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Surgery > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Used in small animal surgery to hold securely brandish a blade:

A

3 Scalpel Handle

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2
Q

Used in surgery to cut tough tissue:

A

Mayo Scissors

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3
Q

Scissors used in surgery to cut delicate tissue:

A

Metzenbaum Scissors

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4
Q

Scissors used to cut delicate tissue in ophthalmic surgery:

A

Iris Scissors

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5
Q

Blunt/Blunt, Sharp/Blunt, Sharp/Sharp are classifications of these versatile instruments:

A

Operating Scissors

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6
Q

A cousin to the quilter’s thread puller, this instrument does the same task in medicine:

A

Suture or “Littauer” Scissors

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7
Q

Used to remove “packaging” material on patients, this instrument is called:

A

Bandage or “Lister” Scissors

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8
Q

The delicate tip, and single row of teeth indicates the gentle nature of this instrument:

A

Adson Thumb Forceps

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9
Q

The delicate tip, and multiple rows of teeth indicates the gentle nature of this instrument:

A

Brown Adson Thumb Forceps

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10
Q

Most would squeak at the site of this vermin:

A

“Rat Tooth” or Cushing Thumb Forceps

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11
Q

Using this tool you might say, “they ayes have it” :

A

Iris Thumb Forceps

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12
Q

These “tweezers” should NEVER be used to hold tissue:

A

Dressing Thumb Forceps

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13
Q

Securing the lid and protecting the orb, these are used in ophthalmic surgery:

A

Desmarres Chalazion Forceps

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14
Q

Adventure can be scary. You may want to travel down the rabbit hole with this:

A

Allis Tissue Forceps

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15
Q

Cousin to corn tongs - Entero-gation may be possible with these:

A

Babcock Intestinal Forceps

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16
Q

“Hold the stool” could be said to this instrument:

A

Doyen Intestinal Forceps

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17
Q

Doing the dishes might be easier if you had a pair of these:

A

Sponge Forceps

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18
Q

This instrument won’t make you itch with its small bite:

A

Halsted Mosquito Hemostat

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19
Q

Being stuck in the middle is no reason to cry for this instrument:

A

Crile Hemostat

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20
Q

The large hemostat with transverse grooves is known as:

A

Rochester-Pean Hemostat

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21
Q

This tool is commonly used on the ovarian pedicle and uterine body during OHE Sx:

A

Rochester-Carmalt Hemostat

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22
Q

Cousin to the Rochester-Pean, this tool bares teeth:

A

Rochester-Ochsner Hemostat

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23
Q

Cousin to the Crile, this medium tool bares teeth:

A

Kocher Hemostat

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24
Q

This prude’s transverse grooves don’t go all the way:

A

Kelly Hemostat

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25
Q

This instrument may be useful in a pinch:

A

Backhaus Towel Clamp

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26
Q

Used to clamp ovarian pedicles in OHE Sx:

A

Ferguson Angiotrobe

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27
Q

Your patient may be in stitches when you have this in hand:

A

Mayo-Hegar Needle Holder

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28
Q

Tying the knot and cutting the cord can be done with this:

A

Olsen-Hegar Needle Holder

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29
Q

Casting off in the eye of the storm may not be wise without this:

A

Castroviejo Needle Holder

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30
Q

No need to spring in to action, holding still for cleaning is the purpose of this:

A

Needle Spring Rack

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31
Q

Desk work would not be suitable for this:

A

Staple Remover

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32
Q
A

Senn Retractor

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33
Q

Used in OHE Sx to “pull back the curtain” :

A

Spay or “Snook” Hook

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34
Q

Used to retract muscle, this “wick’d” instrument is known as:

A

Weitlaner Retractor

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35
Q

Used to retract “private” muscles, this instrument is known as:

A

Gelpi Perineal Retractor

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36
Q

Used to distract the sternum and sides of the incision to expose the abdominal cavity:

A

Balfour Abdominal Retractor

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37
Q

This “vacuum” is used in general surgery:

A

Yankauer Suction Tip

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38
Q

This “holy” one is used in abdominal and thoracic cavity Sx:

A

Poole Suction Tip

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39
Q

The sharp cupped jaws of this instrument are used for removing small pieces of bone:

A

Rongeurs

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40
Q

Used for cutting the small, sharp edges of bone, this instrument is called:

A

Bone Cutting Forceps

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41
Q

The ratchet allows this tool to “hold” its place:

A

Kern Bone Holding Forceps

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42
Q

Prying muscle and periosteum is the purpose of this tool:

A

Freer Periosteal Elevator

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43
Q

Hearing the tap of this tool could be bone chiseling:

A

Mallet

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44
Q

Two of a kind, this tool can taper on one or both sides:

A

Osteotome or “Hoke”

