General Rehab Flashcards

1
Q

The strenuousness of an activity relative to basal metabolic rate is defined as which of the following?

A Difference between arterial and venous oxygen levels
B Rate pressure product
C Cardiac output
D Metabolic equivalent

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
• The strenuousness of an activity relative to basal metabolic rate is defined as how many metabolic equivalents (METs) the activity is above basal metabolic rate.
• For example, lying flat is 1 MET, and walking on a treadmill is 3 METs (roughly).

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2
Q

The chief benefit obtained from cardiopulmonary exercise is?
A. Improved cardiac preload
B. Improved gas exchange in the lungs
C. Improved cardiac contractility
D. Improved oxygen uptake by the peripheral musculature

A

Answer: (D)
• The primary reason why cardiovascular exercise leads to a reduced HR and overall decreased work required of the heart and lungs is because the peripheral muscles engaged in this exercise become conditioned to take up oxygen from the blood better. In doing so, the heart essentially learns to pump less blood towards the skeletal muscles since they become so efficient at oxygen uptake. This has the end result of a reduced HR.

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3
Q
Which phase of cardiac rehabilitation involves very close outpatient monitoring?
	A. 4
	B. 3
	C. 2
	D. 1
A

Answer: C
• Phase 1 of cardiac rehab involves 1-14 days of inpatient rehabilitation.
• Phase 2 involves very closely supervised outpatient activity for 3-6 months.
• Phase 3 involves less monitoring on the outpatient side.
• Phase 4 involves unsupervised maintenance activity by the patient.

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4
Q
During which phase of swallowing does aspiration typically occur?
AOral preparatory
BOral
CPharyngeal
DEsophageal
A

Answer: C

The oral preparatory phases precedes the oral phase; both of these are voluntary phases. The pharyngeal phase (involuntary) is next, in which the food bolus is transferred from the oral cavity to the esophagus. Aspiration is most likely to occur during this phase. The final phase of swallowing is the esophageal phase, which lasts the longest, and is also involuntary.

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5
Q
A patient requires assistance for transfers. This is defined as:
	• (A) Participation restriction
	• (B) Handicap
	• (C) Disability
	• (D) Impairment
A

Answer: Disability
• Impairment: A loss of structure or function (e.g. wrist drop)
• Disability: Inability to perform ADL’s (e.g. inability to ambulate or perform self care)
• Handicap: Patient’s ability to navigate societal constructs (e.g. cannot climb stairs to reach office at work; paraplegia resulting in loss of work as a professional cyclist)

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6
Q
  1. A 49 y/o M presents to your clinic. He is saddened that, due to a spinal cord infection resulting in paraplegia, he is no longer able to play golf with his friends on the weekends. This is an example of:
    • (A) Permanent lack of satisfaction in life
    • (B) Handicap/Participation restriction
    • (C) Disability
    • (D) Impairment
A

Answer: Handicap/Participation restriction

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7
Q

When deciding what type of work a patient is cleared to return to, “light duty work” is defined as lifting no more than how many lbs while on the job?

A 40
B 30
C 20
D 10

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
• Light duty is defined as no lifting over 20 lbs. Very light duty is lifting no more than 10 lbs.

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8
Q

The equation for cardiac output is which of the following? HR: heart rate. SV: stroke volume.

A SV/HR
B HR + SV
C HR/SV
D HR x SV

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
• Cardiac output = HR x SV.
• This is the amount of blood that can pump through the heart in a given cardiac cycle.

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9
Q

A patient who is status post orthotopic heart transplantation will be expected to demonstrate which of the following vital sign changes?

A Decreased atherosclerotic disease
B Lower peak exercise heart rate
C Faster return to resting heart rate after exercise
D Lower resting heart rate

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
• Orthotopic: describes tissue or an organ that is transplanted into its normal place in the body.
• Patients who have received a heart transplant develop:
○ Lower peak HR
○ Higher resting HR
○ Early atherosclerosis

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10
Q

An exercise prescription should include type of exercise, frequency, intensity, duration, number of sets and repetitions, and what else?

A All of the listed choices should be included in an exercise prescription
B Weather conditions
C Location to perform exercises
D Precautions

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
• An exercise prescription must include the factors listed in the question stem. In addition, it should include any medical precautions (e.g. sternal precautions in a patient status-post cardiac procedure).
• It may also include specifying whether you want open chain vs. closed chain, concentric vs. eccentric, and isometric vs. isotonic vs. isokinetic exercises.

