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22010 > PREV MED 1 Study > Flashcards

PREV MED 1 Study Flashcards

1
Q

Who appoints the Person in Charge (PIC)?

A

The Food Establishment Manager

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2
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that a PIC is present at all times in the Food Establishment?

A

The Food Establishment Manger

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3
Q

What knowledge does the PIC need to have?

A

Should be able to demonstrate to the Regulatory Authority, knowledge of Foodborne Disease prevention, Application of the Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point principles, and the requirements of the Tri-Service Food Code

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4
Q

What knowledge does the Food Establishment Manager need to have?

A
  1. The relationship between foodborne disease and personal hygiene of food employees
  2. Responsiblity of the PIC in preventing the transmission of foodborne disease by a food employee who has a disease or medical condition
  3. The symptoms associated with transmissible diseases through food
  4. Significance of time and temperature for Safety Foods
  5. Responibilities, rights, and authorities assigned to:
    a. Food Employee
    b. Conditional Employee
    c. PIC
    d. Regulatory Authority
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5
Q

What are the responsibilities of the PIC?

A
  1. Ensuring food operations are only conducted in the kitchen
  2. Employees are effectively cleaning their hands
  3. Employees are properly cooking food
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6
Q

What are the reportable symptoms that employees should report to the PIC?

A
  1. Vomiting
  2. Diarrhea
  3. Jaundice
  4. Lesions
  5. Sore Throat with Fever
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7
Q

Which reportable symptoms would exclude a food service worker from working?

A
  1. Vomiting
  2. Diarrhea
  3. Jaundice
  4. Sore throat with fever
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8
Q

Which reportable symptoms would restrict a food service worker from working?

A

Lesions on hands or arms

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9
Q

How long should food workers wash their hands?

A

20 seconds

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10
Q

What type of hand antiseptics are allowed to be utilized by food service workers?

A

FDA Approved

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11
Q

Alcohol based sanitizers should contain what percentage of Alcohol?

A

60%

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12
Q

What should the strength be for hand antiseptics used as a hand dip?

A

100 milligrams per liter of chlorine

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13
Q

How long should finger nails be for food service workers?

A

no more than 1/4 inch past the finger tip

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14
Q

What type of jewelry can food service workers wear?

A

a plain wedding ban

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15
Q

Where can employees consume food, drinks and tobacco?

A

Only in designated areas

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16
Q

How should an employee perform a taste test on food?

A
  1. With a single use disposable utensil
  2. With a sanitized utensil that is only used once
  3. All taste testing should be done away from the food
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17
Q

What are the 5 foodborne illness risk factors?

A
  1. Food from unsafe sources
  2. Inadequate cooking
  3. Improper holding/time-temperature
  4. Contaminated equipment/cross contamination protection
  5. Poor personal hygiene
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18
Q

How much trainining do food service workers require?

A
  1. 4 hours of initial training wihtin 30 days of hire

2. 4 hours of annual training no sooner than 11 months from last training

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19
Q

What type of training do Foodservice managers and PIC’s require?

A
  1. An approved food mangager certification which is valid for 5 years
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20
Q

What instruction governs the Food Safety Training Program?

A

OPNAVINST 4061.4 and MCO 4061.1

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21
Q

Who is responsible for approving game animals ante-mortem and post-mortem?

A

Army Veternarians

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22
Q

Where should food sources be obtained from?

A

Only from approved sources

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23
Q

What temp should refrigerated potentially hazardous food be kept at?

A

41 degrees F or cooler

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24
Q

What temp should cooked food that is considered potentially hazardous food be kept at?

A

135 degrees F or above

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25
Q

What information is required when receiving shellfish?

A

All shellfish should have a harvester’s identification label attached

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26
Q

What information is required on the harvester’s tag?

A
  1. Harvester’s ID
  2. Date of Harvesting
  3. Location of Harvesting
  4. Type and quantity of shellfish
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27
Q

How long should the harvester’s ID tag been held onto for?

A

90 days

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28
Q

What type of juice is authorized for use in food establishments?

A

Juice must be pasteurized or otherwise treated to obtain a 5 log reduction of microorganisms

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29
Q

Who can approve foodworkers to have barehand contact with food?

A

The Regulatory Authority

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30
Q

What temp should fruits and vegetables be disinfected in?

A

120 degrees F

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31
Q

What chemical is approved for chemically washing fruits and vegetables?

A
  1. Unscented bleach rated between 5-6 % strength
  2. Prepare a 50-200 PPM, Free Available Chlorine Solution (Ph 6.0-7.5)
  3. Completely immersed for at least 1 minute
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32
Q

How often should wet cloths be laundered?

A

Daily

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33
Q

How often should dry cloths be laundered?

A

When visibily soiled

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34
Q

What is a foodborne illness?

