TB PHARM Flashcards

1
Q

MOA of isoniazid

A

interferes w/ mycolic acid synth. and thus disrupts cell wall synth.

  • cidal for dividing bacilli
  • static for slow growing
  • penetrates host cells-effective for intracellular bacilli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the resistance of isoniazid

A

inability to take up the drug
alteration in target enzyme
overprod. of target enzyme
resist. emerges rapidly (never used as a single agent)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

describe route of isoniazid therapy

A

rapidly absorbed from GI tract w/ oral dose

also IM injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how does isoniazid distribute in the body?

A

all tissues & fluids (crosses the placenta, breast milk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how is isoniazid metabolized?

A

acetylated via N-acetyl transferase in liver

  • slow and fast acetylators affects therapy
  • chronic liver disease will decrease metabolism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

describe the 2 major adverse effects of isoniazid therapy?

A

INH (INJURES NEURONS & HEPATOCYTES)

  1. peripheral neuropathy (competition b/w isoniazid & B6)
  2. hepatotoxicity (major problem due to toxic metabolite)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the important drug interactions to remember about isoniazid?

A
  • antacids w/ Aluminum decrease absorption

- inhibits the P450 isozyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

MOA of rifampin

A

inhibits RNA synthesis by binding to beta subunit of RNA polymerase (bactericidal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

describe the resistance to rifampin

A

alteration in the beta subunit of the RNA polymerase so that it no longer binds the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

whats important to remember about the distribution of rifampin?

A

it penetrates all tissues well, including the CSF (75-80% is protein bound)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are some adverse effects of rifampin?

A

4 R’s (rna polymerase inhibitor, revs up CYP450, red body fluids, rapid resistance alone)

  1. turns body fluids orange-red
  2. GI & nervous system complaints
  3. fever, chills, aches
  4. Hepatotoxicity (jaundice occurs w/ chronic liver disease, alcoholics and elderly, more relevant in pts that are slow acetylators)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what do you have to remember about rifampin and drug interactions?

A

rifampin induces cytochrome P450

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the main therapeutic use of rifampin?

A

first line against mycobacterium tuberculosis (works on both rapidly and slowly dividing cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the most active antileprosy drug right now?

A

rifampin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MOA of ethambutol

A

disrupts cell wall synthesis by inhibiting arabinosyl transferase (enzyme used to attach mycolic acids to D-arabinose residues of arabinogalactan in peptidoglycan wall)–>increased cell wall perm.)
-may also inhibit RNA synth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

when does ethambutol work on MTB?

A

ACTIVELY DIVIDING BACILLI

  • has static effect (possibly cidal at high levels)
  • slow development of resistance
  • no cross resistance
17
Q

describe the absorption of ethambutol

A

75% of oral dose

18
Q

What are the must know adverse effects of ethambutol?

A

ETHAMBUTOL CAUSES EYE PROBLEMS

optic neuritis (decreased visual acuity, loss of color discrimin.)
allergic reactions
hyperuricemia

19
Q

MOA of pyrazinamide

A

bacilli convert pyrazinamide to pyrazinoic acid

  • decrease pH below threshold for growth
  • resistant strains may lack the pyrazinamidase”
  • cidal or static depending on conc. in infected site
  • active against tubercle bacilli in acid environment of lysosome and mphages
20
Q

where is pyrazinamide metabolized?

A

liver

21
Q

how is pyrazinamide administered?

A

orally and is rapidly absorbed from GI tract

22
Q

how is pyrazinamide distributed in body?

A

widely distributed

23
Q

what are the adverse effects of pyrazinamide?

A
  • dose related hepatotoxicity
  • mild non-gout arthralgias
  • hyperuricemia (due to inhibition of urate excretion)
24
Q

what does MDR TB refer to?

A

resistant to isoniazid and rifampin

25
Q

MOA of cycloserine

A

blocks cell wall synthesis

  • structural analog of D-alanine
  • can block L-alanine racemase & D-alanine synthetase–>weak cell wall and –>cell lysis
  • based on concentration at the site, could be cidal or static
26
Q

what is the indication for cycloserine?

A

broad spectrum, second line agent for active pulmonary and extrapulmonary TB

27
Q

Describe the pharmacology of cycloserine

A

administered orally w/ good absorption

distributed widely and not protein bound

28
Q

how is cycloserine excreted ?

A

excreted unchanged by kidneys

29
Q

what are the adverse effects of cycloserine?

A

CNS issues

  • headache, tremor, vertigo, confusion, …
  • contraindicated in persons w/ hx of epilepsy (EtOH increases risk for seizures)
30
Q

what are the first-line therapy drugs for MTB?

A

isoniazid+rifampin+pyrazinamide+ethambutol or streptomycin

31
Q

which pts are not recommended to take isoniazid & rifampin?

A
  • children <2 yrs
  • HIV pts (taking retrovirals)
  • pregnant women
  • pts w/ LTBI w/ presumed resistance to INH or RIF
32
Q

how is rifampin metabolized

A

deacetylated in liver

33
Q

which anti-TB drug turns body fluid color to orange-red?

A

rifampin

34
Q

where does pyrazinamide exert its most significant effect?

A

intracellular sites where MTB replicates slowly in mphages