Multiple Choice Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is true when using newer components and systems?

A. It is important to conduct appropriate research.
B. It is important to minimize the number of systems used.
C. It is important to avoid untested components and systems.

A

A - When utilizing newer components and systems, it is important to conduct appropriate research to assure that all of the components and systems assembled in the building will perform as expected and comply with the applicable codes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the value of Architects for learning about how traditional systems work?

A. It encourages innovation
B. It can lead to successful performance.
C. It ensures consistency in the field.

A

B - Architects learn how these systems work during construction and over time, and learning and respecting these standards and practices leads to successful performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following considerations describes when a PVC roof would be appropriate? Select all that apply.

A. High heat and/or UV exposure
B. Quicker adhered install solution
C. Restaurants, food court areas, or food processing facilities

A

B, C - TPO roof systems make sense when considering:

  • conventional roof systems
  • high heat exposure and/or UV exposure
  • rooftop solar
  • rooftop water collection
  • sustainable/environmentally conscious buildings/operations

PVC roof systems make sense when considering:

  • quicker adhered install solution (water-based adhesive)
  • roofs with steeper slopes that require a Class A fire rating
  • restaurants, food court areas, or food processing facilities
  • exposure to chemicals, especially grease and oil
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following are key features of an adhered roof system? Select all that apply.

A. uniform wind load resistance across the roof deck
B. wind-load resistance is provided by the membrane fasteners only
C. Total material cost is typically the lowest of any of the attachment methods
D. Improved impact resistance when fasteners are buried lower in the assembly

A

A, D - Adhered roof systems offer the following key features:

  • uniform wind load resistance across the roof deck. When combined with an adhered second layer of insulation and adhered cover board, the room membrane and assembly are more interconnected.
  • Elimination of membrane billowing during wind events and, as a result, lower condensation risks from air intrusion.
  • Lower overall fastener usage and therefore reduced thermal bridging. Systems with an adhered membrane generally have improved energy efficiency, which is further improved by adhering the upper layer(s) of insulation and cover board where used.
  • Improved impact resistance when fasteners are buried lower in the assembly and upper layers are adhered
  • Adhered membranes, especially those installed over adhered cover boards or insulation, tend to appear flatter and smoother versus mechanically attached or membrane adhered over mechanically attached cover boards or insulation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following is a key feature of a mechanically attached roof system? Select all that apply.

A. elimination of membrane billowing during wind events
B. lower overall fastener usage
C. fasteners that are immediately beneath a single-ply membrane tend to result in punctures when struck by hail
D. fastener densities can be high
E. performance requirements

A

C, D - Key features of systems with mechanically attached membrane and insulation are:

  • total material cost is typically the lowest of any of the attachment methods and may require fewer installation man-hours than adhered systems.
  • fasteners that are immediately beneath a single-ply membrane, such as membrane and insulation fasteners, tend to result in punctures when struck by hail.
  • Fastener densities can be high. For a 125,000 sqft roof in a relatively high wind zone, more than 50,000 fasteners are used , leading to significant thermal bridging.
  • wind-load resistance is provided by membrane fasteners only - this may give rise to billowing of the membrane during wind events, increase condensation potential, and stress the membrane around each fastener plate. As these forces are experienced repeatedly over the years in high-wind areas, manufacturers might provide shorter warranties.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following systems may improve cost competitiveness due to the speed of installation?

A. Mechanically attached systems
B. Roof membrane attached systems
C. Adhered roof systems

A

B - The middle ground in roof membrane attachment is the induction welded system (also known as Rhinobond). Key features of these systems are:

  • Performance is more similar to adhered systems in terms of the distribution of load across the rooftop, yet impact at fasteners remains a challenge.
  • reduced thermal bridging compared to traditional mechanically attached membrane systems.
  • there are not application temperature restrictions, and so this approach can be used in place of adhesive attachment regardless of how cold it might be.
  • especially when combined wit ha 12 ft wide membrane, this approach may improve cost competitiveness due to the speed of installation, compared to mechanically attached membrane systems.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following can be used to determine a roof system’s capacity?

A. physical testing
B. curbs and flashing
C. risk category

A

A - a roof system’s capacity is determined by performing physical testing, using specific test protocols that are mandated by the codes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Improved thermal resistances comes from which of the following? Select all that apply

A. incorporation of deck-level air barriers
B. use of multiple layers of staggered and offset insulation
C. adhesively attaching the upper insulation and membrane layer

A

A, B, C - all of these assist with improved thermal resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

PV (photovoltaic) storage may use which of the following options? Select all that apply

A. solar panels
B. off-site generator
C. public utility electric grid
D. on-site battery system

A

C, D - PV (photovoltaic) storage can be one of two options - the public utility electric grid or an on-site battery system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following would be used to keep water from penetrating an expansion joint at the intersection of a roof and a wall?

A. base flashing
B. counterflashing
C. sealant
D. coping

A

B - Counterflashing would be the best choice when attempting to keep water out of an expansion joint at the intersection of a roof and a wall. It would be used to cover the expansion joint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following elements should be considered when designing for a passive fire-resistive system in a building? Select the best answer.