A

illness carried or transmitted to people by food

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35
Q

What is a Foodborne illness outbreak?

A

When 2 or more people experience the same illness after eating the same food

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36
Q

What is a foodborne infection?

A

illness caused by consuming food that contains living disease-causing microorganism

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37
Q

What is foodborne intoxication?

A
  1. illness caused by consuming food containing a hazardous chemical or toxin
  2. Symptoms usually appear within a couple of hours
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38
Q

What is Toxin-mediated infection?

A

illness caused by consuming food containg living pathogenic organisms that reproduce in the intestines and produce a toxin

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39
Q

What are the 4 types of microorganisms which may cause foodborne illness?

A
  1. Bacteria
  2. Virus
  3. Parasite
  4. Fungi
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40
Q

What is a spore` forming bacteria?

A
  1. Found in soils
  2. Organisms build a wall
  3. Can survive cooking, freezing, acidic foods and low moisture
  4. Cannot be destroyed
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41
Q

What is a non spore forming bacteria?

A
  1. Vegetative cells

2. Easily destroyed by cooking

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42
Q

What are some spore forming bacteria?

A
  1. Clostridium perfringes
  2. Bacillus Cereus
  3. Clostridium Botulinum
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43
Q

What are some non spore forming bacteria?

A
  1. Camplyobacter jejuni
  2. Listeria monocytogenes
  3. Salmonella
  4. Shigella
  5. Staphylococcus
  6. Vibrio spp
  7. E. Coli
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44
Q

What are some symptoms of Clostridium perfringes infection?

A

Abdominal Pain, Severe diarrhea

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45
Q

What are some symptoms of Clostridum botulinum infection?

A

Dizziness, shortness of breath, headache, double vision

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46
Q

What is a toxin?

A

Naturally occuring biological toxins that are not caused by the presence of microorganisms

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47
Q

What is Cigatoxin?

A

Fish toxin from toxic algae

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48
Q

What is a Scombroid?

A

Toxin originating from histamine released by fish

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49
Q

What is FATTOM?

A

Food, Acidity, Time, Temperature, Oxygen, Moisture

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50
Q

What two elements are the most critical and easiest to control when cooking food?

A

Time and Temperature

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51
Q

What are the 4 phases of bacterial growth?

A
  1. Lag Phase
  2. Log Phase
  3. Stationary Phase
  4. Decline Phase
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52
Q

What is the lag phase of bacterial growth?

A
  1. Bacteria exhibit little or no growth

2. Only lasts a few hours at room temperature

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53
Q

What is the log phase of bacterial growth?

A
  1. Bacteria growth doubles in numbers every few minutes
  2. Food is considered unsafe
  3. Food may look good, taste good and smell good
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54
Q

What are the 5 CDC Risk Factors Contributing to Foodborne illness?

A
  1. Improper hot/cold holding temps
  2. Improper cooking temp
  3. Contaminated utensils and equipment
  4. Poor employee health and hygiene
  5. Food supplied from unapproved/unsafe sources
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55
Q

What temps does raw animal foods need to reach?

A

145 degrees F for 15 seconds

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56
Q

What temp does raw eggs have to obtain?

A

155 degrees for 15 seconds

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57
Q

What temp does ratites, tenderized and inject meats and Fish have to reach?

A

155 degrees for 15 seconds

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58
Q

What temp does poultry have to reach?

A

165 degrees

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59
Q

When using the microwave, what temp does food have to obtain?

A
  1. Heat to 165 degrees in all parts

2. Allowed to stand covered for 2 mins

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60
Q

What are some signs that frozen food has been thawed and refrozen?

A
  1. Ice crystals
  2. wet packaging
  3. Product is discolored
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61
Q

What is the process of using time without temp to control foodborne illness?

A

Written procedures shall be approved by the regulatory authority

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62
Q

What is temps are considered to be in the danger zone?

A

41 degrees F to 135 degrees F

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63
Q

How long can hot food remain out before it has to be reheated or discarded?

A

4 hours

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64
Q

How long can cold food be left out before it has to be chilled or thrown out?

A

6 hours

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65
Q

What are the requirements for keeping hot food as a leftover?

A
  1. Must be held at 135 degrees F or above

2. shall be cooled within a total of 6 hours from 135 to 41 degrees F

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66
Q

What is the process for retaining cold food as leftovers?

A

Temps must remain at 41 degrees or less throughout the meal period

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67
Q

How long can leftover foods be retained?

A
  1. 72 hours if chilled at 41 degrees F or below

2. Consumed or discarded if held hot at 135 degrees or hotter

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68
Q

What types of food are prohibited for use as leftovers?

A

non-packaged or unwrapped foods offered for consumer self-service

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69
Q

How should food be presented and labeled at food establishments?

