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MRCP > Oncology > Flashcards

Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

What is CA 19-9 a tumour marker for

A

Pancreatic cancer

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2
Q

What is CA 15-3 a tumour marker for

A

Breast cancer

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3
Q

What tumour marker is useful for teratomas

A

Alpha-feto protein

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4
Q

Which cancers is S-100 a tumour marker for

A

Melanoma, schwannoma

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5
Q

What is the screening programme for colorectal cancer

A

FIT testing every 2 years between 60-74 years old, abnormal result will be offered colonoscopy

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6
Q

After positive FIT test, how many patients will have colorectal ca on colonoscopy

A

10%

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7
Q

What are the risk factors for bladder cancer

A

Smoking, aniline dyes/aromatic amines (rubber manufacturing), schistosomiasis, cyclophosphamide

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8
Q

Which blood group has increased risk of gastric cancer

A

Blood group A

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9
Q

What does gastric adenocarcinoma show on biopsy

A

Signet ring cells

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10
Q

What conditions are thymomas associated with

A

MG, red cell aplasia, dermatomyositis, SLE, SIADH

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11
Q

Which malignancy is most commonly associated with SVC obstruction

A

Lung cancer (SCLC)

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12
Q

What is the immediate management of SVC obstruction

A

IV dexamethasone and LMWH

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13
Q

What is the MOA of cyclophosphamide

A

Alkylating agent - causes cross-linking in DNA

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14
Q

What are the side effects of cyclophosphamide

A

Haemorrhagic cystitis, transitional cell carcinoma, myelosuppression

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15
Q

What is the main side effect of doxorubicin

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy

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16
Q

What is the MOA of 5-FU (fluorouracil)

A

Pyramidine analogue - induces cell cycle arrest during S phase

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17
Q

What is the MOA of vincristine

A

Mitosis inhibitor (M stage of cell cycle)

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18
Q

What is the MOA of docetaxel

A

Taxane - prevents microtubule dissasembly

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19
Q

What is the main side effect of vincristine

A

Peripheral neuropathy

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20
Q

What is the MOA of cisplatin

A

Causes cross-linking in DNA

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21
Q

What are the main side effects of cisplatin

A

Ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia

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22
Q

What is the MOA of hydroxycarbamide

A

Inhibits ribonucleotide reductase- decreasing DNA synthesis

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23
Q

What disorder is characterised by lethargy and clumsiness around 11-21 or 31-35 days after cranial radiotherapy

A

Post cranial irradiation somnolesnce syndrome

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24
Q

Which condition occurs within 2 weeks of a BM transplant and shows centrilobular necrosis on liver biopsy

A

Hepatic veno-occulsive disease (sinusoidal obstruction syndrome)

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25
Q

What is cetuximab

A

EGFR antagonist - used in mCRC and head+neck ca

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26
Q

What is alemtuzumab

A

Anti-CD52 - used in CLL

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27
Q

Which conditions is INF-alpha useful in

A

HBV, HCV, kaposi’s sarcoma, metastatic renal cell cancer, PRV, CML, hairy cell leukaemia

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28
Q

What are the causes of gingival hyperplasia

A

Phenytoin, cyclosporine, CCBs (nifedipine), AML

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29
Q

What is the most common malignancy in men aged 15-35 years old

A

Testicular seminoma (germ cell tumour)

30
Q

What is the investigation of choice for testicular seminoma

A

Scrotal USS - hypoechoic mass with areas of calcifications

31
Q

What is the most specific tumour marker for testicular seminomas

A

Beta-HCG

32
Q

What are poor prognostic factors for Ewing’s sarcoma

A

Male, >12 years, raised LDH, anaemia

33
Q

What is the MOA of letrozole

A

Aromatase inhibitor - reduces peripheral oestrogen synthesis

34
Q

What is the MOA of tamoxifen

A

Selective oestrogen receptor antagonist

35
Q

What investigation should be performed when starting letrozole

A

DEXA scan

36
Q

What is the MOA of anthracyclines (e.g. doxorubicin)