A. Fire and smoke dampers should have access for inspection.
B. A dry-pipe sprinkler system should be used throughout the building
C. A deluge sprinkler system should be used in high-hazard areas with a dry-pipe system in all other areas.
D. The building should have a manual dry standpipe in every required stairway
E. Test visual and auditory alarm systems should be installed.

A

A - Passive fire-resistive systems have elements that are built into the building and protect against fire damage passively, rather than actively fighting a fire via sprinklers. Fire and smoke dampers should have access for inspection is the only correct option; all other options are part of an active system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The architect is writing a section in the finishes division of the specifications book for the contract documents. Should the architect include the finish color numbers in the specifications book?

A. Yes; the architect should include the finish colors in the specifications
B. Yes; the architect should include as much finish information in the specifications as possible.
C. No; the architect should leave the specifications open for interpretation to promote cost savings for the owner and the contractor.
D. No; the architect should refer the contractor to the drawings to find information regarding the finish colors.

A

D - in this case, it will take more time to create amendments to the contract documents when the finish colors are included in the specifications. The architect should refer the contractor to the drawings to find information regarding the finish colors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The architect is drawing a life safety plan for new ambulatory health care occupancy Which of the following best describes how the corridor walls should be rated?

A. smoke partitions per IBC.
B. smoke partitions per NFPA.
C. not rated per NFPA.
D. not rated per IBC.

A

A - IBC requires corridors in health care facilities to have smoke partitions; NFPA does not use this phrase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following is the best waterproofing approach for an elevator pit?

A. Negative side sheet waterproofing with gravel below the pit footprint
B. Positive side sheet waterproofing with membrane protection below the pit footprint
C. Negative side fluid applied waterproofing with foundation drains around the pit
D. positive side damp waterproofing with foundation drains around the pit

A

B - Positive side sheet waterproofing is preferred over negative side waterproofing, and membrane protection is preferred over foundation drains.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the maximum distance for a dead end corridor in a building with a group A occupancy designation?

A. 80 ft
B. 60 ft
C. 20 ft
D. 40 ft

A

C - IBC states that the maximum distance allowed for a dead end corridor in a building with group A occupancy is 20 ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Consider the location for a mechanical system and its vertical distribution tree in a 10-story office building. Which of the following locations should be avoided?

A. within internal circulation cores.
B. integrated with a building.
C. at the edges of a building.
D. between the internal core and the edge of a building.

A

C - The most desirable and preferred areas for leasable office space must be considered. Exterior walls provide the best opportunity to take advantage of natural light, outside views, and natural ventilation. When mechanical systems and their distribution are placed near the center of the building, the exterior wall is made available for other uses.

The preferred areas are reduced when mechanical systems are placed along the outside walls at the edge of a building.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which type of high intensity discharge(HID) lamp must be installed in a specified burning position?

A. mercury vapor
B. metal halide
C. high-pressure sodium
D. low-pressure sodium

A

B - Metal halide lamps are particularly sensitive to orientation, and they lose efficiency and lumen power if not installed correctly. All metal halide lamps are designated with a proper burning position: base-up, base-down, horizontal, or universal.

The other types of HID lamps do not have this characteristic and can be installed in any orientation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If not connected to other sections, the section of the soil stack that is located above the highest plumbing fixture in a building is called the

A. vent stack
B. stack vent
C. cleanout
D. vacuum breaker

A

B - the stack vent is the portion of the soil stack above the highest plumbing fixture. It serves as a vent for the stack and is open to the outside at the top. A vent stack is a collection of vents from a number of fixtures that share one exterior outlet. A cleanout is an area of the plumbing that can be accessed to clear obstructions from the system. A vacuum breaker is a flap that opens to admit air if there is suction in a water pipe, which prevents siphoning of wastewater back into the clean water supply system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

An architect is planning a 100,000 sqft university classroom building. The mechanical engineer estimates that the total floor area required for the boiler room and the chilled water plant will be about 3000 sqft. WWhich of the following criteria should also be kept in mind when determining the location and design of the mechanical rooms? Select 3.

A. Each mechanical room should have at least one exterior wall.
B. The boiler room should be adjacent to the chilled water plant.
C. Rooms should be as square as possible.
D. Ceilings in both rooms should be at least 12 ft high.
E. Mechanical rooms must be placed on the ground floor.
F. The mechanical rooms should be equal in size.

A

A, B, D - Boiler rooms and chilled water plants should be located adjacent to one another when possible; in some buildigns, the two functions are placed in the same room. It is imperative that the rooms each have at least one exterior wall to permit access to fuel tanks that may be located outside and to allow for adequate ventilation. Recommended ceiling heights vary depending on the type of equipment chosen, but generally 12 ft. is the minimum. The rooms should be long and narrow rather than square and sized to best accommodate the equipment.

