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OBGYN FINAL > OBGYN FINAL > Flashcards

OBGYN FINAL Flashcards

1
Q

physiological exam of ____ usually reveals a ….by granuloma cells within the ovarian structure

A

Follicle Cysts

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2
Q

which of the following is true?

a. alcohol has a direct toxic effect on cells, decreasing cell proliferation and growth
b. alcohol increases placental blood flow, resulting in fetal hypoxia
c. alcohol increases the risk of fetal macrosomia and uterine bleeding
d. alcohol is the leading cause of low birth weight babies

A

a or d

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3
Q

p/p at 35 weeks gestation with a week-long history of dizziness when getting up from a supine position

A

IVC syndrome

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4
Q

p/p at 32 weeks gestation weight severe itching across the superior half of the thorax and bilateral posterior arms without any skin changes

A

pruritis gravidarum

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5
Q

p/p at 30 weeks gestation complaining of left lower abdominal pain that radiates to the groin area with….

A

round ligament syndrome

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6
Q

leopold maneuver is a palpation procedure that evaluates for fetal_______&________.

A

li, position and presentation

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7
Q

which of the following uttering location is the ideal implantation site?

a. ant inf isthmus
b. ant sup funds
c. post inf isthmus
d. post sup fundus

A

anterior inferior isthmus

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8
Q

T/F labor is triggered by a decrease in progesterone and the release of oxytocin?

A

true

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9
Q

p/p at 10 weeks gestation with a 2 day history of vaginal bleeding, no cervical dilation

A

threatened abortion

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10
Q

p/p at 11 weeks gestation w/ a 9 day history of vaginal bleeding persistent abdominal cramping and moderate cervical effacement

A

complete abortion

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11
Q

expulsion of products of conception months after death of the embryo, no symptoms of pregnancy present

A

missed abortion

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12
Q

form of controception works by immobilizing and killing sperm

A

cooper t-iud

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13
Q

active phase

A

first stage of laber

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14
Q

consists of time from complete dilation to delivery of baby

A

second stage of labor

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15
Q

consists of the time from delivery of baby through delivery of placenta

A

third stage of labor

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16
Q

decent of baby

A

2nd stage of labor

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17
Q

epidural is administered in this stage

A

2nd stage of labor

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18
Q

the hour immediately following delivery

A

4th stage of labor

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19
Q

latent phase

A

first stage of labor

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20
Q

prostoglandin is released in this stage

A

1st stage of labor

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21
Q

signs of placental separation

A

3rd stage of labor

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22
Q

involution of the uterus begins immediately upon expulsion of the placenta

A

true

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23
Q

22 yr old patient, 5 weeks postpartum presents complaining of general malaise, fever, right breast swelling that is painful when nursing

A

pupural mastitis

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24
Q

35 yr old female presents with multiple painful breast nodules, nodule size and pain fluctuates w/ menstrual cycle

A

fibrocystic breast disease

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25
Q

55 yr old female presents with a well defined breast lump in one breast that is swollen and painful, there is also clear nipple discharge present

A

intraductal papilloma

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26
Q

T/F: identical twins arise from the division of 2 fertilized ovum into 2 separate embryos

A

False

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27
Q

buttock presentation w/ flexed thigh and extended knees

A

brank breech

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28
Q

fetal “squat” position w/ both thighs and knees flexed

A

complete breech

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29
Q

most common form of breech presentation

A

frank breech

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30
Q

one or both thighs exteneded w/ one or both knees extended below fetal buttock

A

footling or incomplete

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31
Q

most commonly occuriring symptom associated with menopause

A

hot flashes

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32
Q

herniation of the bladder into the anterior….

A

cystocele

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33
Q

pastry is used to correct_______

A

uterine prolapse

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34
Q

small intestine prolapses through posterior vaginal….at the level of the cul de sac of douglas

A

enterocele

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35
Q

the condition can produce possible problems w/ fecal defacation

A

rectocele

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36
Q

first day of menstration

A

foll

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37
Q

swelling of gra…of stigma

A

ovulation

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38
Q

formation of the corpus luteum

A

luteum

39
Q

due to the withdrawal of progesterone

A

mensuration

40
Q

endometrium proliferation

A

follicle

41
Q

production of “uterine milk”