A
  1. Accurate representation
  2. Honestly Presented
    a. Shall be offered in a way that does not mislead or missinform the consumer
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70
Q

What are the limitations for using lead when cooking?

A

Solder lead must be less than 0.2

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71
Q

What are the limitations for using copper when cooking?

A

Can’t be used with foods that have a PH below 6, can cause corrosion otherwise

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72
Q

What type of pallets can be used for storing foods?

A

Must be stamped with NSF International

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73
Q

Where should thermometers be placed when measuring refrigerated units?

A

warmest part

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74
Q

Where should thermometers be placed when measuring hot storage units?

A

the coolest part of the unit

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75
Q

What are the requirements that foodservice equipment and utensils have to meet?

A
  1. NSF International
  2. Underwriters Laboratories (UL)
  3. USDA
  4. Baking Industry Sanitation Standards Committee (BISSC)
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76
Q

When using a 3 compartment sink for manual warewashing what are the requirements?

A
  1. 1 compartment each for rinsing, washing and sanitizing

2. Sanitizing can be done chemically or with heated water to 171 degrees F

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77
Q

How should detergent-sanitizers be utilized when washing equipment?

A

In accordance to manufacturer’s label instructions

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78
Q

How tall should counter-mounted equipment be off of the counter?

A

4 inches

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79
Q

How far should floor mounted equipment be installed?

A

6 inches

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80
Q

Who can authorize use of equipment that doesn’t meet the NSF standards?

A

The regulatory authority

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81
Q

What are the limitations of using warewashing sinks?

A
  1. May not be used for handwashing

2. Can be used for thawing food, washing produce or washing wiping cloths

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82
Q

If iodine is utilized as a cleaing solution for warewashing, what temp does it have to be kept at?

A

68 degrees

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83
Q

When utilizing a 3 compartment sink, what temp should the water be in each compartment?

A
  1. Wash: 110 degrees F
  2. Rinse: 120 degrees F
  3. Sanitize: 171 degrees F
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84
Q

How should thermometers be calibrated?

A

In accordance to manufacturer’s specifications

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85
Q

How often should ice machines be cleaned?

A

Every 30 days

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86
Q

Where should the procedures for cleaning ice machines be kept?

A

In an SOP

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87
Q

How often should air filters be replaced on ice machines?

A

Every 6 months or per the manufacturer’s recommendation

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88
Q

How often should utensils be cleaned?

A
  1. Before Use
  2. After Use
  3. Everytime there is a change from working with raw foods to ready to eat foods
  4. Anytime during the operation when contamination could’ve occured
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89
Q

How often should iced tea dispensers be cleaned?

A

Every 24 hours

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90
Q

How often should self-serve utensils be cleaned?

A

Every 8 hours

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91
Q

How often should food contact surfaces and utensils be sanitized?

A

Before use and after being cleaned

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92
Q

How long do utensils have to immersed in the sanitation compartment for?

A

30 seconds

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93
Q

How should equipment and utensils be dryed?

A

Air dried

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94
Q

What type of water is approved for use in food service establishments?

A
  1. Public water System
  2. Non-public water system taht is constructed, maintained, and operated according to law
  3. Bottled water
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95
Q

Who is responsible for verifying the chlorine residual of bulk supplied potable water is tested daily?

A

Foodservice Managers

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96
Q

Where should hand washing sinks be located?

A
  1. In restrooms

2. Convenient use for employees in food prep, food dispensing and warewashing areas

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97
Q

Where should handwashing signage be posted?

A

At all hand washing sinks used by food employees

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98
Q

What items are required to be near the handwashing sinks?

A
  1. Soap
  2. Disposable towels
  3. Receptacle
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99
Q

How should mops be stored?

A

The preferred method is is head down

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100
Q

What is the process for controlling pests?

A
  1. Routine inspections of incoming supplies
  2. Routine inspections of the premises
  3. Eliminating harborage
  4. Utilizing traps if pests are found
  5. Proper stock rotation “First in, First out”
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101
Q

What things should be done prior to using pesticides?

A
  1. Use reputable suppliers
  2. Check Deliveries
  3. Keep exterior openings closed tightly
  4. Screen windows and vents
  5. Cover drains with grates
  6. Seal cracka in walls, floors, and around equipment
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102
Q

What are the requirements for using a Pest Control Operator?

A
  1. They must be licensed or certified

2. Keep records of time/date of treatment and chemicals used

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103
Q

How can you determine if you their are cockroaches in the food establishment?

A
  1. Strong oily odor
  2. Droppings look like pepper
  3. Egg casings appear brown, black or maroon
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104
Q

What is the most common species of cockroach?

A

German Cockroach

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105
Q

What is a working container?

A
  1. A container of chemicals that are not the original container
  2. Must be labeled with common name of the chemical
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106
Q

What are the requirements for chemical containers?