Both boilers and chillers are heavy and require additional structural support. It is often most economical to locate them on teh ground floor, but this is not required. They tend to be noisy, so teh mechanical rooms should be placed in locations within the building where the noise will not disrupt critical tasks. Soundproofing techniques should also be integrated to acoustically separate the mechanical rooms from the occupied spaces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

An architect is designing an art school at a major university. which combination of daylighting and electric lighting would be most appropriate choice for the painting studios?

A. south-facing windows and incandescent recessed lights.
B. north-facing windows and skylights and fixtures with high color rendering index (CRI) fluorescent lamps
C. windows to the east and west and fluorescent fixtures in covers at the perimeter of the studio.
D. north-facing skylights and metal halide lamps at each workstation.

A

B - Art studios require optimal color rendering and even daylight. The best combination of natural and electric lighting techniques would be north-facing windows and skylights along with the best quality high-color rendering index lamps that the budget will allow. Task lighting should also be provided for the students’ work areas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A main trunk duct is to be placed in the interstitial space above a suspended ceiling and below the structural framing. The space is not constricted. When capacities are equal, which of the following shapes of ducts would be best to use?

A. rectangular, with the long dimension horizontal.
B. rectangular, with the long dimension vertical.
C. square
D. round

A

D - A round duct is the most efficient choice and offers the smallest possible perimeter for the same cross-sectional area, thus minimizing friction and pressure loss. A square shape would use the available space most efficiently, but a duct of this shape is not as efficient overall as a round duct. As ducts become more rectangular, they become less efficient and have increased friction loss. A rectangular duct with the long dimension horizontal would only be used if space was a problem.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following strategies would effectively reduce the noise caused by a duct system without reducing airflow?

A. Specify duct liners for all supply and return ducts.
B. Specify 90 degree bends in short duct runs.
C. Provide an active noise-canceling system emitting out-of-phase noise.
D. Specify fiberglass baffels

A

C - An active noise-canceling system would help to reduce the noise in a duct system without reducing airflow. This type of system analyzes the noise from the blowers and other system components and synthesizes a noise that is exactly out of phase with the mechanical noise. The two sounds cancel each other and the result is perceived silence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following would be appropriate for fire protection in an elementary school? Select 3.

A. ionization detector
B. photoelectric detector
C. temperature rise detector
D. gas-sensing detector
E. flame detector
F. laser beam detector
A

A, B, F - A temperature rise detector would not give early warning to the occupants. A gas-sensing detector by itself would not be appropriate for this application. A flame detector responds to infrared radiation given off by flames and may respond too late to give adequate warning.

If properly located, either an ionization or photoelectric detector would work. Ionization detectors sound an alarm when they sense the products of combustion. Photoelectric detectors monitor smoke. Either would sound an alarm before a temperature rise detector. A laser beam detector is a type of photoelectric detector and would also be appropriate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The pyramidal forms of Manhattan skyscrapers built in the early to mid-1900’s were the result of

A. the influence of European tastes and style on American architecture.
B. a response to zoning laws governing setbacks and height restrictions.
C. an attempt to make buildings safer in case of fire by housing fewer people on the uppermost floors.
D. the structural limitations of iron as a building material.

A

B - In 1916, New York City passed a zoning law designed to protect access to light and ventilation for all buildings. Skyscrapers were being built as quickly as possible, and New Yorkers feared that these walls of masonry and steel reaching into the sky would make the street level cold, dark, and cavernous. As buildings rose higher and higher, they were required to comply with more stringent setbacks. In order to build the maximum rentable area on their extremely valuable sites, developers adopted the stepped, wedding cake-like shape.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Rehabilitation of a building constructed in the 1860s requires cleaning and repairing the existing brick exterior walls. The brick is in good condition but is very dirty. Portions of the mortar have fallen out, and much of what remains is so soft that it can be scraped away with a fingernail. Which restoration technique should the architect recommend?

A. pressure washing with a 10% muratic acid solution
B. pressure washing with plain water and repointing the mortar
C. hand washing the brick with water and a stiff brush and repointing the mortar
D. sandblasting.

A

C - The least destructive technique should always be recommended when dealing with historic buildings and fragile old building materials. Hand washing with water and a stiff brush is the gentlest cleaning method and will probably remove most of the dirt from the surface of the brick. Missing or deteriorating mortar should be removed and replaced with compatible mortar, and the mortar should be restruck to shed water from the joints. This process is called repointing or tuck pointing.

Pressure washing (sometimes called power washing) can leave water marks on soft brick and can dislodge crumbling mortar, creating openings and allowing water to be forced inside the wall cavity. Adding an acidic ingredient to the washing solution may cause additional damage to the brick. Sandblasting will likely destroy soft brick and mortar.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following is required for an access floor system? select 3.

A. lifting devices
B. modular panels
C. pedestals
D. stringers
E. acoustical batts
F. handrails
A

A, B, C - Access floor systems may use stringer, which are rigid connections between pedestals, but they can also be the stringerless type, which rely on pedestals and panels to keep the system in place.