Chisel (tapers on one side)

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45
Q

Giggling may not be the best past time when using this:

A

Gigli Saw or Hand & Wires

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46
Q

Used to position intramedullary pins:

A

Jacobs Hand Chuck & Key

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47
Q

Placed within the central cavity of bone:

A

Intermedullary Pin

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48
Q

“Hold your tongue” could be said to this instrument:

A

Tongue Grasping Forceps

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49
Q

Used to remove teeth, this tool is known as:

A

Extraction Forceps

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50
Q

Leverage is this tools best friend:

A

Dental Elevator

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51
Q

Expeditions are the name of the game for this tool:

A

Dental Explorer

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52
Q

Used to measure the depth of the sulcus in the purpose of this tool:

A

Dental Probe

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53
Q

Used to remove supra-gingival tartar:

A

Dental Scaler

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54
Q

Used to clear sub-gingival tartar:

A

Dental Curette

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55
Q
A

Biomedical Laser

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56
Q
A

Electrosurgery Unit

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57
Q
A

Radiosurgery Unit

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58
Q

This organic, multifilament suture material is absorbable and can cause severe tissue reactions:

A

Surgical or “Cat” Gut

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59
Q

This is an improved form of an organic, multifilament suture material with an extended absorption period and reduce suture reaction severity:

A

Chromic Gut

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60
Q

These synthetic, absorbable, and multifilament suture materials have good knot security and minimal tissue reactions:

A

Polyglactin 910 or “Vicryl”

Polyglycolic acid or “Dexon”

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61
Q

These synthetic, absorbable, and monofilament suture materials have good knot security and minimal tissue reactions:

A

Polydioxanone or “PDS”

Polyglyconate or “Maxon”

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62
Q

These synthetic, non-absorbable, and multifilament suture materials have poor knot security and minimal tissue reactions:

A

Polyester fibers
“Dacron” & “Ethibond”

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63
Q

These synthetic, non-absorbable, and monofilament suture materials have poor knot security and minimal tissue reactions:

A

Nylon
“Ethilon” & “Demalon”

64
Q

This organic, non-absorbable, multifilament suture material causes moderate tissue reactions:

A

Silk

65
Q

This non-absorbable suture material is primarily used on bone and measured by gauge:

A

Wire Suture

(Mono / Multi - Filament)

66
Q

NEEDLES

A
67
Q

This device allows PPV and more efficient gas delivery when properly place:

A

Endotracheal Tube

68
Q

A properly inflated ET tube cuff prevents/facilitates:

A

Prevents:
1. anesthetic dilution (room air)
2. waste gas leaking
Reduce:
1. Aspiration risk
Facilitates:
1. PPV

69
Q

Inexpensive, Flexible, Absorbent (disinfectants), and kink/collapse are positive and negative characteristics of:

A

Rubber ET Tubes

70
Q

A Murphy Tube has what advantage over a Magill Tube?

A

Murphy tube has a murphy hole - Prevents complete obstruction of tube if plugged with mucus or tracheal wall.

71
Q

ET Tubes are measured by:

A

Internal diameter in mm.
Dogs: 5-18 mm
Cats: 2.5 - 4.5 mm

72
Q

This tool is used to depress the tongue and illuminate the oral cavity:

A

Laryngoscope

73
Q

This tool:

  1. Connects to the glottis opening.
  2. Maintains airway w/o tracheal invasion.
  3. Decreases laryngospasm, dead space resistance, airway trauma, post-op coughing.
  4. Expensive
A

Supraglottic Airway Devices

(SAD)

74
Q

Oxygen Cylinders contain:
A. 90% Oxygen Concentration
B. 85% Oxygen Concentration
C. 100% Oxygen Concentration
D. 75% Oxygen Concentration

A

C. 100% Oxygen Concentration

75
Q

Oxygen’s second purpose during anesthesia is to:

A

Act as the carrier gas to deliver the anesthetic.

76
Q

High Oxygen concentration is required for anesthesia to prevent hypoxia due to:

A

Decreased RR & TV.

77
Q

E, H, and I, are different types of:

A

Oxygen Cylinders

78
Q

Oxygen Cylinders should always be stored:

A

Upright in a cart or chained to a wall.

79
Q

A full Oxygen Cylinder will have a pressure gauge reading of:

A

2200 psi

(660 L)

80
Q

An Oxygen Cylinder should never be allowed to drop below:

A

100 - 200 psi

(Change to new cylinder)

81
Q

psi X 0.3 =

A

Cylinder Volume in liters.

82
Q

Flow rate / 60 minutes =

A

Available duration of Oxygen Cylinder use.

