10.7 Flashcards

1
Q

What is ATA 100?

A

Manufacturers Technical Data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is ATA 104?

A

Guidelines for Aircraft Maintenance Training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is ATA 105?

A

Guidelines for training and qualification of personnel for

Non Destructive Testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is ATA 106?

A

Qualification guidelines for approved parts and sources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is ATA 300?

A

Packaging of aircraft spares

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is ATA 2000?

A

Integrated data processing material management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is ATA ISPEC 2200?

A

Standard for the development, management and

exchange of digital technical manuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is MSG 3?

A

Maintenance Programme development programme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is ATA WASG?

A

World Airline and Suppliers Guide`

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Who creates the manuals?

A

The manufacturer or the design organisation, must be approved by the NAA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the ASM?

A

Aircraft schematic manual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the MPD?

A

Maintenance planning document

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Can temporary revision’s be revised?

A

No, a new revision must be issued

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the FTM?

A

Flight test manual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a SL?

A

Service letter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a SIL?

A

Service information letter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does the MPD satisfy?

A

The FAA and EASA requirement to demonstrate instructions for continues airworthiness under FAR and CS 25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Who creates a MP?

A

The operator using the MPD to formulate their own maintenance program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When can a MP be used?

A

When is has been reviewed and is accepted by the NAA, the same goes for changes to the MP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does a MS differ from the MP?

A

The MP is a maintenance schedule that include features that enable its effectiveness and applicability can be reviewed
The MS is the document that defines when tasks need to be carried out and is part of the MP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a SDMP?

A

Allows owners of non commercial aircraft under ELA1 to create their own AMP that cannot be less restrictive than the manufacturers recommendations or EASA minimum inspection program (MIP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the interval between SDMP reviews?

A

Once a year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does SDMP stand for?

A

Self declared maintenance program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is LAMS?

A

LAMS is light aircraft maintenance schedule,

light aircraft used for commercial and non commercial operations can be maintained in accordance with a published CAA MP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is COC?

A

Customer originated changes - ie to a manual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What included in manual chapter highlights?

A

Includes reasons for revision issues, and lists the temp revisions which are fully incorporated into the chapter revision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is AWM?

A

Aircraft wiring manual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is AWL?

A

Aircraft wiring list

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Duration of A items?

A

Unspecified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Duration of B items?

A

3 days

31
Q

Duration of C items?

A

10 days

32
Q

Duration of D items?

A

120 days

33
Q

Which cap covers aircraft modifications?

A

Cap 553 and appendix 2 to A8-21

34
Q

Which CAP incorporates light aircraft maintenance requirements?

A

CAP 411

35
Q

In the SRM what is this chapter? Chapter 51

A

Structures - General

36
Q

In the SRM what is this chapter? Chapter 52

A

Doors

37
Q

In the SRM what is this chapter? Chapter 53

A

Fuselage

38
Q

In the SRM what is this chapter? Chapter 54

A

Nacelles / Pylons

39
Q

In the SRM what is this chapter? Chapter 55

A

Stabilizers

40
Q

In the SRM what is this chapter? Chapter 56

A

Windows

41
Q

In the SRM what is this chapter? Chapter 57

A

Wings

42
Q

Which CAP is the mandatory requirements for airworthiness?

A

CAP 747

43
Q

What constitutes as a major modification?

A

has appreciable effect on the mass, balance, structural strength, reliability, operational
characteristics, noise, fuel venting, exhaust emissions or other characteristics affecting airworthiness

44
Q

What form is used to make a modification?

A

SRG 1726

45
Q

What might the CAA require when requesting modification approval?

A

A certificate of design, signed by the design organisation

46
Q

When making a modification what record will the CAA require?

A

Civil modification record (CAP 395) - explains in detail the modifications carried out

47
Q

Purpose of test flights?

A

To ensure the expected characteristics and functionality of the aircraft

48
Q

What are the two letters denoting what must be done post test flight?

A

R- rectification of defect

FT- must be re-tested in flight

49
Q

What does the FTM explain?