All access floors use modular panels set on pedestals of some type. Removal of the panels requires a lifting device.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which type of lamp typically has the longest life span?

A. incandescent
B. fluorescent
C. metal halide
D. high-pressure sodium

A

D - Of the four types of lamps listed, the high-pressure sodium lamp generally has the longest life span. A high-pressure sodium bulb can be expected to last around 24,000 hours. A mercury vapor lamp would have a similar life expectancy.

The lamp with the shortest life span is the incandescent bulb. It can be expected to last only about 2000 hours.

The life span of a fluorescent lamp depends on the way the lamp is operated. The lifespan is affected not only by how many hours the lamp is on but by how many times the lamp is turned on and off. With typical usage patterns, a life span of about 10,000 to 20,000 hours can be expected, depending on the type of lamp and ballast used. Depending on the wattage, a metal halide lamp could also be expected to have as similar life span.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where would a sound intensity level of 120 dB be found?

A. sewing factory
B. rock concert
C. architect’s open plan office
D. during naptime at a nursery school.

A

B - a sound intensity level of 120 dB is almost deafening and can be felt thought a listener’s body. It can cause ringing in the ears and a temporary loss of hearing. Hearing protection should be worn during prolonged exposure to sound intensity levels this high.

Common sound intensity levels range from 0 dB, the threshold of hearing, through 130 dB, the threshold of pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

In calculating solar heat gain, what value must be known in addition to the area of the glass?

A. mean radiant temperature
B. design cooling factor
C. equivalent temperature difference
D. coefficient of heat transfer

A

B - The design cooling factor and the area of the glass must both be known to calculate solar heat gain.

Equivalent temperature difference is used to calculate heat gain through the building envelope, such as walls and roofs.

30
Q

During the final stages of contract document development, the electrical engineer discovers that mechanical ductwork is shown on the mechanical engineering drawings in a position that interferes with electrical conduit. The person responsible for resolving this conflict is the

A. electrical engineer
B. mechanical engineer
C. contractor
D. architect

A

D - The architect is responsible for the overall coordination of all consultants’ drawings and for resolving disputes and conflicts. The electrical engineer should bring the conflict to the architect’s attention. The architect can then coordinate with both consultants to resolve the conflict.

31
Q

Which of the following types of diaphragms has the largest allowable shear value?

A. Blocked plywood diaphragm with a 3/8” panel of structural I-grade.
B. Unblocked plywood diaphragm with a 3/8” panel of structural I-grade.
C. Diaphragm made of steel deck with a 2” concrete topping
D. Diaphragm that consists of a 6” concrete slab.

A

D - Of the listed diaphragm types, the diaphragm that consists of a 6” concrete slab has the largest allowable shear value. Such as slab would have an allowable shear of about 10,000 lbf/ft. A diaphragm made of steel deck has and allowable shear between 100 lbf/ft and 2600 lbf/ft Plywood diaphragms generally have an allowable shear value between 100 lbf/ft and 800 lbf/ft.

32
Q

When designing a beam, why is it necessary to control deflection? Select 4
A. Excessive deflection is visually disturbing.
B. Excessive deflection can break adjacent windows.
C. Excessive deflection is a sign that the beam is unsafe in bending.
D. Excessive deflection is a sign that the beam is unsafe in shear.
E. Excessive deflection can crack adjacent partitions.
F. Excessive deflection can crack adjacent plaster ceilings.

A

A, B, E, F - Excessive beam deflection is visually disturbing and might give the impression that the beam is not safe when it is. An excessive deflection could also damage adjacent building materials, breaking windows, or cracking partitions and suspended plaster ceilings.

A beam can have a large deflection and still be safe in bending and shear.

The deflection limits recommended by building codes and standards are often calculated as a percentage of the span. For instance, a limitation of 1/240 or 1/300 of the span length, calculated under the total applied on the beam including all dead and live loads, is often recommended for steel beams so that their appearance is not disturbing. For beams and girders supporting plaster ceilings, a limitation of 1/360 of the span length. calculated under life load only, is often recommended. This last limitation is explicit in the American Institute of Steel Construction (AISC) Specification for Structural Steel Buildings, and is frequently used as a guide to whether plaster ceilings are used or not.

33
Q

Neglecting the beam weight, what is the general shape of the bending moment diagram for the cantilever beam loaded as shown?

A

C - The bending moment diagram should have the shape of a sloped line from the concentrated load type. This means that diagrams in options A and D are incorrect. The diagram in option A is a horizontal line and corresponds to the general shape of the shear diagram for this beam. Option D shows a curved line, which corresponds to the bending moment diagram of a uniformly distributed load. The diagrams in option B and C show a sloped line; however, the bending moment at the free left end of the cantilever beam should be equal to zero because the point load is applied there and has no moment at this point. This is shown in option C.

