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PREVMED 1 > GRANDBERRY PREVMED 1 > Flashcards

GRANDBERRY PREVMED 1 Flashcards

1
Q

WHo establishes the PIC?

A

Food Establishment Manager

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2
Q

What is one thing the PIC ensures?

A
  • Food operations are not conducted in private quarters or in a room used for sleeping
  • Employees inform them about health activities as they relate to diseases transmissible through food
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3
Q

What are the reportable symptoms

A
  • Vomiting
  • diarrhea
  • jaundice
  • soar throat with fever
  • lesion or open wound
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4
Q

What are the symptoms an employee must be excluded for?

A
  • Symptomatic vomit/diarrhea
  • symptomatic vomit/diarrhea+infection
  • **norovirus, shigella, EHEC/STEC
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5
Q

Jaundiced onset symptoms undiagnosed?

A

7 days exclusion

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6
Q

Diagnosed with Hep A?

A

14 days with symptoms, excluded

With Jaundice SX = 7 days

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7
Q

Salmonella typhi?

A

Exclude if SX in last 3 months

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8
Q

Symptomatic with sore throat with fever?

A

Restrict

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9
Q

Symptomatic with uncovered infected wound or pustular boil?

A

restrict

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10
Q

Exposed forborne pathogen and works in food establishment serving HSP?

A

Restrict

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11
Q

Norovirus Diagnosis?

A

adjust exclusion to restrict for at least 24 hours until conditions are met

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12
Q

When can you you reinstate an employee who was restricted and exposed to Norovirus?

A
  • +48 hours since last potential exposure

- +48 hours since family asymptomatic

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13
Q

WHen can you reinstate employee who was restricted and was exposed to Shigella, EHEC/STEC?

A
  • 3+ days since exposure

- 3+ days since family asymptomatic

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14
Q

S Typhi restricted employee who was restricted?

A
  • 14+ days since potential exposure

- 14+ days since household asymptomatic

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15
Q

Reinstate employee after Hep A and one of the following is met?

A

30+ days since potential exposure

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16
Q

How long do food employees need to wash their hands for?

A

20 seconds

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17
Q

How much alcohol in hand sanitizers?

A

60% ethyl alcohol

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18
Q

How long can fingernails be?

A

1/4 inch

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19
Q

Jewelry in food est?

A

plain ring only

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20
Q

What utensil can employees use to taste food?

A
  • Clean sanitized utensil

- single use disposable utensil

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21
Q

CDC 5 foodborne illness risk factors?

A
  • food from unsafe sources
  • inadequate cooking
  • improper holding/time-temp
  • contaminated equipment/cross contamination protection
  • poor personal hygiene
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22
Q

How often is refresher training?

A

12 months

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23
Q

What must the annual training contain?

A

CDC 5 risk factors

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24
Q

How often is Food Manager Cert training?

A

5 years from CFP/ANSI

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25
Q

Who approves game animal use?

A

Army/AF Veterinarians

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26
Q

What is specific with food law?

A
  • obtained from sources that comply with the law

- private home food cannot be served in food est, unless for special event

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27
Q

What must be on all meat/poultry packaging offered for consumption?

A

Safe Handling Instructions

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28
Q

what grade does milk need to be?

A

A

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29
Q

Can molluscan shellfish be served when it is recreationally caught?

A

No

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30
Q

What temp must PHF be received at?

A

41F

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31
Q

What temp can eggs be received at?

A

45F or less, unless overseas when authorized by Command Policy allowing different

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32
Q

What is important info about shell stock receiving?

A
  • Shell stock ID #
  • tag with “this tag required to be attached until container is empty or retagged and thereafter kept on file for 90 days”
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33
Q

What does the dealer tag of label need to contain?

A
  • name/address/cert number

- “this tag required…90 days”

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34
Q

Juice, where to we obtain it from?

A
  • HACCP system

- pasteurized/treated to attain 5-log reduction of the most resistant microorganism of public significance

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35
Q

How do we prevent contamination from hands?