A
  1. Kept locked
  2. Kept in original container
  3. Properly disposed
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107
Q

What type of powder can be used to track rodents?

A

Talcum powder or Flour

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108
Q

What is the minimum requirement for kitchens in field operations?

A

Must have hand washing facilities

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109
Q

Who will develop the policies for health and medical screenings of food service workers in the field?

A
  1. Senior Surgeon
  2. Unit Surgeon
  3. Command Surgeon
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110
Q

How far should field food operations be placed from latrines, waste storage and disposal areas?

A

300 ft (100 yds)

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111
Q

How far should field food operations be placed from Sleeping areas and bodies of water?

A

90 ft (30 yds)

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112
Q

When can waterless handwashing be authorized?

A
  1. When no other means is available and using approved hand sanitizer
  2. Employees must utilize single use gloves
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113
Q

What types of pipes and hoses can be used in the field?

A

Must meet NSF/ANSI listed standards for potable water

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114
Q

Who should conduct daily inspections for pests in food operations areas in the field?

A

the PIC

115
Q

What temp should TCS food be kept at?

A

41 degrees F or below

116
Q

Can employees who have camouflage paint on their skin or uniforms work in food operation areas?

A

No, uniforms should be free from heavy soil and residues

117
Q

Who is the Regulatory authority?

A
  1. Qualified military or DOD civilian medical personnel
  2. Representing the Army, Airforce, Navy or Marine Corps
  3. Preventive Medicine, Veterinary services or the medical commander’s designated representative having jurisdiction over the food establishment
118
Q

What is the medical authority?

A
  1. Commander of the MTF or Tactical Unit
  2. His/Her Designated Representative
  3. Whose Authority is above the Prev Med, Public Health, or Veterinarty unit
119
Q

What is food?

A

A raw, cooked or processed edible substance, ice, beverage or ingredient used or intended for use or for sale in whole or in part for human consumption, or chewing gum

120
Q

What is a color additive?

A

Dye, pigment or other substance made by a process of synthesis or similar artifice or extracted from a vegetable, animal, mineral or other source

121
Q

What does “as it relates to HACCP mean”?

A

Any biological, chemical or physical property that can cause an unacceptable risk

122
Q

What form is used for Food Facility Risk Assessment Surveys?

A

DD 2972

123
Q

What form is used for Food Operation Inspection Reports?

A

DD Form 2973

124
Q

What Form is used for Tactical Kitchen Inspection Reports?

A

DD Form 2974

125
Q

What form is used for Conditional Employee or Food Employee Reporting Agreeement?

A

DD Form 2971

126
Q

What inspections are the PIC’s required to conduct?

A
  1. Self-Evaluation of the food establishment once a week

2. Conduct Daily, informal self-evaluations

127
Q

How long are self-evalutions kept on file?

A

1 year

128
Q

What is a pre-operational inspection?

A

Initial inspection conducted on new food concessions or newly renovated/constructed food establishments

129
Q

What is a routine inspection?

A

Regularly scheduled or unscheduled inspection

130
Q

What is a follow-up inspection?

A

Supplemental inspection usually conducted after 7 days of inital inspection

131
Q

What is a complaint inspection?

A

Inspection that is conducted due to a customer complaint?

132
Q

What is a walk through inspection?

A

Unscheduled informal inspection

133
Q

What is a fully compliant inspection rating?

A

No deficiencies

134
Q

What is a Substanially Compliant inspection rating?

A
  1. No imminent Health Hazard
  2. Two or less Critical Findings Corrected onsite
  3. Five or less non-critical findings
135
Q

What is a partially compliant inspection rating?

A
  1. No Imminent health hazards
  2. 3 or more critical findings
  3. 6 or more non-critical findings
136
Q

What is a Non Compliant inspection rating?

A
  1. Imminent Health Hazard is present

2. Any critical findings no corrected on site

137
Q

What defines the competency of inspectors?

A
  1. Authorized Representative of the Regulatory Authority who inspects food establishments or conducts plan reviews
  2. Has the knowledge, skills, and ability to adequately peform the required duties
  3. An Exception may be granted by the medical authority where inspection personnel are under direct supervision of the regulatory authority
138
Q

What are items that are capitlized in the NAVMED P 5010-1?

A
  1. Defined in the glossary
  2. Specific meaning assigned
  3. Meaing of a provision is to be interpreted in the defined context
139
Q

What are items that are italicized in the NAVMED P 5010-1?

A
  1. The provisions are not requirements
  2. Convey relevant information about specific exceptions
  3. Usually involved the words: Should, except for, may, need not, or does not apply
140
Q

What is a critical hit?

A
  1. Asterisk located at the end of a section title or tagline
  2. Indicates that all provisions in that section are critical
  3. Any unmarked provisions within a section that has an asterisk tagline are critical
141
Q

What are Non-Critical hits?