34
Q

Blocking that eases the transition between a roof deck and the parapet wall in a membrane roof installation is known as a

A. Chamfer
B. Cant
C. transition strip
D. scupper

A

B - A cant strip is an angled piece of blocking that eases the transition between the roof deck and the parapet wall when installing a roofing system so that the membranes or roofing felts do not crack or split when they are applied. Rather than bending them at a 90 degree angle, the cant strip allows the transition to be made with two 45 degree angles and minimizes the likelihood of damage from cracking or splitting. In addition, the slope helps the water to drain away from the joint and allows the flashing and membranes to be lapped in a way the keeps water from entering.

35
Q

According to model codes, which of the following stair dimensions is a code violation?

A. handrail height of 36”
B. headroom height of 6’8”
C. total rise from landing to landing of 14’
D. handrail extension of 12”

A

C - The maximum allowable height between landings or floors (rise height) is 12’. All of the other dimensions are correct. The height from the nosing to the top of a handrail must be between 34” and 38”.

36
Q

According to the International Building Code (IBC), as soft story is a story in which the

A. lateral stiffness is less than 70% of that in the story above or less than 80% of the average stiffness of the stories above.
B. lateral stiffness is less than 60% of that in the story above or less than 70% of the average stiffness of the stories above.
C. lateral stiffness is less than 50% of that in the story above or less than 60% of the average stiffness of the stories above.
D. story lateral strength is less than 80% of that of the story above.

A

A - According to IBC, a soft story is a story in which the lateral stiffness is less than 70% of that in the story above or less than 80% of the average stiffness of the stories above.

Option B describes an extremely soft story. Option D describes a weak story. Option C does not correspond to any story type as defined in the IBC.

37
Q

In the illustration, where is the architrave located?

A

C - Heavy crown molds are often made up of a number of different millwork profiles. Millwork is a decorative trim produced in a shop, or mill, and delivered to the job site. (Finish carpentry is detailed carpentry completed on site, including installation of millwork.) An advantage to this type of construction is that it visually minimizes any irregularities between the wall and ceiling surfaces, and any gaps can be sealed with caulk and painted. It also offers the architect the opportunity to design a unique profile using standard components and to control the size and proportions of the trim.

Crown molding, option A, forms a link between that wall and the ceiling when installed on an angle and often is made up of a combination of straight and curved cuts. A cove moulding, option B, features a smooth concave curve. An architrave, option C, is a flat piece that is applied directly to the wall.

Picture mold, option D, is mounted a short distance below the built-up crown molding. Its curved top and the space between the picture mold and the bottom of the rest of the crown allows small hooks to be placed over it so that artwork can be suspended from the wall without putting holes into the wall’s surface. The entire assembly, picture mold included, is often painted the same color to look like one entity.

38
Q

What is the correct location for a vapor retarder in a cold climate?

A. between the interior gyp bd and stud
B. between the exterior sheathing and stud
C. between the exterior sheathing and exterior finish
D. Between two layers of interior gyp bd finish

A

A - Vapor retarders (which are sometimes called vapor barriers) are always installed on the “warm” side of the wall, usually between teh stud and the interior finish material. The vapor retarder can be made of foil, plastic, or paper and should be applied with no breaks. All seams should be lapped for maximum effectiveness. For this reason, in cold climates it can be preferable to specify unfaced batt insulation and a separate vapor retarder.

If vapor retarders are incorrectly placed on the “cool” side (the exterior of the stud), condensation will develop within the wall cavity, which may lead to decay or mold problems.

39
Q

When would code described assemblies most typically be used?

A. When required by the owner
B. When working with partition components
C. When proven performance is required.

A

C - If proven performance is required, such as a fire rating, a sound transmission class, or a wind uplift rating, one must often utilize code described assemblies, manufacturer tested assemblies, or third party tested assemblies.

40
Q

Which of the following are most elevators equipped with to prevent occupants from being trapped in smoke?

A. Emergency lighting
B. Emergency telephone
C. Automatic fire recall system
D. Cab ceiling access panel

A

C - elevators are equipped with an automatic fire recall (capture) system. When a fire alarm is activated, all elevators return immediately to a predetermined lower floor and parked with the doors open.

41
Q

Which of the following are true about wet-bulb temperature?

A. Enthalpy decreases as moisture content increases
B. It is read by a psychrometer
C. The higher the wet-bulb temperature, the closer the vapor barrier should be to the interior
D. Wet-bulb temperatures increase as dry-bulb temperatures decrease

A

B - Enthalpy, dry-bulb temperatures, humidity, and wet-bulb temperatures all act directly to one another in the psychrometric graphs. The vapor barrier should always be placed closer to the warmer, or more humid, side of the exterior wall enclosure.

42
Q

Which of the following is true about specifications? Select 2

A. Specifications are legal documents.
B. Specifications should include both the required product and the expected result.
C. Specifications should include precise language
D. Specifications should be lengthy and descriptive

A

A, C - Specifications are legal documents, and they should include precise language. They should not include long descriptive prose. Specifications should include either the required product or the expected result, but they should not include both.

43
Q

Granite installations should include a membrane for which of the following reasons?