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11
Q

In order to participate in constraint-induced movement therapy (CIMT) a patient must demonstrate which of the following?

A Moderate assistance or better in ADL performance
B A maximum Modified Ashworth Score (MAS) of 2/4 in all joints of the affected limb
C 5/5 strength in the unaffected limbs
D At least 10 degrees of active wrist extension

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
• Constraint-induced movement therpay (CIMT) requires a patient to possess at least 10 degrees of active wrist extension in the affected limb.
• It also requires the patient to NOT demonstrate hemineglect of the affected side. CIMT cannot work if the patient doesn’t recognize the affected limb in the first place.

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12
Q

VO2 max is defined as which of the following?

A None of these answers is correct
B The AVO2 difference at rest in an aerobically trained individual
C The maximum amount of oxygen that can diffuse across the alveolar membrane
D The maximum oxygen consumption a patient’s body can achieve during exercise

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
• VO2 max is defined as the maximum oxygen consumption a patient’s body can achieve during exercise

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13
Q

Which of the following is an example of an impairment?

A All of the answer choices are considered impairments
B A paraplegic being unable to enter a building due to lack of an access ramp
C Inability to dress independently
D Decreased hand strength

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
• In simpler terms, impairments, disabilities, and handicaps can be defined as follows.
• Impairment is essentially a loss of structure or function (e.g. wrist drop).
• Disability is inability to perform ADLs (e.g. inability to ambulate or perform self care).
• Handicap reflects the patient’s ability to navigate societal constructs (e.g. cannot climb stairs to reach office at work; paraplegia resulting in loss of work as a professional cyclist).

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14
Q

Normal forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) decreases by approximately how many cc/year?

A 30
B 20
C 15
D 10

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
• FEV1 normally decreases by 30 cc/year.
• In smokers it can be over double this rate.

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15
Q

MVO2 (cardiac oxygen consumption) is defined by which of the following formulae? CO: cardiac output. AVO2: arteriovenous oxygen difference. HR: heart rate. SV: stroke volume. SBP: systolic blood pressure.

A CO / AVO2
B HR x SBP
C HR x SV
D CO x AVO2

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
• Cardiac oxygen consumption: MVO2 = HR x SBP (also known the rate pressure product, an approximation of MVO2)
• HR x SV = cardiac output
• Cellular oxygen consumption: VO2 max = CO x AVO2

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16
Q

A 27 year-old tennis player is determined to increase his fitness level. His win-loss record is abysmal in 5-set matches which can last several hours, and he often feels like his body “shuts down” after the 4th set. He comes to you for recommendations to improve his fitness. You tell him that the key to winning 5-set matches is knowing about the single best measure of cardiopulmonary fitness, which is calculated using the following formula:

A 220 – age
B Calories In – Calories Out
C HR x SV x AVO2 difference
D HR x SV (heart rate x stroke volume)

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
• The single best measure of cardiopulmonary fitness is VO2 max; this is the maximum oxygen consumption a patient can achieve during exercise.
• Higher oxygen consumption during exercise is correlated with increased cardiopulmonary fitness.
• The equation for VO2 max is as follows: VO2 max = HR X SV X AVO2 difference.
• Increased VO2 max with prolonged exercise is largely a result of increased AVO2 difference, as the end-organs become better able to extract and utilize oxygen from the arterial delivery system, leaving less oxygen to be returned to the lungs via the venous system.
• The product of HR and SV is equal to cardiac output, or the amount of blood delivered by the heart in 1 minute (L/min).
• 220 - age is a rough estimate of maximum HR.

17
Q

Patients with burns involving all of the following should be hospitalized, except which of the following?
AAll of the listed situations require hospitalization
BElectrical burn
CInhalation burn
DPerineum burn

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
• All electrical, inhalational, fracture-related, medically complicated, facial, or perineal burns require hospitalization.

18
Q

Normal aging causes which of the following physiologic changes?

A Increased number of type II motor units
B Increased baseline temperature
C Increased stroke volume
D Increased fat

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
• Aging causes increased fat, which has implications for fat-soluble medications and their volume of distribution.
• Aging also causes decreased cardiac output, VO2 max, vital capacity, FEV1, muscle mass, number of motor units, peak bone mass, temperature regulation ability, memory, renal GFR, and swallowing ability.

