Scoring Systems Flashcards

1
Q

Describe use, parameters and interpretation of HAS BLED score

A

Use to assess bleeding risk for AF anticoagulant treatment
Superseded by ORBIT score (NICE recommends)

Parameters - 1 point for each

  • HTN
  • renal disease
  • liver disease
  • stroke hx
  • prior major bleeding or predisposition to bleeding
  • labile INR
  • 65+
  • other medication that predisposes to bleeding
  • alcohol use over 8 units a week

1 and below can give
2 consider
3+ is high risk of bleeding

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2
Q

Wells score for DVT

A
  1. Low risk is < 2 - D-dimer
  2. higher needs USS within 4 hours
  • Active cancer (Tx ongoing, within 6 months or palliative)
  • Paralysis, paresis or plaster immobilisation of lower extremities
  • bedridden > 3 days, or major surgery in last 3/12
  • Localised tenderness deep vein system
  • Entire leg swollen
  • Calf swelling > 3cm
  • unilateral pitting oedema
  • Collateral superficial veins (non-varicose)
  • Previous DVT
  • - 2 An alternative dx as likely as DVT
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3
Q

GCS scoring adults

A

Eye opening scores

  • 4: Spontaneously
  • 3: To verbal command
  • 2: To pain
  • 1: No response

Best motor response scores

  • 6: Obeys command
  • 5: Localizes pain
  • 4: Flexion withdrawal
  • 3: Flexion abnormal (decorticate)
  • 2: Extension (decerebrate)
  • 1: No response

Best verbal response scores

  • 5: Oriented and converses
  • 4: Disoriented and converses
  • 3: Inappropriate words; cries
  • 2: Incomprehensible sounds
  • 1: No response

13-15 - mild

9-12 - moderate

< 8 severe

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4
Q

CHADsVASc score

A
  • Males scoring > 1 or females score > 2 should be anticoagulated

CHADSVASc

Points

C

Congestive cardiac failure

1

H

hypertension

1

A2

> 75 years old

2

D

Diabetes mellitus

1

S2

Previous stroke or TIA

2

V

Known vascular disease

1

A

Aged 65-74

1

Sc

Female

1

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5
Q

ORBIT score

A

assessing bleeding risk in AF

ORBIT

Points

Sex

Haemoglobin (F < 12, M < 13)

2

Age > 74

1

Bleeding history

2

Renal function eGFR < 60

1

Concomitant use of anti-platelets

1

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6
Q

Fontaine classification for peripheral arterial disease

A
  • Fontaine classification
    • I - asymptomatic, II - intermittent claudication, III - rest pain, IV - tissue loss/gangrene
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7
Q

Jones criteria

A

Jones criteria - rheumatic feveer

Diagnosis requires - evidence of strep. Infection + 2 major or 1 major + 2 minor

  • Evidence of recent streptococcal infection
    • Hx of scarlet fever, +ve throat swab, ↑ ASOT > 200 U/ml or Dnase B titre
  • Major criteria
    • Arthritis
    • Pancarditis
    • Sydenham’s chorea
    • Erythema marginatum
    • Subcutaneous nodules
  • Minor criteria
    • Fever
    • Arthralgia - unless arthritis met as major
    • ↑ acute phase proteins (ESR, CRP)
    • Prolonged PR interval on ECG - except if carditis meets major criteria
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8
Q

Duke’s criteria

A

duke’s criteria - infective endocarditis

Diagnoses: 2 major or 1 major + 3 minor or 5 minor

Major

Minor

  • Persistent bacteraemia (> 2 +ve blood culture, 12 hours apart)
  • Echocardiogram findings - vegetations seen
  • +ve serology for bartonella, coxiella, brucella
  • Predisposing RF - murmur, IVDU, etc
  • Fever > 38 or high CRP
  • Evidence of immune complex formation - splinter haemorrhages, haematuria
  • Vascular phenomena - major arterial emboli (stroke, PE)
  • Positive echo that doesn’t meet the major criteria
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9
Q

