Departure Procedures Flashcards
When flying RNAV departure manually selecting bank limiting (half bank) may reduce
ability to satisfy ATC path expectations.
a. True
b. False
True
Source: 4.12.5
When cleared for an RNAV departure, crews must ensure that the following is correctly
loaded in the navigation system…
a. The entire RNAV DP segment is retrieved from the area navigation database by
procedure name, the correct departure runway must be loaded, and the correct
transition must be loaded.
b. The cleared RNAV procedure and the first fix.
c. The RNAV procedure available from a ForeFlight Route Update email.
d. The first fix, and the first altitude.
When cleared for an RNAV departure, crews must ensure that the following is correctly
loaded in the navigation system…
a. The entire RNAV DP segment is retrieved from the area navigation database by
procedure name, the correct departure runway must be loaded, and the correct
transition must be loaded.
Source: FOM 4.12.5
When are you prohibited from accepting a “line up and wait” clearance?
a. At night with visibility less than 1 mile and the departure runway is being used
only for departures.
b. A line up and wait clearance is not authorized
c. Night or day with visibility less than 1 mile, unless the crew can be assured that
the departure runway is not being used for arrivals.
d. At TEB when departing runway 24.
c. Night or day with visibility less than 1 mile, unless the crew can be assured that
the departure runway is not being used for arrivals.
Source: FOM:4.11.11
Text/Table DPs/ODPs (Takeoff and Obstacle Departure Procedures) are considered the
standard IFR departure procedure. If ATC does not specify any other particular
departure procedure prior to takeoff, a crewmember must comply with the departure
procedure established by the FAA for the airport and runway to be used.
a. True
b. False
a. True
Source: FOM 4.9.7.5
An AWARE brief is required prior to engine start.
a. True
b. False
a. True
Source: FOM 4.9.15
Prior to takeoff, the flight crew will confirm that the altitude selector is set to the
assigned…
a. altitude received in the ATC clearance.
b. final level off on the departure assigned. Any intermediate level off must be
briefed prior to departure.
c. If an intermediate level-off altitude exists as a part of a departure or climb
clearance, then the first intermediate altitude shall be selected.
d. Both A and C are correct.
d. Both A and C are correct.
Source: FOM 4.11.5
Acceptance of any IFR departure clearance requires compliance with the minimum
TERPS (Terminal Instrument Procedures) climb gradient requirements with…
a. One-engine inoperative to the MEA, MOCA, or other minimum IFR altitude.
b. All engines operating.
c. All engines operating with gear down.
d. One-engine inoperative with takeoff flap setting.
b. All engines operating.
Source: FOM 4.9.7.3
For IFR departures, if ATC does not specify a departure procedure in the clearance prior
to takeoff, a flight crew must comply with the departure procedure (DP or ODP)
established by the FAA for the airport and runway to be used.
a. True, use of this procedure will provide obstacle clearance, and they are
considered the standard IFR departure procedure.
b. False, the see and avoid option is available.
c. False, no specification of a departure procedure in the clearance implies that the
crew is cleared direct to the first filed waypoint.
d. True, the Op Specs authorize this technique in C055.
Source: FOM
a. True, use of this procedure will provide obstacle clearance, and they are
considered the standard IFR departure procedure.
Source: FOM 4.9.7.5
When are you required to do a manual obstacle analysis?
a. When departing VMC and see and avoid operations are planned.
b. When an obstacle on the departure path cannot be avoided laterally.
c. When an obstacle may impede the emergency briefing plan.
d. All are correct.
d. All are correct.
Source: FOM 4.9.8
The practice of loading the flight plan route prior to picking up the ATC clearance
is…
a. discouraged.
b. encouraged because it helps the crew get ahead.
c. encouraged but should never be placed in the primary FMS.
d. encouraged because you can review fixes along the route
a. discouraged.
Source: FOM 4.7.1
To reduce the possibility of an inadvertent runway incursion…
a. Conduct a pre-taxi briefing to include location, cleared taxi route, active runway,
hold short points, airport “hot spots,” crossing runways.
b. Both pilots must be task free.
c. Pilots shall maintain a “heads up” lookout during taxi.
d. All are correct.
d. All are correct.
Source: FOM 4.11.2
During Takeoff and Landing, pilots will be alert for windshear warnings or
indications and perform the aircraft specific windshear escape maneuver when
applicable.
a. True
b. False
a. True
Source: FOM 4.13.5
Pilots are authorized to depart VFR and pick up an IFR clearance en route if…
a. VFR cloud clearances can be maintained.
b. an IFR clearance is obtained within 50nm.
c. it is not otherwise possible to obtain an IFR clearance.
d. All are correct.
d. All are correct.
Source: Ops Specs C077
What is the lowest minimum visibility that we are authorized to use for takeoff
when RVR is not available?
a. 1 nm
b. 1 sm
c. ¼ sm
d. ¼ nm
C. 1/4 sm
Source: Ops Specs C077
What is the lowest RVR minimum that we are authorized to use for takeoff,
when RVR is available?
a. 500 RVR
b. 600 RVR
c. 1600 RVR
d. 1800 RVR
a. 500 RVR (Part 135 and 91)
Source: Ops Specs C079