A
  • wash hands IAW NAVMED P5010-1
  • other than fruits/veg no contact with bare hands
  • minimize contact with exposed food NOT ready to eat
  • REGULATORY AUTHORITY is only one to authorize bare hand contact with READY TO EAT FOOD*
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36
Q

When washing fruits/veggies, what is the chemical wash/disinfection?

A

FDA approved commercial chemical wash product

  • bleach/sodium hypochlorite rated 5-6%
  • 50-200ppm free available chlorine solution (pH 6-7.5)
  • immerse 1 minute in solution
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37
Q

Wiping cloth limitations?

A
  • maintained dry

- used for no other purpose

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38
Q

Cloths in-use for wiping counters/equipment?

A
  • held in sanitizing solution

- LAUNDERED DAILY

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39
Q

Food storage prohibited areas?

A
  • locker room
  • toilet room
  • dressing room
  • garbage room
  • mechanical rooms
  • under sewer lines
  • under leaking lines
  • under open stairwells
  • under any contamination
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40
Q

What is foodborne illness?

A

Illness carried or transmitted to people by food

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41
Q

What is a foodborne illness outbreak?

A

AN incident of 2+ people with same illness after same food

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42
Q

WHat is a foodborne infection?

A

Illness caused by consuming food with living disease-causing microorganism
- salmonella

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43
Q

WHat is foodborne intoxication?

A

food containing hazardous chemical/toxin

- clostridium botulinum

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44
Q

Toxin mediated infection?

A
  • food with pathogenic organisms that reproduce in intestines and produce toxin
  • e-coli
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45
Q

What are the 4 types of microorganisms in foodborne illnesses?

A

Bacteria
Viruses
parasites
fungi

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46
Q

Spore forming bacteria?

A
  • Clostridium perfringes
  • Bacillus cereus
  • clostridium botulinum
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47
Q

Clostridium perfringes?

A
  • SX include abdominal pain and SEVERE DIARRHEA
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48
Q

Bacillus cereus

A
  • Type I/II symptoms
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49
Q

Clostridium botulinum

A
  • SX dizziness, Shortness of breath, headache, double vision
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50
Q

Cigatoxin onset?

A

30 min-6 hours

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51
Q

Scrombroid SX?

A

dizziness, rash, hives, shortness of breath, peppery taste, itching, teary eyes
- from Game fish

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52
Q

FATTOM?

A
  • Food
  • Acidity - 7.5-4.6pH
  • Temp - 41F-135F where organisms grow best (TIME/TEMP EASIEST TO CONTROL)
  • Time - Microorganisms double population every 20 min, 4 HOUR LIMIT
  • Oxygen
  • Moisture - AW 0.85+
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53
Q

Lag phase?

A

bacteria exhibit no growth

- only a few hours long

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54
Q

Log phase?

A

bacteria double in number every few minutes

- food may look good but can be dangerous

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55
Q

Stationary phase?

A

number of new bacteria equal ones dying off

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56
Q

Decline phase?

A
  • bacteria die off quickly
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57
Q

Top five CDC Risk factors contributing to foodborne illness?

A
  • Improper hot/cold temp of PHF
  • improper cooking temp
  • contaminated utensils/equipment
  • poor employee health/hygiene
  • food supplied from unsafe/unapproved source
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58
Q

Raw animal foods:

145 F or above for 15 sec?

A

raw eggs prepared to order

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59
Q

Raw animal foods 155F for 15 sec?

A
  • Ratites

- mechanically tenderized and injected meats

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60
Q

Raw animal meats 165F for 15 seconds?

A

poultry
baluts
wild game

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61
Q

Internal temp of meats in microwave?

A

165 in all parts

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62
Q

parasite destruction temperature?

A
  • 4F or lower for 7 days
  • -31F for 15 hours
  • -31F until solid, -4 for 24 hours
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63
Q

Reheating temps for hot holding?

