.

A

Acute leukemia

*100% mortality if not treated quickly

68
Q

Def: Type of leukemia that has a slower course and occurs in individuals between 25 and 60 years of age

A

Chronic leukemia

69
Q

Leukemia develops in the ____ ____ and is characterized by abnormal multiplication and release of ____ (abbrev) precursors. They are immature cells and the bone marrow becomes overcrowded with them and they spill over into peripheral circulation.

A

Bone marrow

WBC (white blood cells)

70
Q

The two major forms of leukemia are:

1) _________ : Involves the lymphocytes and lymphoid organs
2) _______: Involves hematopoietic stem cells

A

1) Lymphocytic

2) Nonlymphocytic

71
Q

The most common Leukemia in children is ______ _______ leukemia.

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

72
Q

The most common Leukemia in adults is ______ _______ leukemia.

A

Acute nonlymphocytic leukemia

73
Q

Leukemic cells may invade the liver, kidneys, ______, ______, or ______,

A

Lung, heart, brain

74
Q

Signs and symptoms of leukemia: _____ symptoms that do not clear up within two weeks, fatigue, weight loss, repeated infections, and easy bruising

A

Cold

75
Q

Def: A primary malignant bone tumor associated with widespread osteolytic lesions.
*Osteolytic lesions are decreased areas of bone density

A

Multiple myeloma

*Also known as plasma cell myeloma

76
Q

The most common symptom of Multiple Myeloma is _____ pain.

A

Bone

*This is due to the infiltration of plasma cells into the bone marrow with eventual destruction of the bone

77
Q

If multiple myeloma continues untreated it will result in skeletal deformities (ribs, sternum, spine), _________ develops, possible _____ stone formation, dehydration (Due to kidney trying to eliminate excess Ca), anemia, and potential neurologic complications.

A

Osteoporosis

Renal

78
Q

Def: A neoplastic malignancy of the lymphatic system characterized by painless enlargement of the lymph nodes, spleen, and other lymphatic tissues. Occurs most frequently in young and middle-aged adults. The disease characterized by exacerbation and remission of symptoms.

A

Hodgkin’s disease (Hodgkin’s lymphoma)

79
Q

Def: Arise from supportive and connective tissue such as bone, fat, muscle, and cartilage. Malignant tumors of connective tissue are named by adding this term to the type of tissue involved.

A

Sarcoma
Ex. Osteosarcoma, chondrosarcoma
Just ‘oma’ reflects a benign tumor

80
Q

Def: The most common type of bone cancer, occurring between the ages of 10 and 25 years; most common in boys. The usual site of occurrence is the epiphysis of long bones.

A

Osteosarcoma

81
Q

Most osteosarcomas occur in the upper ____ above the ____.

S&S: pain at lesion site, lump, occurrence of _______ fractures.

A

Upper leg above knee

Pathological fractures

82
Q

_________ sarcoma: Malignant tumor of the bones which occurs between the ages of 5 and 16 years. Any bone can be affected but the pelvis, femur, tibia, ulna, and metatarsals are the most common sites. Metastasis is usually in late stage and involves the lung and other bone.

A

Ewing’s Sarcoma

*S&S: Soft, tender, palpable mass because it quickly erodes the bone cortex

83
Q

Def: Malignant cartilage tumor that occurs in adults over 40. It occurs mostly in pelvis or shoulder girdle, or long bones.
S&S: Back and thigh pain, sciatica, bladder symptoms, unilateral edema

A

Chondrosarcoma

84
Q

Primary brain tumors are benign or malignant neoplasms originating within the brain.
Secondary brain tumors are the result of metastasis of neoplasms from elsewhere in the body.
which is more common?

A

Secondary

85
Q

Spinal cord tumors occur most often in young to middle-aged adults in the area of the ____ spine.
Signs: Back pain, may be aggravated by lying down, coughing, sneezing, or weight-bearing. Pain occurs most often at rest. Spinal cord _______ is most common clinical manifestation.

A

Thoracic

Compression

86
Q

Def: This cancer is more prevalent in men. The ______ is the most common site for metastatic cancer from the G.I. system, rarely occurs as a primary site. Generally is secondary to primary colorectal, stomach, pancreas, esophageal, lung or breast cancer. Primary tumors are usually due to alcoholism and cirrhosis.