19
Q

An example of an open chain exercise would be:

A Planks
B Leg extensions
C Lunges
D Squats

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
• Closed chain exercises involve the distal segment of the limb being fixed (NOT moving).
• Open chain exercises involve the distal segment of the limb being NOT fixed (moving in space).
• Of all the exercises listed, only leg extensions involve the distal element of the limb moving in space.

20
Q

You are reviewing the medical chart for your next clinic patient. The patient is a 35-year-old female with a history of R breast cancer which was treated with partial mastectomy. You are consulted for lymphedema in the RUE since the surgery. The oncologist note states that she has grade I lymphedema. What does grade I lymphedema represent clinically?

A Elephantiasis present and trophic skin changes
B No visible edema but patient reports heaviness in affected limb
C Firm edema not reversible with elevation, but reversible with stockings/massage
D Edema reversible with limb elevation

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
• Breast cancer (and its treatment) is the most common cause of upper extremity lymphedema.
• In grade I lymphedema, the edema is reversible with limb elevation.
• In grade 2 lymphedema, the edema is reversible with use of elevation AND stockings/massage, and fibrotic changes may begin to develop.
• In grade 3 lymphedema, further extensive fibrosis and trophic skin changes develop; these changes are consistent with elephantiasis.

21
Q

In the Rule of 9s for estimating total body surface area (BSA) in an adult burn victim, the anterior surface of one upper extremity accounts for what percentage of total BSA?

A 9%
B 4.5%
C 3%
D 1.5%

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
• In the Rule of 9s, the head is 9% BSA, each entire upper extremity is 9% (thus, 1/2 of this would be 4.5%), entire lower extremity 18%, anterior torso 18%, posterior torso 18%, perineum 1%.

22
Q

You are managing a 45 year-old traumatic brain injury (TBI) patient on the inpatient rehabilitation unit. The patient requires frequent reorientation and is occasionally combative. What is the most appropriate Rancho Los Amigos score to apply to this patient?

A 6
B 5
C 4
D 3

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
• The Rancho Los Amigos scale is as follows:
• 1 = no response
• 2 = generalized response
• 3 = localized response
• 4 = confused agitated
• 5 = confused inappropriate
• 6 = confused appropriate
• 7 = automatic appropriate
• 8 = purposeful appropriate
23
Q

The modality of utilizing electricity to push charged medications through the skin and deeper tissues in order to reach a target structure is known as:

A Electromagnetophoresis
B Transdermophoresis
C Iontophoresis
D Phonophoresis

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
• Iontophoresis is the correct answer.
• Iontophoresis is the concept of using electricity to drive ions through the skin towards a target structure.
• Phonophoresis uses sound waves to push medication through the skin.
• Transdermophoresis and electromagnetophoresis are not modalities used in patient care.

24
Q

In the Rule of 9s for estimating total body surface area (BSA) in an adult burn victim, one entire upper extremity accounts for what percentage of total BSA?

A 18%
B 9%
C 4.5%
D 3%

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
• In the Rule of 9s, the head is 9% BSA, each entire upper extremity is 9%, entire lower extremity 18%, anterior torso 18%, posterior torso 18%, perineum 1%.

25
Q

Normal aging causes which of the following physiologic changes?

A Increased number of type II motor units
B Increased baseline temperature
C Increased stroke volume
D Increased fat

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
• Aging causes increased fat, which has implications for fat-soluble medications and their volume of distribution.
• Aging also causes decreased cardiac output, VO2 max, vital capacity, FEV1, muscle mass, number of motor units, peak bone mass, temperature regulation ability, memory, renal GFR, and swallowing ability.

26
Q

In burn patients, heterotopic ossification (HO) is most common at which of the following locations?

A Hip
B Knee
C Elbow
D Shoulder

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
• In most patients, HO is most common at the hip.
• In burn patients, HO is most common at the elbow.

27
Q

Which of the following hand positions is optimal to prevent contracture in a burn patient? MCP: metacarpophalangeal joint. PIP: proximal interphalangeal joint. DIP: distal interphalangeal joint.

A MCP extension, PIP flexion, DIP extension
B MCP extension, PIP extension, DIP extension
C MCP flexion, PIP flexion, DIP extension
D MCP flexion, PIP extension, DIP extension

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
• Optimal hand position to prevent a contracture due to a burn is MCP flexion, PIP and DIP extension, and thumb in palmar abduction.

28
Q

A 57 year-old patient with a history of COPD, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, heart disease (NYHA Class II), and valvular vegetations due to history of MRSA bacteremia is admitted to a regional hospital; the internal medicine team diagnoses the patient with acute CHF largely due to severe mitral regurgitation. He is identified as NYHA Class III based on his level of functioning prior to hospitalization. Which best describes his activity level prior to hospitalization?