A. without a membrane a deflection could cause cracking in the floor.
B. without a membrane leaking could occur
C. without a membrane the floor could shift
D. without a membrane the floor could buckle.

A

A - If working with flooring that is subject to deflection, it is possible for the deflection to cause cracking in the floor. A membrane would prevent this from occurring.

44
Q

An architect is selecting a shading device for a southern-facing facade in a hot climate. Which of the following are most likely to work well in the given conditions? Select 3

A. horizontal fin
B. Eggcrate with movable horizontal fins
C. Vertical fin
D. Eggcrate with fixed fins

A

A, B, D - Vertical fins would not be recommended for this situation. They work better on east/west facades, and they would let too much of the hot summer light in if used on a south facade.

45
Q

An architect has designed a structure that includes a non-load bearing single wythe brick veneer interior wall. Which of the following types of mortar would be best? Select 3

A. Type O
B. Type K
C. Type M
D. Type N

A

A, B, D - Types O, N, & K would be suitable because it is a non-loading interior wall.

46
Q

During the CD phase for a large mall, the Architect forgets to include the security grilles for individual retail stores. The project is priced, permitted, and started with no allowance for the grilles. The Architect claims the Owner didn’t specifically mention the need for security grilles; the Owner says that security grilles are typical for the correct functioning of a mall. This is an example of which of the following? Select all that apply.

A. Error; the Architect should pay for the grilles.
B. Omission; the Owner did not specify the need for the grilles.
C. Negligence; the Architect is liable for minor costs.
D. Betterment; the Owner should pay for the grilles.

A

C, D - This scenario highlights both negligence and betterment. A negligence claim can be asserted against the architect either for (A) an error in the act performed or (B) an omission (the architect did not include a component of the project in its design, such as not showing carpeting that was required in a hallway) and that component needed to be part of the project for a successful completion. While the law differs from state to state, generally the architect would be responsible for the costs arising from its errors, but may only be responsible for a fraction of the cost attributable to its omissions. In a situation such as this one, in which the architect did not specifically designate the need for security grilles, resulting in a change order from the contractor, the courts have generally found that the owner would have had to pay for the grilles anyway, had it been shown on the plans originally. Since the courts do not want to allow the owner to get something for free, and many courts recognize that a contractor may charge a premium for such a change order, the damages typically awarded by the courts against the architect are only the costs of that premium.

47
Q

Eight years ago, a developer started and then stopped the design phase of a two-family dwellings unit. Since that time, the architect originally involved has been replaced with a different architect. The new architect must update the drawings and apply for permit. The developer provided the architect with a paper set of drawings that was developed by the original architect. Which of the following are reasonable steps for the architect to take? Select all that apply.

A. The architect should refer to the current building code to update the drawings.
B. The architect should contact the previous architect and ask for the CAD drawings.
C. The architect should apply for a permit with drawings containing the stamp of the previous architect, since they did the base design.
D. The architect should verify which building code was in use eight years ago to ensure they follow it.
E. The architect should move forward without contacting the previous architect, since the Owner doesn’t want to pay them additional fees.

A

A, B, C - According to AIA Code of Ethics Rule 4.102, members shall not sign or seal drawings, specifications, reports, or other professional work for which they do not have responsible control. IF the drawings had never been submitted before, the architect should prepare the construction documents according to the version of the code that is currently in use at the time of the submission. Connecting with the previous architect to request the CAD files would be useful in this situation. If the Owner doesn’t want to pay the previous architect, that may raise a red flag regarding previous issues or copyright challenges.

48
Q

Type IV Construction is largely known by which of the following common names? Select all that apply

A. Heavy Timber Construction
B. Mill Construction
C. Structural Composite Lumber Construction
D. Glue Laminated Construction

A

A, B - Structural composite lumber and glue laminated members can be used in Type 4 construction, but is is known as Heavy Timber, or Mill Construction.

49
Q

A retail store is looking to expand and build 30 new stores in major cities across the US. They are asking their Architect to recommend an exterior facade they can constantly use to solidify their brand. They have also requested that the facade require minimal maintenance. Which of the following should the architect recommend? Select the best answer.

A. Cement panel siding rainscreen over metal studs
B. Precast concrete
C. Stucco over wood siding
D. Painted CMU

A

A - Rainscreen walls perform better overall as compared to the others listed. They are designed to shed water whereas precast concrete, stucco, and painted CMU are not. Rainscreens also require minimal washing to maintain. Masonry type wall systems require more washing, repointing of joints, painting, and sandblasting.

50
Q

An Architect is discussing a ground-floor fire door at an exit stair with the hardware/door consultant. Which of the following should the Architect verify? Select the best answer.

A. Panic hardware leading into the exit stair.
B. Hardware includes a closer and latch
C. No glazing in the door panel
D. Hardware includes a removeable astragal

A

B - Fire doors on exit stairs need panic hardware to go with the direction of exiting traffic and should be self-closing. A latch is required depending on air pressure changes of the stair enclosure. Fire-resistance-rated glass can be used in an exit stair.