A

165, rotate/stir, stand cover for 2 min

- Ready-to-eat 135F

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64
Q

Commercially processed food holding time?

A

shall not exceed manufacturer recommended shelf life when removed from freezer

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65
Q

What is time as a public health control?

A
  • If time without temp control is used as a public health control
  • written and approved by regulatory authority
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66
Q

Max time food can be out?

A

4 hours

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67
Q

Unmarked containers or packages or marked exceeding 4 hours?

A

discarded immediately

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68
Q

How long can cold food be out for?

A

6 hours or 70F

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69
Q

How long are leftovers kept for?

A

72 hours if chilled

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70
Q

Expiration date extensions on food can be extended and offered for sale if?

A
  • Inspected and approved by regulatory authority

- documentation of shelf life extension is available on request

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71
Q

Can food/color additives, colored lights, colored over wraps be used on food?

A

No, it misrepresents the true appearance

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72
Q

What is the material requirements for construction and repair of Food Service Facility?

A

NAVMED P-5010-1

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73
Q

What is the limitation of Cast Iron in food service?

A
  • surface for cooking

- can be used as utensils and uninterrupted process from cooking through service

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74
Q

Can we use copper for cooking?

A

Yes, but not with any pH below 6 such as vinegar.

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75
Q

What kind of pallets can we use?

A

NSF Certified pallets

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76
Q

How are utensils and equipment designed?

A

constructed durable and to retain their characteristic qualities under normal use

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77
Q

How are thermometers designed?

A
  • constructed with glass, except if it is encased in a shatterproof coating
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78
Q

How are temp measuring devices supposed to be accurate?

A 
C = +/- 1 degree 
F = +/- 2 degrees
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79
Q

How is pressure measured in pressure for water supply?

A

7 Kilopascals, measured in +/- 14 kilopascals (+/- 2 psi)

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80
Q

What does ventilation function in food prep?

A

removes:

  • dust
  • grease
  • humidity
  • heat
  • smoke
  • odor
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81
Q

How are bulk milk dispensers standardized and cut?

A

NSF International Standard

- diagonal cut 1 inch protruding from head

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82
Q

Where are temperature measuring devices placed in freezers/warmers?

A
  • warmest part of fridge
  • coldest part of a warmer
  • placed to allow easy viewing of temp display
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83
Q

Manual warewashing equipment temperatures?

A

able to maintian temp no less than 171F

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84
Q

What is the publication that has to do with shipboard food service equipment?

A

NAVSUP PUB 533 Shipboard food equipment catalog

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85
Q

What is the standards for all foodservice equipment?

A
  • NSF International
  • Underwriters Lab
  • USDA
  • Baking Industry Sanitation Standards Committee (BISSC)
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86
Q

Manual warewashing sinks?

A

Manual Washing
Rinsing
Sanitizing

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87
Q

Who approves two sink warewashing?

A
  • Regulatory Authority approves on PIC’s request

* **not to be used during continuous or intermittent flow

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88
Q

What is a thermometer with a small diameter probe used for?

A

Thin meats/masses

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89
Q

Warewashing test kits measure what?

A
  • concentrations of mg/L or ppm of sanitizing solutions
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90
Q

General installation of foodservice equipment is under what guidelines?

A
  • NSF International
  • USACHPPM TG No 194
  • FDA Food Establishment Plan Review Guide 2000
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91
Q

Counter mounted/table mounted equipment that is not easily movable is installed and set up for cleaning with?

A
  • sealed install

- elevated 4 inches

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92
Q

Fixed equipment/floor-mounted equipment not easily movable install/cleaning?

A
  • sealed legs

- 6 inches clearance underneath

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93
Q

Who can authorize continued use of foodservice equipment not NSF approved, but still serviceable/not hazardous?

A

Regulatory Authority

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94
Q

Can a warewashing sink be used for handwashing?