A

The FTM explains the procedures and policies

50
Q

What are ETOPS Approval Regulations?

A

EASA Regulations concerning ETOPS can be found in Air Ops, Part SPA, Subpart F. A dedicated Acceptable Means of Compliance & Guidance Material
publication AMC 20-6

51
Q

What are the ETOPS categories?

A

Approval for 90 minutes or less diversion time

Approval for diversion time above 90 minutes up to 180 minutes

Approval for diversion time above 180 minutes

Approval for diversion times above 180 minutes of operators of two-engine aeroplanes with a maximum passenger seating configuration of 19 or less and a maximum take-off mass less than 45 360 kg

52
Q

How long should an airline be able to show experience of ETOPS for?

A

12 months, unless similar experience of an engine type can be shown

53
Q

Which situations require use of a verification program to ensure rectifications is carried out?

A

an engine shut-down
an ETOPS significant system failure
any adverse trends
an event which requires a verification flight or another verification action is established.

54
Q

What are the specifics of CAT 3A?

A

CAT 3A operation is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with a decision height lower than 100 feet and an RVR not less than 200 metres

55
Q

What are the specifics of CAT 3B?

A

CAT 3B operation is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with a decision height lower than 50 feet and an RVR lower than 200 metres but not less than 75 metres

56
Q

What are the specifics of CAT 3C?

A

CAT 3C operation is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with no decision height and no RVR

57
Q

What are the regulations for all weather operations?

A

Air Ops Part‑SPA and CS‑AWO

58
Q

What at a minimum will be in an airworthiness directive?

A

A description of the dangerous condition
The aircraft affected by the AD, and
The action(s) required to make the aircraft airworthy

59
Q

Test flights can only be carried out in accordance with which subparts?

A

G and J

60
Q

With regards to ETOPS other than experience what else factors into approval?

A

These include the flight crew workload, the

emergency procedures and, more relevant to maintenance personnel, the maintenance schedules and procedures

61
Q

With regards to ETOPS, what also must be carried out in the maintenance program?

A

Oil Consumption Programme

Engine Condition Monitoring

Reliability Programme

ETOPS Parts Control

62
Q

What must a SDMP contain as a minimum?

A

In all cases the SDMP must not be less restrictive than the MIP.
The programme should contain, as a minimum, MIP/Design Approval Holder recommendations, mandatory tasks, additional tasks and pilot/owner
maintenance

63
Q

What are the specifics of CAT 1?

A

Decision height not lower than 200 feet and a Runway Visual Range (RVR) not
less than 550 metres.

64
Q

What are the specifics of CAT 2?

A

Decision height below 200 feet but not lower than 100 feet and an
RVR not less than 300 metres

65
Q

When was ATA formed and by whom?

A

ATA was formed in 1936 in Chicago by a group of fourteen airlines

66
Q

What is the purpose of the ATA e-Business Programmes Civil Aviation Working Group?

A

The purpose of the ATA e-Business Programmes Civil Aviation Working Group (CAWG) is to develop the necessary modifications to enable S1000D to be the
world-wide accepted future Technical Data exchange standard for the Civil Aviation Industry

67
Q

How is a revision dated?

A

Each revision will be consecutively numbered and the revision will carry the same date of issue as the amended pages

68
Q

What accompanies the revison?

A

Letter of transmittal

69
Q

Where are all the temporary revisions listed?

A

Record of Temporary Revisions

70
Q

What pages are at the beginning of the AMM?

A
List of Chapters
Record of Revisions
List of Temporary Revisions
Service Bulletin List
De-activation / Re-activation Index
71
Q

What pages are at the front of an AMM chapter?

A

Highlights
List of Effective Pages (LEP)
Table of Contents (TOC)

72
Q

In the LEP, what does N, R and D denote?

A

New pages are indicated by ’N’, revised pages by ’R’ and deleted pages by ’D

73
Q

When will an SB be considered and AD?

A

An SB is not mandatory and is optional to carry out, however if the NAA deems it critical to airworthiness it will issue an AD

74
Q

What report will be filled in post test flight?

A

Check flight Report