GI Formative Flashcards

1
Q

Characteristic view of Barrets oesophagus?

A

Salmon pink mucosa

Metaplastic change in oesophagus

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2
Q

Which area is most prone to ulceration in stomach?

A

Lesser curve

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3
Q

Which area is most prone to peptic ulceration?

A

First part of duodenum

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4
Q

Which major artery is at risk of haemorrhage if gastric ulcer erodes thru posterior aspect of the stomach?

A

Splenic

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5
Q

Which blood test result when raised would most specifically indicate hepatocyte damage?

A

ALT (alanine transaminase)

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6
Q

Which blood test result when raised would indicate gallstone is stuck in common bile duct?

A

conjugated bilirubin levels
> bile can’t flow into gut therefore bilirubin in the plasma increases
> its conjugated at this point

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7
Q

when are ALP levels raised?

A
bone disease
biliary obstruction (but less specific indicator)
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8
Q

when are AST levels raised?

A

liver damage

but not specific to liver as also present in cardiac and skeletal muscle

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9
Q

what characteristic makes UC diagnosis more likely than crohns?

A

presence of disease in rectum
> continuous with disease in colon/ caecum
> backwash ileitis (inflamed terminal ileum)

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10
Q

characteristics of Crohns disease

A
  • presence of fistulas
  • presence of perianal disease
  • skip leisions
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11
Q

role of GLUT2 transporter

A

move glucose out of the enterocyte across basolateral membrane

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12
Q

role of GLUT 5 transporter

A

moves fructose across apical membrane of the enterocyte (from gut lumen into enterocyte)

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13
Q

role of SGLT 1 transporter

A

Na glucose linked transporter

> co transports Na n glucose from the gut into the enterocyte

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14
Q

mass movement is triggered by what reflex?

A

gastro-colic reflex

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15
Q

which sympathetic splanchnic nerve supplies the stomach?

A

greater splanchnic

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16
Q

through which site does an indirect inguinal hernia leave the abdomen?

A

deep inguinal ring

this type of hernia passes thru inguinal canal

17
Q

through which site does an femoral hernia leave the abdomen?

A

femoral ring

18
Q

through which site does an direct inguinal hernia leave the abdomen?

A

Hesselbach’s triangle

19
Q

relevance of the umbilical ring?

A

its where the midgut herniates through during embryological development

20
Q

where does an indirect hernia exit the inguinal canal

A

superficial inguinal ring

21
Q

what facilitates the movement of digested fats through the aq medium of gut lumen towards enterocyte?

A

micelle

22
Q

role of chylomicron

A

part of fat digestion

micelle diffuses into enterocyte and then the fatty products are recycled into chylomicrons
> which exocytose across the basolateral wall of the enterocyte and move into lacteals

23
Q

pain associated with gallstones is called

A

biliary colic

24
Q

why does pain associated with gallstones typically come on an hr after food?

A
  • time it takes for material to go from stomach to duodenum
  • presence of acid, aa, fa stimulates the release of CCK
  • causes gall bladder contraction which causes pain (as contracting against a blockage
25
Q

complication of gallstones?

A

gall stone gets stuck in cystic duct > cholecystitis

  • walls of gall bladder inflamed, thickened and oedematous
  • secondary infection can occur due to bacterial proliferation
26
Q

complications of gallstone lodged in proximal common bile duct

A
  • cholangitis (infection of biliary tree)

- post hepatic jaundice (occurs due to blockage of flow from liver to duodenum)

27
Q

complications of gallstone lodged in DISTAL common bile duct

A
  • malnutrition
  • pancreatitis (stone lodging near sphincter of odd can block major pancreatic duct)
  • post hepatic jaundice
28
Q

what’s fatty liver called

A

steatosis

29
Q

how does excess alcohol intake cause hepatomegaly (enlarged liver)

A

NADH is a by product of alcohol metabolism
> inhibits lipid breakdown
> promotes lipid synthesis
> ethanol inhibits formation and secretion of lipoproteins (lipids accumulate in liver)

30
Q

how can chronic alcohol misuse lead to malnutrition?

A
  • causes pancreatitis > impaired release of digestive enzymes
  • causes chronic gastritis > impaired digestion
31
Q

features of crohns disease

A
  • mouth to anus
  • cobblestone appearane
  • skip lesions
  • adhesions
  • mucosal oedema
32
Q

features of ulcerative colitis

A
  • mucosal oedema
  • discontinuous pattern of inflammation (skip lesions)
  • opening of fistulae
  • strictures (narrowing of bowel lumen)
  • cobblestone appearance
33
Q

microscopic feature that’s pathognomonic of crohns?

A

granuloma

34
Q

perianal pathologies present in Crohns

A
  • anal fissures
  • haemorrhoids
  • skin tags
  • perianal abscess
  • opening of fistula
35
Q

why do patients with crohns sometimes get right lower quadrant pain?

A

terminal ileum inflammation