A
  1. Any provisions that are followed by the bold, superscripted letter (N)
  2. All provisions following a tagline that is not marked with an asterisk
142
Q

What is a swing hit?

A
  1. May or may not be critical depending on the circumstances

2. Any provisions that are followed by the bold, superscripted letter (S)

143
Q

What does “Shall” mean in the Tri-Service Food Code?

A

The act is imperative

144
Q

What does “May not” mean in the Tri-Service Food Code?

A

Absolute prohibition

145
Q

What does “May” mean in the Tri-Service Food Code?

A

Permissive and means the act is allowed

146
Q

What does “Should” mean in the Tri-Service Food Code?

A

The action is recommended

147
Q

What is a Debitable provision?

A
  1. Identifies compliance criteria
  2. Requirements associated with managing and maintaining food establishments
  3. Values that do not end in zero
  4. Values containing 3 numbers and ending in zero
148
Q

What is a Non-Debitable Provision?

A
  1. Values that end with 2 digits after the decimal
  2. Values that end with 3 digits after the decimal and the last 2 digits are zero
  3. Don’t contain a Decimal
149
Q

What goes in sections 1-3 of the inspection report?

A
  1. Facility Name
  2. Address
  3. Location
150
Q

What goes in section 4 of the inspection report?

A

Date

151
Q

What goes in section 5 of the inspection report?

A

Inspection Type

152
Q

What goes in section 6 of the inspection report?

A

Inspector’s Name

153
Q

What goes in section 7 of the inspection report?

A

Start Time of Inspection

154
Q

What goes in section 8 of the inspection report?

A

End Time of Inspection

155
Q

What goes in section 9 of the inspection report?

A

Person in Charge’s Name

156
Q

What goes in section 10 of the inspection report?

A

Number and Type of Deficiencies

157
Q

What goes in section 11 of the inspection report?

A

Inspection Rating

158
Q

What goes in section 12 of the inspection report?

A

Compliance Status

159
Q

What goes in section 15 of the inspection report?

A

Inspection Type

160
Q

What goes in section 16 of the inspection report?

A

Temperature Observation

161
Q

What goes in section 17 of the inspection report?

A

Remarks

162
Q

What goes in section 18 of the inspection report?

A

Signature

163
Q

Where does the inspection report go after the inspection has been completed?

A
  1. Original to the CO

2. Copy to the PIC

164
Q

What is a vector?

A
  1. Any arthropod or rodent capable of transmitting disease to individuals
  2. Acts as an intermediate hosts or reservoirs
  3. Presents problems of sanitary or hygienic significance
165
Q

What is a host?

A

Individual potentially susceptible to illness

166
Q

What is a Reservoir?

A

Organism where the agent lives and multiplies

167
Q

What is pesticide?

A

Any substance or mixture of substance that kills pests

168
Q

What are the functions of a Navy Entomologist?

A 
Provides the following to fleet commanders:
1. On-site consultation
2. Technical Assistance
3. Recommendations
Conducts Training for Shipboard Pest Control Specialists
Reviews  and evaluates the following:
1. Pest Contorl Procedures
2. Pesticides
3. Pesticide Dispersal Equipment
4. New Technologies
169
Q

What is the purpose of conducting a vector control operation?

A

Preserves the health and morale of Sailors and Marines

170
Q

What processes are involved in a vector control operation?

A
  1. Preventing disease transmission to man
  2. Ensuring sanitary conditions
  3. Eliminating the hosts/reservoir of disease
  4. Ensuring a safe food supply
171
Q

What instruction governs the DOD Pest Mgmt Program?

A

DOD Directive 4150.07

172
Q

What does the DOD 4150.7/ DOD Pest Mgmt Program provide?

A

Provides basic standards and policies of governing the Navy’s pest control program

173
Q

What instruction governs the Navy Pest Mgmt Program?

A

OPNAVINST 6250.4C

174
Q

What does the OPNAVINST 6250.4C/ Pest Mgmt Programs provide?

A

Provides Navy and Marine Corps policies and procedures for implementing pest mgmt programs

175
Q

What instruction governs Shipboard Pest Mgmt?

A

NAVMED P-5052-26

176
Q

What does the NAVMED P5052.6/ Shipboard Pest Mgmt provide?

A

Outlines DOD, OPNAV and BUMED policies and procedures

177
Q

What responsiblity does NAVSEASYSCOM have regarding pest control?

A

Standardizing pesticide and equipment recommended vby BUMED for use aboard ship

178
Q

What responsibility does BUMED have with regards to Pest Control?

A
  1. Monitor and Evaluate shipboard pest mgmt programs
  2. Evaulate all pest mgmt procedures, pesticides and equipment
  3. Provides professional guidance
  4. Develops and provides shipboard pest mgmt training
179
Q

What responsibility does the CO have?