A

No

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95
Q

If iodine is used in warewashing what temp should the water be?

A

68 degrees

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96
Q

What is the temp of the wash solution for manual warewashing?

A

no less than 110F

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97
Q

For manual warewashing what temp should the rinse solution be?

A

no less than 120F

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98
Q

What temp should manual warewashing sanitizing sink be?

A

no less than 171F

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99
Q

What are the chemical sanitizers for warewashing?

A

iodine
chlorine
quats

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100
Q

What is the chlorine sanitizing solution?

A
  • standard non-scented bleach/hypochlorite (5-6%)
  • 100ppm Free available chlorine solution (2tbs/1oz) and 4 gallons water
  • Minimum concentrations for 3 compartment sink (75F, 50ppm for 7 seconds
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101
Q

Proper steps in manual/mechanical warewashing?

A
  • Scrap
  • wash
  • rinse
  • sanitize
  • air dry
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102
Q

How are food temperature measuring devices calibrated?

A
  • IAW Manufacturers specifications
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103
Q

How often are ice machines cleaned and sanitized?

A

every 30 days

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104
Q

How often are ice machine filters changed?

A

every six months/recommended by manufacturer

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105
Q

How often should PHF(TCS) food equipment, surfaces, utensils be cleaned throughout the day?

A

every 4 hours

106
Q

How often are ice tea dispensers cleaned?

A

every 24 hours

107
Q

how often are consumer utensils (tongs, scoops, ladles) cleaned?

A

8 hours

108
Q

How often are baking equipment/microwaves cleaned?

A

every 24 hours

109
Q

DO we use steel wool at all in food services?

A

NO

110
Q

After being cleaned, equipment with food contact surfaces and utensils shall be sanitized by:?

A
  • Hot water manual operations for 30 seconds in sanitizing sink
  • Mechanical temp of 160F for utensils after cleaning
111
Q

When should wet wiping cloths be laundered?

A

Daily

112
Q

What is the best method for drying utensils?

A

air dry

113
Q

Prohibitions for cleaned/sanitized equipment?

A
  • locker rooms
  • toilet rooms
  • garbage rooms
  • mechanical rooms
  • under sewer lines
  • under leaking water lines
  • under open stairwells
  • ## under other sources of contamination
114
Q

Where can we get our water from?

A

Approved source

  • public water system
  • non-public, maintained and operated under the law
115
Q

Who shall ensure that the installation tests drinking water daily?

A
  • Medical authority

designated representative

116
Q

Who tests BULK water for potable water?

A

Food service manager tests DAILY

117
Q

How hot should the water be for handwashing?

A

110-120F

118
Q

How should refuse receptacles for food be?

A
  • durable
  • cleanable
  • insect-resistant
  • rodent resistant
  • leakproof
  • nonabsorbent
119
Q

How should kitchen floors and walls be?

A
  • smooth, easily cleanable
  • light colored
  • wall-floor intersection is coved/sealed to prevent moisture from entering wall
120
Q

what shall be present at all handwashing locations?

A
  • soap products
  • individual disposable towels
  • heated-air hand drying device
  • handwashing signage
  • waste receptacle
121
Q

What are the LUX associated with food services?

A
  • 108 for walk in fridge, dry food storage
  • 215 self-service food, reach in equipment, handwashing area/toilet
  • 540 where food prep is being done with knives
122
Q

Red Square B Extinguisher?

A

Gasoline, grease and solvents

123
Q

How are mops stored?

A

Head down

angle rack

124
Q

How do you control pests?

A
  • inspect shipments
  • inspect premises
  • use trapping devices
  • eliminate harborage
  • proper stocking (first in/out)
125
Q

Integrated pest management?

A
  • deny pests access to establishment
  • deny pests food/water/shelter
  • Use Licensed Pest Control Operator to eliminate pests
126
Q

How do you identify cockroaches?

A
  • Oily scent

- droppings like pepper

127
Q

WHat is the most common cockroach?