Parkland’s formula

A

fluids for firsr 24 hours in burns

  • Modified parkland formula - used for directing fluid requirements, volume of crystalloid fluid to be given in first 24 hours
    • Adults - 4mL (Hartmann’s) x weight (kg) x % TBSA burned
    • Children - 3mL (Hartmann’s) x weight (kg) x % TBSA burned
    • Give 50% calculated in 8 hours post burn and 50% in remaining 16 hours
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10
Q

stages of CKD

A
  • Stage 1: GFR _>_90mL/minute/1.73m2 with other evidence of CKD e.g. sediment, structure
  • Stage 2: GFR 60-89 mL/min/1.73m2 with other evidence of CKD
  • Stage 3a: moderate, GFR 45-59 mL/min/1.73m2
  • stage 3b: moderate, GFR 30-44 mL/min/1.73m2
  • stage 4: severe, GFR 15-29 mL/min/1.73m2
  • stage 5: established renal failure, GFR < 15 mL/min/1.73m2 or on dialysis
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11
Q

stroke scoring triage assessment A&E - ROSIER

A
  • ROSIER score - to be used to triage patient’s on presentation to assess likelihood of stroke
    • Stoke is likely if scoring > 0
    • Exclude hypoglycaemia first
    • Assessment:
      • -1 point - loss of consciousness/syncope; seizure activity
      • +1 point - asymmetric face weakness, asymmetric arm weakness, asymmetric leg weakness, speech disturbance, visual field defect
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12
Q

Glasgow score

A

for pancreatitis

  • Modified Glasgow criteria - severity scoring for acute pancreatitis, to be completed within 48 hours
    • Any patient > 3 in first 48 hours → severe, HDU/ITU referral
    • Mnemonic (pancreas)
      • PaO2 < 8kPa on ABG
      • Age > 55 years
      • Neutrophilia – WBC > 15x 109/L
      • Calcium <2mmol/L
      • Renal function – urea >16mmol/L
      • Enzymes – LDH >600iu/L or AST > 200 iu/L
      • Albumin < 32 g/L (serum)
      • Sugar – blood glucose > 10mmol/L
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13
Q

scoring for Upper GI bleed pre-endoscopy

A

Glasgow-BLATCHFORD score

used to risk stratify patient admitted with upper GI bleed

  • > 6 associated with >50% risk of needing an intervention
  • NICE if > 0 - IP OGD, if 0 - OP OGD
  • the parameters:
    • urea
    • Hb
    • systolic BP
    • pulse (bpm)
    • melaena
    • syncope
    • known liver failure
    • known cardiac failure
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14
Q

scoring for upper GI bleed

A

rockall score

  • assess mortality
  • pre-endoscopy out of 7, post-endoscopy our of 11
    • NICE prefers blatchford for pre-Ix determination of timing for OGD
  • if > 0 should have inpatient OGD, if 0 - urgent OP OGD
  • factors:
    • age
    • SBP
    • comorbidities - IHD/cardiac failure, liver failure, renal failure, metastases
    • endoscopy dx - Mallow weiss, all other, GI malignancy
    • at endoscopy - no blood or dark red spot or blood in upper GI tract (spurt, adherent clot)
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15
Q

GCS core components and overall maximum marks

A

out of 15

M - 6

S - 5

E - 4

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16
Q

describe motor components GCS brief

A

out of 6

  1. No motor response
  2. Extension to pain
  3. Abnormal flexion to pain
  4. Flexion/Withdrawal to pain
  5. Localizes to pain
  6. Obeys commands
17
Q

describe the eye component GCS brief

A

out of 4

  1. No eye opening
  2. Eye opening in response to pain stimulus
  3. Eye opening to speech
  4. Eyes opening spontaneously
18
Q

describe the verbal component of GCS (brief)

A

out of 5

  1. No verbal response
  2. Incomprehensible sounds
  3. Inappropriate words
  4. Confused
  5. Oriented
19
Q

Well’s score PE with mneumonic

A

EAT CHIPS

  • Evidence of oedema of DVT (> 3cm) = 3
  • A - alternative diagnosis is less likely = 3
  • T - tachycardia = 1.5
  • C - cancer = 1
  • H - haemoptysis = 1
  • I - immobilisation 3+ days = 1.5
  • P - previous DVT or PE = 1.5
  • S - surgery in last month (major) = 1.5, don’t double count if immobile

less 4 is low probability PE

over 4 is high probability of PE

20
Q

Parklands formula adults

A

% burns x weight x 4

21
Q

severity of UC flares

A
  • mild - < 4 stools/day, small amount of blood
  • moderate - 4-6 stools/day; varying blood; systemically well
  • severe - > 6 bloody stools/day + systemic upset (fever, HR > 90, anaemia < 10, ESR > 30)