A
  1. Ensures the SMDR responsible for pest control are certified in shipboard pest mgmt
  2. Ensures that only approved pesticides and equipment are stored or used aboard the ship
180
Q

What is the SMDR’s Responsibility?

A
  1. Procure approved pest control supplies and equipment
  2. Conduct or supervise pest mgmt operations
  3. Record all pest mgmt acitivities
  4. Report pest mgmt info to higher authority
181
Q

What is the Navy’s Policy regarding pest control?

A

Employ an integrated pest mgmt program that minimizes pesticide

182
Q

What is the DOD’s Restricted Pesticide Standard?

A
  1. For use by trained pesticides applicators

2. Includes all EPA restricted use pesticides

183
Q

What is the DOD’s Non-Restricted Pesticide Standard?

A
  1. Available without control through the military supply system
  2. Does not require special training to apply; only trained personnel may apply onboard ship
184
Q

What is the DOD’s Non-Standard Pesticide Standards?

A

Must be approved by the appropriate area entomologist prior to use

185
Q

What is an Acaricide?

A

Controls mites, scorpions, spiders and ticks

186
Q

What is a fungicide?

A

Controls fungi

187
Q

What is a herbicide?

A

controls undesired vegetation

188
Q

What is a insecticide?

A

Controls insects

189
Q

What are the different types of insecticide by use?

A
  1. Adulticide = Kills adults
  2. Larvacide= Kills larva
  3. Ovicide= Kills egss
190
Q

What is a Molluscidcide?

A

Controls snails and other mollusks

191
Q

What is a Rodenticide?

A

Kills Rodents

192
Q

What are the different types of insecticide by chemical?

A
  1. Inorganic pesticides - example boric acid
  2. Chlorinated hydrocarbons - none currently used by the Navy
  3. Organophosphate - Malathion and Dursban
  4. Carbamate - Baygon
  5. Synthetics - Pyrethroids, D-Phenothrin
193
Q

What are the different types of pesticide by entry?

A
  1. Stomach poisons
  2. Contact poison
  3. Fumigants
194
Q

What are the different types of pesticide by mode of action?

A
  1. Desicant - Death by dehydration
  2. Preservatives - poisonous substances applies to material such as wood
  3. Repellent
  4. Chemosterilants
  5. Systemic
  6. Growth Regulators - Controls the normal growth and/or maturity process in insects
195
Q

What is the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide and Rodenticide Act of 1972?

A

Requires certain signal words, antidote, statements and general notice must appear on pesticide labeling

196
Q

What statements must be on labels for pesticide?

A
  1. Danger - Skull and Crossbones, antidote statement - highly toxic
  2. Warning - No antidote statement - moderately toxic
  3. Caution - No antidote statement, slightly toxic
  4. No warning: Comparatively free of toxicity
  5. All pesticides must bear the words “Keep out of reach of children”
197
Q

What type of Respirator should be worn when applying pesticides?

A
  1. Respirators - Must be NIOSH Approved
  2. Filter must be changed after 8 hours of normal use
  3. Filter must be changed after 4 hours of heavy spraying
198
Q

What type of Eye protection should be worn when applying pesticides?

A

Unvented or Indirectly vented goggles are a face shield

199
Q

What type of body protection should be worn when applying pesticides?

A
  1. long sleeve shirt and full length trousers
  2. Rubber Apron
  3. Trousers tucked into rubber boots
200
Q

What type of head protection should be worn when applying pesticides?

A
  1. Something to cover the head
  2. Wide-brimmed, water proof hat
  3. hard hat
201
Q

What type of hand protection should be worn when applying pesticides?

A
  1. Solvent resistant gloves that protect the wrist

2. Gloves should be tested daily for leaks

202
Q

What are some types authorized shipboard pesticides?

A
  1. Combat Quick Kill - Bait Station
  2. Permethrin Arthropod Repellent - Aerosol
  3. DEET - Personal Application
  4. Perma-Dust - Boric Acid, Aerosol
  5. D-Phenothrin - Aerosol
  6. PT 565 plus XLO - Pyrethrin, aerosol
203
Q

What are the signs, symptoms, and treatment for Organophosphates exposure?

A
  1. Mild: Headache, dizziness, weakness, anxiety, miosis ( pupil constriction)
  2. Moderate: nausea, visual impairment, salivation, lacrimation, abdominal cramps, vomiting, diarrhea, sweating, slow pulse, respiratory distress
  3. Severe: Pinpoint pupils, respiratory difficutly, Pulmonary edema, muscle spasms, cyanosis, loss of sphincter control
    Treatment:
  4. 2 to 4 mg of atropine sulfate IV
  5. 2 Pam Chloride, 1 gm IV slowly, may be used for supportive therapy
204
Q

What are the signs, symptoms, and treatment for Carbamate Poisoning?