51
Q

Which of the following is a common one-way cast-in-place concrete structural system?

A. Flat plate
B. Flat slab
C. Beam-and-girder
D. Waffle slab

A

C - Beam-and-girder is an example of a common one-way cast-in-place concrete structural system.

52
Q

Which of the following is a proven way to ensure a quality built exterior wall system?

A. Allow the contractor to provide alternates.
B. Ensure the architect is on-site twice a week to check all project details.
C. Include in the specifications that only qualified contractors will be allowed to bid on the project.
D. Rely on construction drawings for quality and performance.

A

C - Specifications can control many aspects of the quality of the project, and ensuring qualified contractors are involved is an important first step.

53
Q

Which of the following are options available to finish precast concrete panels? Select 3

A. EIFS
B. Sand Blast
C. Powder Coating
D. Integral Color
E. Galvanize
F. Face Brick
A

B, D, & F - Sand blast, integral color, and face brick are all available finishes for precast.

54
Q

An architect is working with a design that includes an exposed concrete wall in the project. Which of the following items need to be coordinated with the consultants in order to work from an architectural standpoint? Select 3

A. Form work
B. Mix design and admixtures
C. Depth and thickness of wall footing
D. Testing requirements

A

A, B, & D - What form work is used has a huge effect on the concrete finish. For example, there is a cost difference between different grades of plywood. An MDO or HDO finish is used for the form work if it requires a certain smoothness. The mix design and admixtures need to be coordinated with the engineer. For example, different size of aggregates might have an effect on the look. Also, if waterproofing needs to be added to the mix design as an admixture, that needs to be coordinated with the engineer as well. The testing of the concrete strength might include taking a core sample of the finished wall, which will affect the finish look of the wall. Non-intrusive testing methods should be specified.

55
Q

A client has requested west-facing windows in a room with contents that are thermally sensitive. Which of the following best identifies a way to protect the room from heat gain? Select 2

A. Specify fritted glass.
B. Specify reflective coated glass.
C. Specify operable windows
D. Specify a dedicated thermostat for the room
E. Specify oversized supply air ducts and grilles.

A

B, D - Passive or mechanical methods can solve this problem. Reflective glass will prevent solar gains because it prevents solar radiation from entering the room. A dedicated thermostat means the HVAC system will react specifically to the room’s environment to maintain the necessary temperature.

56
Q

An Architect is working on a large assembly hall. Which of the following techniques can be used to reduce the echo in a large auditorium? Select the best answer

A. Acoustical panels covering the ceiling
B. Acoustical panels covering the back wall
C. Heavy curtain at the stage
D. Ceiling fans installed to mask the echo

A

B - Sound from the stage is most likely projected towards the back wall. Reducing the amount of sound bouncing off of the back wall will reduce the echo.

57
Q

The NCS governs which of the following?

A. CAD drawings
B. Sustainability
C. Materials selection
D. Contractor management

A

A - The NCS, or National CAD Standard, governs CAD drawings

58
Q

The IBC requires which of the following to be included in construction documents? Select 3

A. Site Plan
B. Occupant load calcs
C. Fire protection shop drawings
D. Means of egress

A

A, C, D - The IBC requires a site plan, fire protection shop drawings, and means of egress. Occupant load calculations are not required, although they may be required by local jurisdictions.

59
Q

Which of the following describes the purpose of an economizer cycle?

A. To use outdoor air to coll a building
B. To minimize the amount of time a compressor runs
C. To minimize the amount of chilled water required
D. To use an external water source to cool a building

A

A - An economizer cycle will use outdoor air to cool a building

60
Q

When considering the MasterFormat system, Ornamental ironwork, handrails, and gratings would be included in which of the following divisions?

A. Division 06
B. Division 07
C. Division 05
D. Division 08

A

C - Division 5 covers metals, which would include ornamental ironwork, handrails, and gratings.

61
Q

Elevations and sections are part of which of the following drawings?

A. Orthographic
B. Isometric
C. Large-scale elevation
D. Large-scale plan view

A

A - Orthographic drawings are used to show elements of the building drawn to scale, but they do not include depth. This would include elevations and sections.

62
Q

In which of the following situations do most stringent requirements for flame spread and smoke developed index occur?

A. in exits of non-sprinklered buildings
B. In hospitals and patient care facilities regardless of sprinkler protection
C. In high hazard occupancies regardless of sprinkler protection
D. In non-sprinklered corridors wit ha high occupant load

A

A - Exits are the most heavily trafficked component of egress, and without sprinklers in a building they are the only method of life preservation.

63
Q

Which of the following gypsum wallboard types would be the best used in an exterior rain screen wall system?

A. Regular gypsum wallboard
B. Water-resistant gypsum wallboard
C. Type x gypsum wallboard
D. Foil backed gypsum wallboard

A

D - Aluminum foil can serve as a thermal insulator and vapor barrier when the foil faces a dead air space.

64
Q

The Architect is designing a 2-story, non-separated occupancy office building. The Client requires a generous storage space for their technology equipment adjacent to the open office. Which occupancy load should be used to determine the minimum required egress widths? Select the best answer.