A

German

128
Q

What are the three most common flies?

A
  • House fly - carry E coli, salmonella, shigella
  • fruit fly - spread plant diseases
  • blow fly - larger than house fly, shiny blue
129
Q

Most common moths/beetles?

A
  • saw-toothed grain beetle
  • rice weevil
  • indian meal moth
  • ** feed on corn, rice, wheat, flour, beans, sugar, meal, and cereals
130
Q

How will you label bottles/containers with chemicals inside?

A

Common name

131
Q

How do you deal with poisonous/toxic/chemical materials?

A
  • Keep locked
  • keep in original container
  • dispose per local, state and fed guidelines
132
Q

For all chemical sanitizers what is the coding?

A

look for CFR in the ID

133
Q

WHat is non-toxic tracking powder for rodents?

A

Talcum powder or flour

134
Q

What is NAVMED P-5010-6?

A

Water supply afloat

135
Q

WHat is NAVMED P-5010-9?

A

Prev Med for Ground Forces

136
Q

WHat is the minimum requirements for field-expedient food?

A

Hand washing facilities

137
Q

How do we dispose of solid waste in the field?

A
  • Bury
  • incinerate
  • return to forward supply point
  • dispose per local req’s
138
Q

Who screens military/civilian foodservice employees?

A

Senior Surgeon/Command Surgeon develops policy

139
Q

Who verifies medical clearance for DOD Civilians/foreign nationals as food employees?

A

Regulatory Authority

140
Q

How far do latrines and birthing need to be from a food establishment?

A
  • Latrines - 300 ft (100yds) Downwind

- Birthing - 90 ft (30yds)

141
Q

At a minimum what needs to be set up for handwashing?

A
  • field latrines/toilets
  • cleaning/sanitizing at food establishment
  • food prep/food serving
  • customer entrance to serving line
142
Q

Field foodservice drinking water standards follow what instruction?

A

Navmed P-5010-10

143
Q

Drinking water afloat standards are?

A
  • BUMEDINST 6240.10

- NAVMED P-5010-6

144
Q

Food service manager shall ensure bulk water supply is…?

A
  • tested daily
  • test chlorine residual at outlet
  • take corrective actions to re-chlorinate bulk water
145
Q

What standards should pipes/hoses and connections have?

A

NSF/ANSI

146
Q

How often and who should inspect for pests?

A

PIC/daily

- inspect food ops area

147
Q

What temp should frozen foods be thawed at?

A

41F

148
Q

for time only public health controls, how long can food be out?

A

4 hours

149
Q

WHat are the disinfection PPM criteria?

A
  • 50ppm - 30 min
  • 100 ppm - 15 min
  • 200 ppm - 30 sec ***rinse with drinking water
  • Hot 140F water - 1 minute
150
Q

WHen wearing cammo facepaint what can you assist in at the galley?

A

Take out the trash only

151
Q

WHat are the highly susceptible population?

A
  • Immunocompromised
  • Preschool age
  • older adults
152
Q

WHo is the regulatory authority?

A
  • qualified DOD Civilian
  • Prev Med DOD wide
  • PUBLIC HEALTH (for civilians)
  • VET SERVICES
153
Q

WHo is the medical authority?

A

Commander of the MTF

154
Q

WHat is color additive?

A

dye, pigment

155
Q

WHat is a hazard?

A

PIC is always on lookout for anything related to HACCP, biological, chemical, or physical property that causes unacceptable risk

156
Q

What are the seven principles of HACCP (Hazard analysis and critical control point)?

A
  • Hazard Analysis
  • ID Critical COntrol Points in food prep
  • est critical limit
  • est procedure to monitor CCP
  • est corrective action to be taken when monitoring
  • est procedures to verify system is working
  • record keeping
157
Q

WHat is DD Form 2972?

A

Food Facility Risk Assessment Survey

158
Q

WHat is DD FOrm 2973?