A
  1. Pupillary constriction, salivation, profuse sweating, lassitude, muscle incoordination, nausea, and vomiting, diarrhea, epigastric pain, tightness in the chest
    Treatment:
  2. 2-4 mg atropine sulfate IV
  3. 2-pam chloride is contraindicated
205
Q

What are the signs, symptoms, and treatment for Organochlorine Pesticide poisoning?

A
  1. Within 20 mins to 4 hours have a headache, nausea, vomiting, restlessness, tremor, apprehension, convulsion, coma, respiratory, failure and death
    Treatment:
  2. Lavage stomach with 2-4 liters of tap water
  3. Induce catharsis with 30 gm sodium sulphate in one cup of water
  4. Administer Barbiturates as necessary for restlessness or conulsions
  5. Calcium gluconate IV every 4 hours
206
Q

What specific symptoms are caused by pesticide exposure?

A
  1. Organophophates - Irreversible Cholinesterase inhibition
  2. Carbamate - reversible Cholinesterase inhibition
  3. Organochlorine - Central Nervous System Depressant/Stimulants
207
Q

What items should be part of a pesticide spill kit?

A
  1. Absorbent material - diatomacceous earth, sand or dirt
  2. Shovel
  3. Leak-Proof barrel for disposal
  4. Detergent and water or chlorine bleach
  5. Appropriate PPE
208
Q

What are the steps for cleaing a pesticide spill?

A
  1. Utilize absorment material to contain the spill
  2. Shovel all material into a leak-proof barrel
  3. Treat contaminated surfaces with detergent and water or chlorine bleach
  4. Use Appropriate PPE
209
Q

Where should the SMDR submit Pest Control Reports?

A
  1. SAMS
  2. Separate Pest Control Log
  3. Report monthly pest mgmt activities to NECE
210
Q

What form is used to report pest mgmt activities to NECE?

A
  1. DD1532-1

2. Sent monthly

211
Q

What is NECE?

A

Navy Entomology Center of Excellence

212
Q

What are the 3 types of lice?

A
  1. Body Louse
  2. Head Louse
  3. Crab Louse
213
Q

Which type of Lice attaches itself to clothing?

A

Body Louse

214
Q

Which type of Lice attaches itself to hair?

A

Head louse

Crab louse

215
Q

What are the methods for treatment of Lice?

A
  1. Insecticidal ointment/shampoos such as Elimite (permethrin)
  2. Wash all clothing and linens in 100 degree F water
  3. Wash all brushes and combs
  4. Avoid use of common articles of personal hygiene and grooming
216
Q

How do you identify a German Cockroach?

A
  1. Tan or Straw Colored
  2. 15 mm in size
  3. 2 Longitudinal dark stripes near the head ( LT BARS)
217
Q

What does a German Cockroach need to survive?

A

Food, Water, harborage, and warmth for growth and survival

218
Q

How do you identify a Brown-Banded Cockroach?

A
  1. Less than 15 mm long
  2. Two yellow cross bands near the base of the adult wings and 2 transverse light bands on the dorsal surface of the nymphs
219
Q

Where do you normally find Brown-Banded Cockroaches?

A

Living Rooms, Dining Rooms, Bedrooms, Closets, hotels, motels and hospital wards

220
Q

How do you identify the American Cockroach?

A
  1. 35 mm long

2. Anterior dorsal plate behind the head has conspicous yellow posterior horder strip

221
Q

Where do you find the American Cockroach?

A

Filthy habits, moving from shelter to shelter or breading area to food sources

222
Q

What control methods do you use to control cockroaches?

A
  1. Store food properly
  2. Remove garbage
  3. No food in berthing
  4. Reduction of food sources
  5. Cleanliness
223
Q

How frequently should visual inspections for cockroaches be conducted?

A

Every 2 weeks

224
Q

How do you identify the Indian Meal Moth?

A
  1. Moth larvae spin silk-webbing

2. Grayish band across the upper 1/3 of their reddish-bronze wings

225
Q

How do you identify Flour (Tribolium) Beetles?

A
  1. Shiny, Flattened, Reddish Brown

2. Wing Covers are Ridged Lengthwise

226
Q

How do you identify the Dermestid Beetles (Khapra Beetle)?

A
  1. Adults are oval shaped
  2. Reddish brown with pale markings on the wing covers
  3. Larvae are resistant to starvation
227
Q

What happens if you find Khapra beetles in your food storage?

A

Everything must be thrown out

228
Q

How do you identify the Saw-toothed grain beetle?

A
  1. Most commonly found stored products pest aboard ship
  2. Slender, Flat brown beetle
  3. 2.5 mm in length
  4. Thorax bears six saw-toothed projections on each side
229
Q

How do you indentify a Rice Weevil?