A Comfortable at rest but otherwise significant limitations with activity
B Able to climb 3-4 flights of stairs without difficulty
C Able to complete activities of 7-10 METS
D Dyspnea at rest

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
• The question stem identifies the patient’s NYHA cardiac functional classification as NYHA Class III.
• NYHA Class I patients have cardiac disease that does NOT limit physical activity including activities > 7 METs.
• NYHA Class II patients are comfortable at rest but ordinary activity causes symptoms, and these patients can perform activities between 5-7 METs.
• NYHA Class III patients will be comfortable at rest but otherwise have significant limitations; they can typically perform activities between 2-5 METS (metabolic equivalent).
• NYHA Class IV patients are unable to carry on any physical activity without discomfort and are usually limited to 2 METS or less.
• MET is defined as the ratio of working metabolic rate to basal (resting) metabolic rate.
• 1 MET = 3.5 mL O2 consumed/kg of body weight/minute = energy consumption while at basal metabolic rate (resting)
• Sexual activity with familiar partners is defined as 5 METs, which is the equivalent of climbing 2 flights of stairs.
• It should be noted that sexual activity is prohibited for at least 2 weeks following a myocardial infarction.

29
Q
  1. Sexual activity is metabolically equivalent to climbing how many flights of stairs?

A 4
B 3
C 2
D 1

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
• Sexual activity is metabolically equivalent to climbing 2 flights of stairs, and is prohibited for at least 2 weeks following a myocardial infarction (MI).

30
Q

You are evaluating an adult burn victim. You diagnose burns involving the entire anterior torso, entire left lower extremity, and just the anterior surface of the left upper extremity. Using the Rule of 9s for estimating total body surface area (BSA), which of the following is the correct total BSA burned in this patient?

A 45%
B 40.5%
C 36%
D 31.5%

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
• In the Rule of 9s, the head is 9% BSA, each entire upper extremity is 9% (thus, 1/2 of this would be 4.5%), entire lower extremity 18%, anterior torso 18%, posterior torso 18%, perineum 1%.
• In this patient 18 + 18 + 4.5 = 40.5%.

31
Q

A 63 year-old male is admitted to acute rehab after cardiac transplantation. Upon his admission to the rehab facility, the charge nurse calls you to tell you that he has a HR of 105, and call orders dictate that you should be notified. The patient states that he is asymptomatic. He is afebrile and other vital signs are within normal limits. CBC and CMP from the acute hospital earlier in the day were within normal limits. What is your next step?

A Stat EKG to rule out arrhythmia after cardiac transplantation
B Consult internal medicine regarding appropriate workup
C Routine vitals sign checks, as this represents likely his new normal HR
D Comprehensive tachycardia workup as this likely represents early infection vs. possible embolism

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
• Following cardiac transplantation, vagal innervation to the heart is lost.
• This results in a higher baseline heart rate and delayed return to baseline after exercise.
• Additionally, antirejection medication often used after cardiac transplant can cause higher baseline HRs post-transplant.
• For the patient in the question stem who is asymptomatic with otherwise normal vital signs and labs within normal limits from the same day, routine vital checks are most appropriate as this is likely his new normal HR.

32
Q

A 49 year-old male presents to your clinic. He is saddened that, due to a spinal cord infection resulting in paraplegia, he is no longer able to play golf with his friends on the weekends. This is an example of:

A Permanent lack of satisfaction in life
B Handicap/Participation restriction
C Disability
D Impairment

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
• In simpler terms, impairments, disabilities, and handicaps can be defined as follows.
• Impairment is essentially a loss of structure or function (e.g. wrist drop).
• Disability is inability to perform ADLs (e.g. inability to ambulate or perform self care).
• Handicap reflects the patient’s ability to navigate societal constructs (e.g. cannot climb stairs to reach office at work; paraplegia resulting in loss of work as a professional cyclist).

33
Q

A burn involving the epidermis and part of the dermis would most appropriately be classified as which of the following?

A Full thickness
B Deep partial thickness
C Superficial partial thickness
D Superficial

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
• Superficial burn involves the epidermis.
• Superficial partial thickness burn involves the epidermis and part of the dermis.
• Deep partial thickness burn involves the epidermis and most of the dermis.
• Full thickness burn involves both the epidermis and dermis being burned away.