A

Food Operations Inspection Report

- follow up inspections within 7 days if failure

159
Q

WHat is DD Form 2974?

A

Tactical Kitchen Inspection Report

160
Q

WHat is DD Form 2971?

A

COnditional EMployee or Food Employee Reporting Agreement

161
Q

What are the inspection ratings?

A
  • Fully Compliant - NO Deficiencies
  • Substantially compliant
  • Partially Compliant
  • Non-Compliant
162
Q

WHat are capitalized words in instructions?

A

Defined in GLossary

163
Q

What are Italicized words for?

A

Not requirements

164
Q

WHat are critical things in Tri-Service Food Code?

A

Asterisk at end of section

165
Q

WHat are Non-Critical in Tri Service Food Code?

A

superscripted letter N

166
Q

WHat are swing items on Tri Service Food Code?

A

Subscripted (S)

167
Q

WHat does shall mean?

A

Act is imperative

168
Q

WHat does may not mean?

A

Absolute prohibition

169
Q

WHat does may mean?

A

Act is allowed

170
Q

WHat does should mean?

A

Recommended

171
Q

What are debitable provisions ?

A

ID Compliance criteria

- Example - 2-101-11, 4-501.112, 3-501-110

172
Q

WHat are non-debitable provisions?

A

Example: 2-102.20, 4-204-200, 8-6

173
Q

Food Operation Inspection Report:

Blocks 1-3

A
  • Name of facility
  • Address
  • Vessel name
174
Q

Food Operation Inspection Report:

Block 4

A

Year Month Day, same as block 14

175
Q

Food Operation Inspection Report:

Block 5

A

Inspection Type, same as 15

176
Q

Food Operation Inspection Report:

Block 6

A

Inspector

177
Q

Food Operation Inspection Report:

Block 7

A

Start Time

178
Q

Food Operation Inspection Report:

Block 8

A

End Time

179
Q

Food Operation Inspection Report:

Block 9

A

PIC

180
Q

Food Operation Inspection Report:

Block 10

A

Number/Type of deficiencies

181
Q

Food Operation Inspection Report:

Block 11

A

Inspection Rating

182
Q

Food Operation Inspection Report:

Block 12

A

Compliance status

183
Q

Food Operation Inspection Report:

Block 13, 14, 15

A

Facility Name, Date, inspection type

184
Q

Food Operation Inspection Report:

Block 16

A

Temperature Observation

185
Q

Food Operation Inspection Report:

Block 17

A

Remarks

186
Q

Food Operation Inspection Report:

Block 18

A

Signature

187
Q

What is a vector?

A

Arthropod or rodent capable of transmitting disease to individuals

188
Q

What is a host?

A

Individual potentially susceptible to illness?

189
Q

What is a reservoir?

A

Organism where agent lives and multiplies

190
Q

WHat is pesticide?

A

ANy substance that kills pests

191
Q

What are the functions of a navy entomologist?

A
  • on site consultation
  • technical assistance
  • recommendations
  • **Conducts training for certifications as shipboard pest control specialist
192
Q

What does a navy entomologist review and evaluate?

A
  • Pest control procedures
  • pesticides
  • pesticide dispersal
  • new technologies
193
Q

What does vector control do?

A
  • prevent disease transmission to man
  • ensure sanitary conditions
  • eliminate host/reservoir of disease
  • ensure safe food supply
194
Q

WHat are the directives for pest management in DOD/Navy?

A
  • DOD Directive 4150.07 - DOD Pest Management Program
  • OPNAVINST 6250.4C - Pest Management Program
  • MAVMED P-5052-26 - Shipboard Pest Management Manual
195
Q

WHat are NAVSEASYSCOM responsibilities for vector management afloat?

A

Standardize pesticide/equipment recommended by BUMED

196
Q

WHat doe the INtegrated Pest Control and MAnagement Procedures do?

A

Minimize pesticide usage

197
Q

What are the pesticide standards?