A

Liver cancer

87
Q

Pancreatic cancer occurs most frequently in the ____ of the pancreas.
S&S: Anorexia, weight loss, jaundice, insulin insufficiency signs, glucose intolerance
Tx: Palliative

A

Head

88
Q

Lung cancer is a malignancy in the epithelium of the respiratory tract.
There are four major types of lung cancers:

A

Small cell carcinoma (oat cell)
Squamous cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Large cell carcinoma

89
Q

Presentation of lung cancer often mimics other pulmonary conditions and initially may appear as _____ or _____ pain.

A

Chest or shoulder pain

90
Q

Def: The study of the physiologic mechanisms that allow the body to recognize materials as foreign and to neutralize or eliminate them

A

Immunology

91
Q

The primary role of the immune system is to recognize and _______ foreign substances such as Bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites and to prevent the proliferation of mutant cells such as those involved in malignant transformation.

A

Destroy

92
Q

Excessive or inappropriate activity of the immune system can result in _________ states, immune complex disease, or auto-immune disease.

A

Hypersensitivity

93
Q

Immune system recognizes the cell markers and tolerates them as self, and produces self tolerance. These cell markers are on the surface of all cells and are known as the major ________complex. These cell markers not only determine which antigens an individual responds to and how strongly, but also allow immune system’s cells to recognize and communicate with one another.

A

Histocompatibility complex

94
Q

The immune response:
The body is protected in three ways-
1) Normal body structures function to block entry of germs (tears, mucous membranes, pH, intact skin and cilia)
2) ________ response-Leukocytes engulf invading organisms by phagocytosis
3) A ______ immune response-Causes a protective reaction to a foreign antigen

A

Inflammatory

A specific immune response

95
Q

Def: Type of immunity such as genetic feature specific to race, sex, and the individual’s ability to respond. The bodies normal structure and function are natural defenses.

A

Natural immunity

96
Q

Def: Type of immunity that indicates the body has developed the ability to defend itself against a specific agent. This can occur secondary to having a disease or after receiving an immunization against a disease.

A

Acquired immunity

97
Q

2 types of acquired immunity:

1) _______- The body’s major defense against bacteria. The body produces antibodies or immunoglobulins that eliminate the foreign substance or antigen. These antibodies are formed by WBCs called __-cell lymphocytes
2) ______- Action taken by a group of white cells called __-cell lymphocytes. These are the main protection against viruses, fungi, parasites, some bacteria and tumors.

A

Humoral immunity, B-cell lymphocytes

Cell mediated immunity, T-cell lymphocytes

98
Q

Def: When the immune response is inappropriate

A

Allergy

99
Q

Def: When the immune response is misdirected

A

Autoimmunity

100
Q

Def: When the immune response is inadequate

A

Immunodeficiency

101
Q

It is important to maintain individual’s _______ and to administer CPR in the event of cardiac arrest.

A

airway

102
Q

Organs of the immune system:

A

1) Bone marrow and thymus gland- role is development of cells
2) Lymph nodes- Contain lymphocytes (B and T) and macrophages
3) Spleen- Chief site of filtering response to antigens; phagocytosis takes place
4) Tonsils, Peyer’s patch and appendix- Masses of lymphoid tissues containing lymphocytes

103
Q

Immune response depends on the following:

  • Amount of ______ introduced
  • _____ of introduction
  • ______ of antigen introduced
A

Amount of antigen introduced
Site of introduction
Type of antigen introduced

104
Q

Def: This is when abnormal reproduction or multiplication of the cells of the lymphoid system results in leukemia

A

Immunoproliferative

105
Q

Central nervous system disorders:

_________ is the most common lesion in HIV infected clients.

A

Toxoplasmosis

106
Q

AIDS ______ ______: Most common cause of mental status change in HIV-infected clients. The client will present with cognitive, motor, and behavioral dysfunction.

A

Aids dementia complex

107
Q

________ nerve disease Is a common complication of HIV infections. The cytomegalovirus may infect the nerve roots causing an ascending polyradiculopathy characterized by lower extremity weakness progressing to flaccid paralysis.

A

Peripheral nerve disease

108
Q

Pelvic floor biofeedback for incontinence:
The tool used is abbreviated SEMG, what does it stand for?
What position are you in when using biofeedback machine?