83
Q

Regulating pressure to 50 psi is done by the:

A

Pressure Reducing Valve

84
Q

What part of the anesthetic machine is described below:

  1. Set measured flow rate
  2. On to deliver O2
  3. On to deliver anesthetic
  4. Pressure reduced to 15 psi
A

Oxygen Flowmeter

85
Q

Coverts agent specific liquid anesthetic to gas and adjusts percentage of anesthetic to carrier concentration:

A

Vaporizer

86
Q

This piece of anesthetic equipment should not be tilted or jostled, and should be replenished at the end of day in a well ventilated area:

A

Vaporizer

87
Q

Used to bypass the flowmeter and vaporizer, adding oxygen to the system at a fast rate (30-50L / min):

A

Oxygen Flush Valve

88
Q

When using the Oxygen Flush Vale, you should never:

A

Distend the rebreathing bag

Create pressure on manometer

89
Q

The new gas and anesthetic enter the circuit at the:

A

Fresh Gas Inlet

90
Q

What is the order of travel through the anesthetic circuit?

A
  1. Inspiratory Unidirectional Valve
  2. Reservoir/Rebreathing Bag
  3. Connecting hoses (Ex: Y-piece)
  4. Expiratory Unidirectional Valve
  5. Pop-Off Valve
  6. CO2 Absorption Chamber
  7. Pressure Manometer
91
Q

Used to give patients a breath and create PPV:

A

Rebreathing Bag

92
Q

Tidal Volume =

A

5mL/Lb or 11mL/kg

93
Q

Rebreathing bag should be:

A

At least 5 - 6 X TV

94
Q

Small Animal Anesthesia Rebreathing bag sizes range:

A

0.25L, 0.5L, 1L, and 2L

95
Q

Why is PPV beneficial?

A
  1. Prevents atelectasis
  2. Flushes airways with fresh gas
  3. Life saving if patient not breathing
96
Q

The Carbon Dioxide Absorption Chamber is filled with:

A

Soda Lime

(Calcium hydroxide)

97
Q

The Soda Lime is saturated and should be changed when:

A
  1. Coloration is blue/purple
  2. Brittle (Difficult to break)
98
Q

Shows pressure in the anesthetic circuit:

A

Pressure Manometer

99
Q

When bagging, the pressure gate for dogs and cats should:

A
  1. Dogs - stay between 15 - 20 mm H2O
  2. Cats - stay between 12-15 mm H2O
100
Q

Open for non-rebreathing and closed for rebreathing / bagging:

A

Pop-Off Valve

101
Q

Never do this with the pop-off valve:

A

Leave it closed (unmonitored)

Creates pressure in system & can cause pulmonary rupture.

102
Q

Admits room air in to circuit if negative pressure occurs:

A

Air Intake Valve

103
Q

Negative pressure is caused by:

A
  1. Oxygen flow rate is too low
  2. Scavenger flow rate is too high
104
Q

What carriers waste gas away?

A

Scavenger Line

105
Q

Use of a pump or fan to remove waste gas is done with:

A

Active Scavenger

106
Q

Use of a gravity to remove waste gas is done with:

A

Passive (Chemical) Scavenger

107
Q

A Chemical Scavenger is saturated and should be replaced:

A
  1. 50g weight gain
  2. 12 hours of use
108
Q

Precision Vaporizers are designed for what purposes?

A

Deliver exact concentration (in %) of high vapor pressure anesthetic gases.

109
Q

At what rate are some Precision Vaporizers considered inaccurate?

A

< 250 - 500mL/minute

110
Q

Non-precision Vaporizers are used for:

A

Low vapor pressure anesthetic gases.

(Ex: methoxyflurane - no long used in US)

111
Q

True or False:

A Non-precision vaporizer compensates for room temperature, flow, and back pressure.

A

False.

A precision vaporizer does.

112
Q

Which type of vaporizer is VOC?

A

Precision Vaporizer

(Vaporizer Out of Circle)

113
Q

Which type of vaporizer is VIC?

A

Non-precision Vaporizer

(Vaporizer In Circle)

114
Q

Circular air flow & reuse of exhaled gas are part of a:

A

Rebreathing system

(CO2 removed by soda lime)

115
Q

A low O2 flow rate and closed Pop off valve are used in:

A

Total Rebreathing Systems

116
Q

Higher O2 flow rate, Gases replaced with fresh O2 & anesthetic, and a partly opened pop-off valve are used in:

A

Partial Rebreathing Systems

117
Q

Exhaled gas is disposed and fresh gas flow is high in:

A

Non-rebreathing Systems

118
Q

Why should low O2 flow rates be avoided in a non-rebreathing system?

A

Low flow rates can lead to CO2 buildup since CO2 chamber not used.

119
Q

Choice of breathing system is determined by what 6 factors?