A
  • Restricted - trained applicators
  • Non-Standard - No special training, only trained personnel can use on ships
  • Nonstandard - entomologist only
198
Q

Pesticide type by use?

A
  • Acaricide - mites, scorpions, spiders, ticks
  • Fungicide - fungus
  • Herbicide - control undesired vegetation
  • insecticide - insects
  • **adulticide, larvicide, ovicide
  • molluscicide - snails, other mollusks
  • rodenticide - rodents
199
Q

Pesticides by chemical?

A
  • Inorganic pesticides
  • chlorinated hydrocarbons
  • organophosphates
  • carbamate
  • botanicals
  • synthetics
200
Q

Pesticides by mode of entry?

A
  • stomach poisons
  • contact poisons
  • fumigants
201
Q

Contents of pesticide labels?

A
  • Danger - Skull/crossbones, highly toxic
  • Warning - moderately toxic
  • caution - slightly toxic
  • **“keep out of reach of children”
202
Q

What is FIFRA?

A

Fed Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act of 1972

203
Q

What are the requirements for respirators?

A
  • NIOSH approved
  • Changed 8 hours when odor detected
  • ## CHanged 4 hours heavy spray
204
Q

EYE Protection for pesticide application?

A
  • Unvented or indirectly vented goggles or a face shield to prevent contamination in eyes
205
Q

WHat do you need to wear when mixing?

A

RUbber apron

206
Q

WHen should gloves be tested for leaks?

A

Daily

207
Q

Authorized Pesticides aboard ships?

Aerosols

A
  • Permethrin arthropod repellant
  • perma dust - boric acid
  • d-phenothrin
  • pt 565 Plus XLO
  • PT Crack and crevice
  • CB Air devil HPX
  • CB D-Force HPX
208
Q

Authorized Pesticides aboard ships?

Bait Station

A
  • COmbat QUick Kill
  • Maxforce Roach Killer
  • Siege Gell Bait
  • ## Avert Bait Station
209
Q

Authorized Pesticides aboard ships?

Growth Inhibitor

A
  • Gentrol Point Source
210
Q

Emergency treatment for pesticide exposure?

A

Organophosphates

  • Treatment = 2-4 mg atropine sulfate IV
  • repeat 5-10 min until relief
  • 2 PAM CHLORIDE, 1gm IV slowly
211
Q

Emergency treatment for carbamate poisoning?

A
  • 2 PAM CHLORIDE CONTRAINDICATED
212
Q

Organochlorine pesticide poisoning?

A

Lavage stomach 2-4 L tap water

213
Q

Minimum pesticide spill kit contents?

A
  • Absorbent material
  • shovel
  • leak-proof barrel for disposal
  • detergent and water or chlorine bleach
  • appropriate PPE
214
Q

In the event of a spill what do you do first?

A

Confine pesticides

- treat surfaces with detergent and water or chlorine bleach

215
Q

Shipboard pest control reporting requirements, record keeping?

A
  • SAMS

- Pest Control Log

216
Q

What are Pediculus Humanus Humanus?

A

Body Louse

217
Q

What are Pediculus Humanus Capitus?

A

Head Louse

218
Q

WHat are phthirus pubis?

A

Crab Louse

219
Q

Treatment of louse?

A

Elimite (Permethrin)

- Wash all clothing at 100F or higher

220
Q

Gernam Cockroach?

A

2 longitudinal stripes on head

  • 6 egg capsules in lifetime
  • 50 eggs in capsule
221
Q

Brown Banded cockroach?

A

Two yellow bands near base of adult wings

- 15 eggs

222
Q

American Cockroach?

A

Anterior dorsal plate behind head

conspicuous yellow posterior

223
Q

Best control for all cockroaches?

A
  • Sanitation
224
Q

How often should you survey for roaches?

A

2 weeks

225
Q

WHat are indian meal moths?

A

grayish band across upper 1/3 of their reddish bronze wings

226
Q

Flour beetles?