A

Surface muscle Electromyographic Biofeedback *kegel style exercise

Lying down with legs up in a chair at 90°, hold contraction for 10 sec

109
Q

During pregnancy the uterus increases __-__ times normal size and ___ times in weight.

A

5-6

20x

110
Q

During pregnancy the blood volume increases by ___%

A

50%

111
Q

During pregnancy there is increased pressure on inferior vena cava due to uterine pressure, this can lead to _____ ______ syndrome.

A

Supine Hypotensive Syndrome

*decreased cardiac output in supine due to IVC being compressed

112
Q

During pregnancy BP _____(increases or decrease?) in 1st and 2nd trimester and HR ______ by 10-20 bpm.
CO increases 30-60%.

A

BP Decreases

HR Increases

113
Q

During pregnancy, all spinal curvatures are increased and the pelvis tilts ______.

A

Anteriorly

114
Q

What happens to the resting metabolic rate during pregnancy?

*Also, the fasting blood sugar is lower than non-pregnant women.

A

It increases due to fetus

115
Q

The prime mover of the pelvic floor is the ______ ____.

A

Levator ani

116
Q

The pelvic floor is designed to _____ the pelvic organs, withstand _____ Intra-abdominal pressures, stabilize the ____ and pelvis, maintain urinary and fecal continence and perform reproductive functions.

A

Support
Increased
Spine

117
Q

During vaginal delivery the pudendal and levator ani nerves are stretched up to ___% of its total length. Pelvic floor complex is stretched and may be torn or incised; may lead to prolapse, incontinence, pelvic pain, hypertonicity

A

20%

118
Q

What is diastasis recti?

A

Separation of rectus abdominis muscle at linea alba

119
Q

Exercise guidelines for pregnant women:

  • Do not exceed five minutes in ______ position after 1st trimester
  • Limit single leg WB ex>SIJ stress
  • Work single mm groups vs multi jt
  • Physical agents contraindicated
A

Supine

120
Q

What type of ex helps to prevent diastasis recti from worsening?

A

Do isometric ex, more TA contraction rather than rectus abdominis, manually hold abdomen together to decrease bulge

121
Q

Contraindications to Exercise for pregnant women:

  • vaginal bleeding
  • Placenta previa , bed rest
  • Incompetent cervix, bed rest
  • Preeclampsia, HTN
  • Maternal heart dz, thyroid dz, type 1 DM
A

You remember any of these bruh?

122
Q

Name some exercises for pregnant women:

A
  • Kegel
  • Pelvic tilt
  • Pelvic clock
  • Diagonal curls (support Linea alba w/ crossed hands)
  • Bridging
  • Quadruped leg lifts
  • Modified wall slides
  • Scap retraction
123
Q

Changes in the spinal column due to osteoporosis: Intravertebral discs lose ____, compress, decreased height> kyphosis and spinal _____

A

Lose water

Spinal stenosis

124
Q

Osteoporotic bones have decreased mineral _____, decreased tolerance to compressive and bending forces.
What kind of exercise should be done to help?

A

Decr mineral density

WB exercise

125
Q

You have to make sure you have enough vitamin ____ to utilize calcium.
(Osteoporosis)

A

Vit D

126
Q

Types of OP:
______ OP- Age related changes or senile, disuse, postmenopausal

_____ OP- Related to medication or other diagnoses causing changes in bone density

A

Primary OP

Secondary OP

127
Q

Hormonal osteoporosis:
After menopause estrogen levels decrease, bone resorption increases and calcium loss increases making bones more susceptible to _____ as well as ______ in structure.

A

Fracture

Deformity

128
Q

Disuse osteoporosis:
All tissues of the body atrophy when not used including bone tissue. Bone deposition is encouraged through activity due to the stresses produced (wb activities) which will stimulate osteoblastic activity. In disuse atrophy there is an imbalance in osteoblastic and osteoclastic activity. ____ ____ and ____ most often effected.

A

LE and spine

129
Q

Biphosphonates make _____ activity higher. (Meds for OP)

A

Osteoblast

130
Q

Def: Procedure for compression fracture where a balloon is inflated to create space in vertebral body and cement is injected to keep vertebra from collapsing

A

Kyphoplasty

131
Q

Recommendations for patients with osteoporosis:

  • Screen all patients for fall risk
  • Educate on risks and importance of exercise
  • Have patient perform weight-bearing, ______, and ______ exercise that emphasize postural extension 2-3x/week
  • Perform core and abdominal strengthening in a non-flexed position
  • NWB ex such as bicycle ergometer
A

Strengthening, resistance

132
Q

Exercise guidelines:
Intensity- ___ Minutes of moderate intensity, such as fast walking, or 20 minutes of vigorous intensity (running). Doing three short bouts per day of 10 minutes of activity is acceptable.