A. Storage occupancy loads should be used to size the egress paths.
B. Mixed use occupancy loads should be used to size the egress paths.
C. Storage and business occupancy load sums should be used to size the egress paths.
D. Business occupancy loads should be used to size the egress paths.

A

D - When determining occupancy load based on multiple occupancy types, the most stringent requirements apply. In this case, business occupancy loads should be used to size the egress paths.

65
Q

Which of the following types of metal contains the most copper?

A. austenitic stainless steel
B. Monel metal
C. Muntz metal
D. nickel silver

A

D - Stainless steel is an alloy of iron, carbon, and chromium. Austenitic stainless steel, the most common type, also contains some nickel and/or manganese. This kind of steel is nonmagnetic and not heat treatable.

Monel is a trade name for a metal alloy of copper and nickel. Muntz metal is a common alloy of 60% copper and 40% tin. Nickel silver is a name given to an alloy of 65% copper, 25% zinc, and 10% nickel.

66
Q

An existing partition separating two rooms is determined to be insufficient for reducing sound transmission. The partition consists of 4” metal studs spaced 24” o.c. with a single layer of 5/8” gyp. bd. on each side. There are no penetrations in the partition. To improve the transmission loss of the partition in the most economical way, which of the following modifications should the architect recommend?

A. Add resilient channels to one side of the wall and attach a single layer of gypsum board to the channels. Glue an additional layer of gypsum board to the other side.
B. Add sound-absorbing panels to the noisy side of the partition, and add an additional layer of gypsum board to the other side.
C. Remove one layer of gypsum board, install sound attenuating insulation, and replace the wall finish with a sound-deadening board and a finish layer of gypsum board.
D. Cover one side of the partition with an additional layer of gypsum board, and add two additional layers of gypsum board to the other side.

A

A - The best way to improve the transmission loss is to add mass and resiliency to the partition. This can be accomplished economically by adding extra gypsum board and mounding one layer on resilient channels.

Sound-absorbing panels would not affect the transmission loss; they would only affect the noise reduction in the room on the side where the panels were installed. Removing the wall finish would not be the most economical method for the results obtained by adding insulation and then replacing new wall board over sound-deadening board. Adding the extra mass of three layers of gypsum board would not be as effective as using resilient channels with two layers of gypsum board as in option A.

67
Q

What type of mortar should be specified for a concrete masonry unit (CMU) foundation wall?

A. M
B. N
C. O
D. S

A

A - Type M mortar should be specified for exterior applications at or below grade.

Type N or S is best for exterior applications above grade and for interior load-bearing walls. Type O is well suited for interior and protected exterior non-load-bearing partitions.

68
Q

Restrictions on surface finishes in all model codes are primarily based on

A. occupancy and construction type
B. occupant load and location in the building
C. Location in the building and occupancy group
D. occupancy group and sprinklering

A

C - The primary restrictions on surface finishes given in model codes (such as IBC) are the occupancy group and the location in the building according to exiting requirements. Having a building with a sprinkler system only modifies the basic requirements and allows the required flame-spread rating to be dropped one class in some instances.

69
Q

How are diagonal members of the X-bracing of a tall structure normally designed to minimize costs?

A. One diagonal brace is designed to be stressed in tension while the other is not stressed.
B. One diagonal brace is designed to be stressed in compression while the other is not stressed.
C. Both diagonal braces are designed to be stressed in tension at the same time.
D. Both diagonal braces are designed to stressed in compression at the same time.

A

A - One diagonal brace is normally designed to be stressed in tension, while the other is not stressed. This is done to minimize costs. Diagonal braces are not designed to work in compression. By designing diagonal members as tension members instead of compression members, their size and therefore their cost is minimized. X-bracing is a common type of lateral bracing for tall structures. Bracing is often placed at the center of the structural framing, such as around the building’s central core. When a wind load hits a building from one side, one of the braces acts in tension and the other one is not stressed. When the wind direction is reversed, the brace that works in tension is reversed accordingly while the other is not stressed.

70
Q

In wind design, what is the permissible drift of one story relative to an adjacent story in a building where the story height is 12’?

A. 0.036”
B. 0.36”
C. 0.72”
D. 1.1”

A

B - in wind design, the maximum permissible drift of one story relative to an adjacent story is 0.0025 times the story height.

The story height is 12’, and the maximum permissible drift is

d = 0.0025h
= (0.0025)(12’)(12 in/ft)
= 0.36”

71
Q

What is used to keep water from penetrating an expansion joint at the intersection of a roof and wall?

A. base flashing
B. counterflashing
C. sealant
D. coping

A

B - Base flashing extends from the roof over the cant strip and up the wall. Counter flashing covers the base flashing to extend from the wall over the base flashing and to cover any expansion joint that may occur at this point. Coping protects the top of the parapet. Sealants by themselves are not adequate to cover a major expansion joint as would occur at the roof and wall intersection.