A
  1. Patient Size
  2. Convenience
  3. Cost
  4. Rate of control
  5. Heat & Moisture conservation
  6. Waste gas production
120
Q

VT or TV =

A

11mL/kg or 5mL/lb

121
Q

RMV =

(Respiratory Minute Volume)

A

VT X RR

(~ 100 - 200 mL/kg/min)

122
Q

RR =

A

Respiratory Rate

ave. = 10 - 20 br/min

123
Q

Minimum metabolic O2 requirement for anesthetized patients =

A

5 - 10 mL/kg/min

124
Q

Mask Induction O2 Flow Rate =

A

30 X VT = 300 mL/kg/min

< 10kg = 1 - 3 L/min

> 10kg = 3 - 5 L/min

125
Q

Induction Chamber O2 Flow Rate =

A

5 L/min

126
Q

O2 Flow Rate for a Semi-Closed Rebreathing System with Inj. Induction, Changing Depth, and during Recovery:

A

50 - 100 mL/kg/min

127
Q

O2 Flow Rate for Maintenance using a Semi-Close Rebreathing System:

A

20 - 40 mL/kg/min

128
Q

Minimal Rebreathing with a Semi-Closed System:

A

200 - 300 mL/kg/min

129
Q

O2 Flow Rate for a Closed Rebreathing System:

A

5 - 10 mL/kg/min

ONLY used for maintenance

130
Q

O2 Flow Rate in a Mapleson A or Modified Mapleson A Non-Rebreathing System:

A

100 - 200 mL/kg/min

131
Q

O2 Flow Rate for Mapleson D or Bain Non-rebreathing System:

A

300 - 400 mL/kg/min

132
Q

An item which has undergone a procedure resulting in the complete absence of all microbes:

A

Sterile

133
Q

Techniques designed to maintain an object or area in a condition as free of all microbes as possible:

A

Surgical Asepsis / Aseptic Technique

134
Q

Any item which:

  1. Has not been sterilized
  2. Contacted a non-sterile item
  3. Sterile and left exposed
A

Contaminated

Non-sterile

Dirty

135
Q

Cleaning measures intended to prevent disease:

A

Sanitation

136
Q

Use of agents to kill (-cidal) or inhibit reproduction (-static) microorganisms:

A

Disinfection

137
Q

Disinfectants are used on:

A

Inanimate Objects

138
Q

Antiseptics are used on:

A

Living Tissues

139
Q

What is the process to rid an object of all living microbes?

A

Sterilization

140
Q

Immersion of objects in disinfecting solution to reduce contamination level is called:

A

Cold Sterilization

Does not truly sterilize

141
Q

Protozoa, Fungi, Bacteria, Viruses, and Endospores are:

A

Microbial Organisms

142
Q

Introduction of microorganisms to a surgical site must occur for _ to develop.

A

Surgical Infection

143
Q

What is a nosocomial infection?

A

Hospital Acquired Infection

Often more resistant strains

144
Q

Contamination that originates from outside the body:

A

Exogenous Contamination

145
Q

Contamination that originates from within the body:

A

Endogenous Contamination

146
Q

Contamination progressing to infection depends on:

A
  1. General Patient Health
  2. Degree of tissue damage in wound
  3. Virulence of infectious agent
  4. Number of infectious agents
147
Q

What factor of Sx infections can we exert the most control over?

A

Number of microorganisms introduced exogenously

148
Q

What is the goal of Aseptic Technique?

A

Minimize microbial contamination of the surgical site

149
Q

Used to eliminate or control the source of microorganisms:

A

Isolation Ward

150
Q

Increase host resistance to infection with:

A
  1. Basic Hygiene
  2. Adequate Nutrition
  3. Vaccination
  4. Pharmaceuticals
151
Q

Prevent transmission of microorganisms with:

A
  1. Ventilation
  2. Physical Control
  3. Chemical Control
152
Q

What factors influence the effectiveness of physical and chemical control methods?

A
  1. Spore Formation
  2. Heat Resistance
  3. Protective Capsule
  4. Sufficient amount of control method (large number of MOs)
  5. Nature and mode of action of chemical control
  6. Concentration of chemical agent
  7. Temperature
  8. Time
  9. Extraneous Organic Matter
153
Q

What is the most common method of sterilization?

A

Heat

154
Q

Dry heat kills by:

A

Protein Oxidation

155
Q

Moist heat kills by:

A

Protein Coagulation

156
Q

Which type of heat kills bacteria and spores at lower temperatures in a shorter period of exposure?

A

Moist Heat

157
Q

What items are sterilized by dry heat and at what temperature?

A

Oils, powders, petroleum products, rubber, fabric, items that can not tolerate moist heat.

150° - 170 ° C for 1-3 hours (depending on item)

Surgery (8 decks)

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