A

Stabilises DNA-topoisomerase II complex - inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis

37
Q

What is the MOA of bleomycin

A

Degrades preformed DNA

38
Q

What is the MOA of 6-mercaptopurine

A

Decreases purine synthesis

39
Q

What is the MOA of cytarabine

A

Pyramidine antagonist - interferes with DNA synthesis at the S-phase

40
Q

What is the MOA of docetaxel

A

Prevents microtubule deploymerisation and disassembly

41
Q

What is the MOA of vincristine

A

Inhibits formation of microtubules

42
Q

What is the MOA of irinotecan

A

Inhibits topoisomerase I which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA

43
Q

Which cytotoxic drug can cause mucositis and dermatitis

A

5-Fluorouracil

44
Q

Which antiemetic blocks the neurokinin 1 (NK1) receptor

A

Aprepitant

45
Q

Which chemotherapy is associated with hypomagnesaemia

A

Cisplatin

46
Q

What cancer is at increased risk with Aflatoxin exposure (produced by aspergillus)

A

Liver - HCC

47
Q

What cancers are at increased risk of developing with nitrosamine exposure

A

Oesophageal and gastric cancer

48
Q

Exposure to benzene is a risk factor for which cancer

A

Leukaemia

49
Q

What is the strongest risk factor for cervical cancer

A

Having multiple sexual partners which greatly increases the chance of being infected with HPV 16&18

50
Q

What is the mechanism of HPV causing cervical cancer

A

HPV 16&18 produces oncoproteins which causes inhibition of tumour suppressor genes (p53 and RB)

51
Q

Which cancers does asbestos increase risk of

A

Mesothelioma, bronchial carcinoma, laryngeal cancer, ovarian cancer

52
Q

What is 0 on the WHO performance scale

A

Asymptomatic

53
Q

What is 3 on the WHO performance scale

A

In bed >50% of the day (unable to care for self)

54
Q

What is the post op treatment of glioblastoma in fit patients

A

Radiotherapy 60 Gy in 30 fractions with concomitant temozolomide, followed by up to 6 cycles of adjuvant temozolomide

55
Q

What risk factors are associated with ovarian cancer

A

Early menarche, late menopause, nulliparity

56
Q

How does Cowden syndrome present

A

Facial papules, acral keratoses, FHx of endometrial and RCC

Mutation in PTEN gene

Breast ca is most common malignancy

57
Q

Which gene is commonly the first hit in adenoma-to-carcinoma sequence of the bowel

A

Somatic APC mutation

58
Q

What is the most common side effect of rituximab

A

Flu-like symptoms - temperature, chills, aches

59
Q

What is the treatment of adrenal corctical adenocarcinoma

A

Mitotane

60
Q

Which gene mutation is responsible for familiar clusters of malignant melanoma and breast cancer

A

CDKN2A

61
Q

What should be done if doxorubicin or danorubicin infusions extravasate

A

Consult with a plastic surgeon

62
Q

What is the treatment of severe colitis secondary to immunotherapy-related colitis

A

IV methylprednisolone + urgent oncology and gastro review

63
Q

What is checked prior to chemo to identify patients high risk for tumour lysis syndrome

A

LDH

64
Q

What is first line adjuvant chemo for ovarian cancer

A

Paclitaxel and carboplatin

65
Q

Which inherited condition causes multiple hamartomatous polyps and thyroid dysfunction

A

Cowden syndrome

66
Q

What is the conversion of oral codeine to oral morphine

A

Divide by 10

67
Q

What is the conversion of oral morphine to oral oxycodone

A

Divide by 1.5-2

68
Q

What is the conversion of oral morphine to SC morphine

A

Divide by 2

69
Q

What is the conversion of oral morphine to SC diamorphine

A

Divide by 3

70
Q

What is the oral opiate of choice in significant renal impairment

A

Buprenorphine

MRCP (16 decks)

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