A

luteum

42
Q

alkaline cervical mucus formation

A

foliicular

43
Q

cervical os closes

A

luteum

44
Q

bladder dysfunction that is caused by neurological damage

A

neurogenic bladder

45
Q

herniated disc is one etiology for this

A

neurogenic bladder

46
Q

history of urine loss w/ symptoms of bladder irritation

A

detrusor dyssynergia

47
Q

loss of anatomic angle b/t the bladder and the urethra

A

genuine stress incontinence

48
Q

most commonly occuring form of urinary stress incontinence

A

detrusor dyssnegia

49
Q

patient reports loss of urine w/ physical activities like coughing/sneezing

A

genuine stress incontinence

50
Q

sudden inability to control the bladder followed by a delayed large loss of urine

A

detrusor dyssnergia

51
Q

T/F: bacteria are the most common etiology for urinary….aureus produces 90% of these infections

A

false

52
Q

T/F: implant antibacterial defenses ininclude free flow emptying of the bladder

A

true

53
Q

contraceptive devices

A

foreign body vaginitis

54
Q

produces clear fluid discharge

A

herpes simplex/infectious vaginitis

55
Q

produces rotten odor w/ grey discharge

A

gard…vaginitis/nonspecific vaginitis

56
Q

produces “strawberry cervix”

A

trichomonas vaginitis/infectious vaginitis

57
Q

producesc sticky “cottage cheese” discharge

A

candida albicans/infectious vaginitis

58
Q

seen in postmenopausal patients

A

atrophic vaginitis

59
Q

sexual activity

A

traumatic vaginitis

60
Q

T/F: Neisseria Gonnorhea is the most common etiology for PID?

A

True

61
Q

T/F: PID is an infection of the lower genital tract in women that usually starts in the upper genital tract and descends to involve the lower genital tract

A

false

62
Q

cystic nodule

A

more likely benign

63
Q

complex/solid nodule

A

more likely malignant

64
Q

nodule is adhered to adjacent structure

A

more likely malignant

65
Q

nodule with areas of necrosis

A

more likely malignant

66
Q

presence of ascites

A

more likely malignant

67
Q

small nodule less than 1.5 cm

A

more likely benign

68
Q

smooth, distinctly bordered nodule

A

more likely benign

69
Q

T/F: functional ovarian cysts are cysts that are related to the menstraul cycle and…can resolve on own

A

True

70
Q

T/F: cystic teratoma is a malignant tumor of embryonic origin

A

True?

71
Q

T/F: polycystic….the multiple cysts taht develop with PCDS are… & w/ PCDS, the patient is both hyper energetic….

A

false

72
Q

benign tumors composed of smooth muscle and connective tissue elements

A

leiomyoma

73
Q

laser ablasion is one form of treatment for this condition

A

endometriosis

74
Q

non painful, unless pressing against adjacent organ

A

leiomyoma

75
Q

one treatment for this condition is myomectomy

A

leiomyoma

76
Q

ovaries are the most common site of occurrence for this condition

A

endometriosis

77
Q

presence of chocolate cysts on ovaries

A

endometriosis

78
Q

presence of endometrial glands and stroma w/i uterine myometrium

A

adenomyosis

79
Q

this condition presents w/ an enlarged uterus that is tender to palpate on pelvic examination

A

adenomyosis

80
Q

triad of symptoms of dysphagia, dysmenorrheal, and dysphagia

A

endometriosis

81
Q

postcoital bleeding is a symptom associated with

A

cervical cancer

82
Q

which of the following conditions can present in its early stage?

A

cervical cancer, ovarian cancer, uterine cancer, vulva cancer?

83
Q

abnormal bleeding is the most important warning, s/s associated with

A

uterine cancer

84
Q

T/F:primary infertility is defined as a woman who has never been pregnant despite more than a year of unprotected intercourse

A

true

85
Q

laparotomy is the surgical procedure used to treat

A

ovarian cancer

86
Q

which of the following is the most frequently chosen and most effective form of contraception?

A

sterilization

87
Q

which of the following presentations is a red flag for mossible….menopausal patients

A

onset of menstrual bleeding after c section of menstrual flow

88
Q

T/F: history of spontaneous abortion is a contraindication for using combined….contraceptive.

A

false

89
Q

prevents pregnancy by impeding fertilized…

A

progestin only pill

90
Q

G7-P42-1-6 is a formula used to state obstetric history…what do the numbers stand for?

A 
7=number of pregnancies
4=number of full term delivery
2= number of preterm delivery
1=number abortion/miscarriage
6=number living children
91
Q

T/F: Rh factor is a protein found on the outside of the uterus

A

True

92
Q

____is….placenta from the site of uterine implantation….

A

abrupt placenta

93
Q

A ________is a p…..fortified by 2 sperm producing an abnormal fetus

A

Partial mole

OBGYN FINAL (2 decks)

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