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FMS > FMS I Final > Flashcards

FMS I Final Flashcards

0
Q

T/F: Cortisol circulates in the plasma free (unbound) and bound to protein.

A

TRUE

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1
Q

t/f: “Flight or fight” occurs in the exhaustion stage in the general adaptation syndrome (GAS).

A

FALSE

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2
Q

T/F: A person does not have a stress reaction unless the stress exceeds his or her coping abilities.

A

TRUE

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3
Q

T/F: The decrease in insulin during a stress response prevents glucose from being taken up by peripheral tissue so that more glucose will be available for the CNS.

A

TRUE

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4
Q

T/F: For catecholamines to be immunosuppressive, their levels must be chronically elevated.

A

TRUE

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5
Q

T/F: Stress and negative emotions have not been associated with the production of increased levels of proinflammatory cytokines

A

FALSE

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6
Q

T/F: Although stress generally inhibits the female reproductive system, it increases the production of testosterone.

A

FALSE

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7
Q

T/F: Lymphocytes secrete growth hormone (GH), prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), and endorphins.

A

TRUE

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8
Q

T/F: Studies have shown a relationship between depression and reduction in lymphocyte proliferation and natural killer (NK) cell activity

A

TRUE

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9
Q

T/F: Stress has no effect on the development of cancer.

A

FALSE

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10
Q

Which hormone Constricts peripheral vessels to increase blood pressure as a stress response?

A

norepinephrine

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11
Q

Which hormone Increases cardiac output by increasing heart rate and myocardial contractility during a stress response?

A

epinephrine

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12
Q

Which hormone Increases gastric secretions during a stress response?

A

cortisol

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13
Q

What nerve innervates the diaphragm and is associated with the fibrous pericardium?

A

phrenic

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14
Q

The mesothelium of the parietal layer of the body wall is derived from…

A

somatic mesoderm

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15
Q

The crura of the diaphragm are derived from the…

A

dorsal mesentery of the esophagus

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16
Q

The fibrous pericardium is derived from…

A

the pleuropericardial membranes

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17
Q

Which of the following are retroperitoneal (either primarily or secondarily)?

A

kidney and urinary bladder (that’s the correct answer on the exam)

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18
Q

Which of the following is a herniation through the sternocostal hiatus?

A

retrosternal hernia

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19
Q

What develops from the first pharyngeal arch?

A

muscles of mastication

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20
Q

What is derived from the second aortic arch?

A

hyoid artery

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21
Q

The thymus develops from…..

A

third pharyngeal pouch

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22
Q

The cells that produce calcitonin are derived from…

A

fourth pharyngeal pouch

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23
Q

the middle ear ossicles are derived from…

A

first and second pharyngeal arches

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24
Q

Which disease is caused by an autosomal dominant gene and results in malar hypoplasia of zygomatic bones with down-slanting palpebral fissures, defect of lower eyelids, deformed external ears and sometimes abnormalities of middle and internal ears?

A

Treacher Collins syndrome

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25
Q

Which disease results from excessive merging of the mesenchymal masses in the maxillary and mandibular prominences of the first pharnygeal arch?

A

Congenital microstomia

26
Q

The primary palate is derived (directly) from the…

A

intermaxillary segment

27
Q

The foramen cecum…

A

marks the point of embryonic evagination of the thyroid gland

28
Q

A patient is found to have glandular tissue situated in the tongue musculature just superior to the body of the hyoid bone. This tissue would most likely be related to the…

A

thyroid gland

29
Q

The sclera is derived from…

A

neural crest cells

30
Q

If the retinal (choroid) fissure fails to close, it may result in…

A

coloboma

31
Q

Microtia is…

A

small auricle

32
Q

An increase in CSF pressure slows venous return from the retina may cause…

A

papilledema

33
Q

Which disease/condition is an autosomal recessive trait that results in skin that is markedly thickened, ridges and cracked? Most infants with this disorder will die during the first week of life.

A

Harlequin fetus

34
Q

Melanocytes arise from…

A

neural crest cells

35
Q

The enamel of a tooth is derived from…

A

ectoderm (non-neural ectoderm)

36
Q

At the developing nail is covered by a narrow band of epidermis called the…

A

eponychium

37
Q

Excessive hairiness that results from the development of supernumerary hair follicles or from the persistence of lanugo hairs is called?

A

hypertrichosis

38
Q

Exhaustion occurs if stress continues and ___ is not successful.

A

adaption

39
Q

The ____ is stimulated during the alarm phase of the GAS?

A

hypothalamus

40
Q

During a stress response, increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal is prompted by…

A

epinephrine

41
Q

perceived stress elicits an emotional, anticipatory response that begins in the…

A

limbic system

42
Q

During a stress response, which hormone decreases lymphocytes, eosinophils, and macrophages and prostaglandin?

A

cortisol

43
Q

The effect that low serum albumin has on the central stress response is to…

A

impair circulation of epinephrine and norepinephrine

44
Q

the effect epinephrine has on the immune system during stress response is to increase…

A

NK cells

45
Q

Stress-induced sympathetic stimulation of the adrenal medulla causes the secretion of catecholamines, which include…

A

epinephrine and norepinephrine

46
Q

stress-induced norepinephrine results in…

A

peripheral vasoconstriction

47
Q

stress-induced cortisol released from the adrenal cortex results in…

A

stimulation of gluconeogenesis

48
Q

what is the effect of increased secretions of epinephrine, glucagon, and growth hormone?

A

hyperglycemia

49
Q

Which hormone increases the formation of glucose from amino acids and free fatty acids?

A

cortisol

50
Q

Which immune cells are suppressed by corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?

A

helper T cells and monocyte-macrophage cells

51
Q

The ____ (gland) regulates the immune response and mediates the apparent effects of circadian rhythms on immunity.

A

pineal

52
Q

What effect does estrogen have on lymphocytes?

A

Depression of T cells and enhancement of B cells

53
Q

What contributes to the development of the diaphragm?

A
  1. Dorsal esophageal mesentary
  2. Septum transversum
  3. Pleuroperitoneal folds
54
Q

The control of rhinovirus URTIs by immunization is…

A

The large number of stereotypes of the rhinovirus

55
Q

What is the best explanation of the selective action of acyclovir in HSV infected cells?

A

Acyclovir is phosphorylated by a virus encoded phosphokinase ONLY within HSV infected cells.

56
Q

Herpes simplex virus is a…

A

DNA enveloped virus

57
Q

What is the most common outcome following a primary HSV infection?

A

Establishment of latent infection

58
Q

The principle reservoir for antigenic shift variants of influenza appears to be…

A

Animals, specifically pigs, horses, and fowl

59
Q

A virus associated with jaundice is…

A

Yellow-fever virus

60
Q

A common cause of encephalitis is…

A

Rabies virus

61
Q

Varicella zoster virus is associated with…

A

Shingles

62
Q

A virus known to cause infectious mononucleosis is…

A

Epstein Barr virus

FMS (12 decks)

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