A

30 min

133
Q

OP precautions/contras:
Avoid ______ activities and exercise, such as spine curl ups and sit ups as well as the use of sitting Abdominal machines

A

Flexion

134
Q

Biphosphonates limit resorption of minerals from bone, used for OP.
2 brand names are:

A

Fosamax, Boniva

135
Q

What are the three elements of the female athlete triad?

*78% of female high school athletes

A
  • Low energy availability
  • Menstrual disturbance
  • Low bone mineral density
136
Q

Def: A systemic and an immediate hypersensitivity. It causes vasodilation and increase cell permeability, with fluid accumulation in the interstitial spaces, resulting in bronchospasms, uticaria, and anaphylactic shock

A

Anaphylaxis

137
Q

Def: A complex immuno logical phenomenon that involves cell mediated and antibody mediated responses both which are targeted at the antigens in the graft. May be classified as hyper acute, acute, and chronic. The usual consequence is the graphs never becomes vascularized.

A

Graft rejections

138
Q

______ rejection may occur within three months or as late as two years after a transplant.
______ rejection is when the transplanted tissue or organ deteriorates gradually. This condition may be asymptomatic. Anti-rejection medication may slow the process but eventually organs will fail and need to be re-transplanted.

A

Acute

Chronic

139
Q

Def: A chronic inflammatory disorder characterized by dry eyes and dry mouth. It can be primary or secondary, but it is usually secondary to rheumatoid arthritis. It is autoimmune in nature whereas the body destroys the exocrine glands, particularly the salivary and lacrimal gland’s as if they were foreign bodies. Resulting in decreased or absent production of tears and saliva.

A

Sjogren’s Syndrome

140
Q

Def: Chronic, systemic, inflammatory connective tissue disorder in which cells and tissues throughout the body are damaged by a variety of auto-antibodies and immune complexes.The disease affects women in 90% of the cases. Most common and striking manifestation of the disease is the “butterfly rash”

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

141
Q

Two types of lupus:
____ lupus: A limited form of the disease confined to the skin
____ lupus: More severe and can affect almost any organ or body system

A

Discoid

Systemic

142
Q

Systemic Lupus Erythrmatosus:
The mild stage of the disease requires only oral anti-inflammatory agents, including aspirin. Skin lesions will require a topical treatment such as
________ creams.

A

Corticosteroid

*Corticosteroid drugs treatment of choice to control SLE

143
Q

Def: A progressive, chronic, systemic disease characterized by inflammation and diffuse fibrosis of the skin and internal organs. It is known that the connective tissue cells of people with this disease Produce too much of the protein called collagen. This excess collagen is deposited in the skin and body organs causing thickening and hardening of the skin.

A

Scleroderma

144
Q

The two major forms of scleroderma are:
______- purely cutaneous; Skin becomes thickened and densely fibrous
_____- Form in which both skin and internal organs are involved

A

Morphea

Systemic

145
Q

S&S of Scleroderma:
_______ phenomenon is generally first symptom, followed by pain, stiffness, and swelling of the fingers and joints. The skin becomes thick, shiny, and taut. Contractures eventually develop. Gastrointestinal symptoms occurs as well.

A

Raynauds Phenomenon

*Intermittent interruptions a blood supply to fingers, toes, and sometimes ears

146
Q

Def: chronic, progressive disease of connective tissue characterized by Edema, inflammation, and degeneration of the skeletal muscles. It appears more frequently in women and usually occurs between 30 and 60. It is an idiopathic disease. Nearly 1/3 of cases are associated with other connective tissue disorder such as RA and SLE.

A

Polymyositis

*When the disease occurs with skin involvement it is called dermatomyositis

147
Q

S&S of Polymyositis:
Develops over a few months to a few years. Most frequent initial manifestation is muscle weakness in the ____ and ____.
PT purpose is to regain _____ function.

A

Hip and thighs

Muscle

Med Surg (6 decks)

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