A

Tribolium beetle

227
Q

Dermestid Beetle?

A

Khapra beetle

  • live for years without food
  • Quarantine space immediately
  • condemn all food infested
228
Q

Saw tooth grain beetle?

A

Most common aboard ships

- 6 sawtooth projections

229
Q

Rice weevil

A
  • most destructive store product pest
230
Q

IF storerooms are found to have infested products?

A

less than 7 beetles per pound

- freeze at 0 deg F for 3 days to kill beetles then sift out

231
Q

I dermestid beetle found in stores?

A

Throw whole product out without freezing

232
Q

House fly facts?

A
  • Most common to mankind
  • gray in color
  • stripes
  • spreads disease well
233
Q

Blow fly facts?

A
  • surgical maggot larvae
234
Q

Sand Fly facts?

A

spread diseases

  • bacterial (bartonella)
  • Viral ( sand fly fever)
  • protozoal (leischmaniasis)
235
Q

Tse Tse Fly facts?

A
  • clever shaped wings
  • both sexes suck blood
  • Trypanosomiasis
236
Q

Black fly facts?

A

Onchocerciasis (river Blindness)

237
Q

Horse/Deer fly facts?

A
  • the bite hard
  • loa loa infections
  • protozoan (trypanosomes)
  • anthrax (tuleremia)
238
Q

How do you kill black flies?

A

larvicide in streams

239
Q

Aedes Aegypti facts?

A
  • striped legs/body
  • eggs above waterline
    dengue fever, yellow fever, tularemia, filarial nematodes
240
Q

Anopheles species?

A
  • wings are spotted
  • body 40-90 angle off surface
  • eggs on water surface/lateral floats
  • malaria
241
Q

Culex facts?

A

Love sewage/dirty water

  • eggs on rafts of 100 or more
  • encephalomylitis
242
Q

Mosquito control methods?

A

Either permanent or temporary depending on whether they stop breeding or eliminate population

243
Q

Chigoe flea facts?

A

burrow into skin of host between toes and feet

244
Q

Oriental rat flea facts?

A

Bubonic plague vector

flea borne typhus

245
Q

Treatment for fleas

A

2-3 feet spray outside of building

2 feet inside rooms

246
Q

HArd tick facts?

A
  • scutum

- lyme disease, rocky mountain spotted fever, tick-borne rickittsioses

247
Q

Soft Ticks?

A

relapsing/recurring fever

248
Q

How do scabies transmit?

A
  • close body contact
  • overcrowded areas
  • burrows horny layer of dermis
249
Q

Food infesting mites?

A
  • cause dermatitis
  • respiratory complications
  • UTI
  • GI disturbances
250
Q

NEst inhibiting mites?

A

vectoring rickettsial pox from mouse to man

251
Q

Characteristics of mites?

A

Larva - 6 legs

Adults 8 legs

252
Q

Treatment for mites

A
  • elimite

- heat sterilization of clothing and bedding

253
Q

methods of killing bed bugs

A

pesticide application
- sides/seams, racks, corners of bunk, empty lockers, springs, canvas bottoms and grommets, stanchions, behind all equipment

254
Q

Rat guards?

A

36 inch diameter

  • 6 feet from pier, 2 feet from ship
  • plug gaps with rags
255
Q

BUMEDINST 6210.4?

A

Shipboard sanitation control exemption/ship sanitation control cert

256
Q

Ship sanitation control exemption cert valid for how long?

A

6 months

257
Q

NAVMED 6210/1?

A

US Ship Sanitation Control Exemption/Ship Sanitation Control Cert

258
Q

Navmed 6210/2?

A

30 day extension

259
Q

NAVMED 6210/3?

A

Navy Declaration of Health Cert

260
Q

NAVMED 6210/4?

A

Ship Sanitation Control Cert Restricted

261
Q

Who maintains Ship Sanitation certificates?

A

Medical Department

PREVMED 1 (3 decks)

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