A
  1. Most destructive store product pests
  2. Reddish-brown and have a long “beek” or “snout” that extends from the head
  3. Two yellowish or reddish spots on the top of each front wing
230
Q

What food items have the potential for insect infestation?

A
  1. Grits
  2. Cornmeal
  3. Farina
  4. Dry Mix
  5. Macaroni
  6. Barley
  7. Cookie and Cake Mix
  8. Flour
  9. Dry beans and peas
  10. Ready to eat cereal
  11. Rice
231
Q

How do you identify a House Fly?

A
  1. Gray in Color
  2. Gray Thorax
  3. 4 equally broad, dark longitudinal stripes
  4. Non-biting, sponging mouth parts
232
Q

Why are house flys considered a nusiance?

A

They carry mayn disease organisms or cause myiasis

233
Q

How do you identify a Blow Fly?

A

Metallic blue or green abdomen

234
Q

How do you identify a Sand Fly?

A
  1. Bodies and wings are densely covered with hair

2. Females have piercing mouthparts for sucking blood

235
Q

What types of diseases do sand flies carry?

A
  1. Bacterial (Bartonella)
  2. Viral (Sand Fly or Pappataci Fever)
  3. Protozoal (Leishmaniasis)
236
Q

How do you identify the TSE TSE Fly?

A

Scissor like fashion above the abdomen

237
Q

What disease can the TSE TSE fly transmit?

A

Trypanosomiasis

238
Q

How do you identify a Black Fly?

A
  1. Dark in Color
  2. Stout body with short, broad wings
  3. Females may feed on man as well as animals, leaves a large size bite wound
239
Q

What diseases does the black fly transmit?

A

onchocerciasis (river blindness)

240
Q

How do you identify a horse or deer fly?

A
  1. Robust insects with powerful wings
  2. Size can range from that of a house fly to nearly 25 mm (1 inch) in length
  3. Inflicts exceedingly painful bites
241
Q

What diseases does the horse/deer fly transmit?

A
  1. Bacterial (anthrax and tularemia)
  2. Protozoan (trypanosomes)
  3. Helminthic (LOA LOA) infections or African Eye worm
242
Q

How do you identify eye Gnats?

A
  1. Very small flies

2. Attracted to wounds, pus and sebaceous secretions

243
Q

How do you control House flies and Blow Flies?

A
  1. Removing garbage

2. Controlling nearby breeding ashore

244
Q

How do you control the sand fly?

A
  1. Elimination of breeding sites
245
Q

How do you control the TSE TSE fly?

A
  1. They are difficult to control

2. Aerosol sprays have been effective control for adults

246
Q

How do you control the Black fly?

A

Applications of larvacides to the streams where the immature forms are developing

247
Q

How do you control the horse or deer fly?

A

It’s difficult and frequently ineffective

248
Q

How do you identify the Aedes Aegypti Mosquito?

A
  1. Lyre-shaped silver-white lines on the thorax

2. White bands on the tarsal segments

249
Q

How does the Aedes Aegypti Mosquito lay it’s eggs?

A

Singly on the side of containers at or above the waterline

250
Q

What diseases does the Aedes Aegypti mosquito carry?

A
  1. Dengue Fever
  2. Yellow Fever
  3. Tularemia
  4. Filarial Nematodes
251
Q

How do you identify the Anopheles Mosquitos?

A
  1. Wings that are spotted
  2. Rest with their head, thorax and abdoment all in a straight line, held at a 40 or 90 degre to the surface on which they are sitting
252
Q

How does the Anopheles Mosquito lay it’s eggs?

A
  1. Laid singly on the water surface and supported by lateral floats
  2. Mostly in fresh water
253
Q

What disease does the Anopheles Mosquito carry?

A

Malaria

254
Q

How do you identify the Culex Mosquito?

A

Usually found in tropical and subtropical regions of the world

255
Q

Where does the Culex mosquito lay it’s eggs?

A

Eggs are deposited in rafts of 100 or more

256
Q

What disease does the Culex mosquito transmit?

A

Encephalomyelitis

257
Q

How do you control mosquitos?

A

Most methods are classified as being either permanent or temporary

258
Q

What are some characteristics of Fleas?

A
  1. Fleas are ectoparasites of birds and mammals

2. Burrow into the skin, between the toe nails, and in the tender part of the feet

259
Q

What diseases do fleas transmit?

A
  1. Oriental Rat flea is the chief vector of bubonic plague and flea borne typhus
260
Q

How do you control fleas?

A
  1. Avoid infested areas
  2. Wear protective clothing
  3. Personal application of insect repellant
261
Q

How do you treat for fleas?

A
  1. Apply residual sprays on all floor and wall surfaces up to 2 feet above the floor
  2. Yards and under buildings should be treat with a residual emulsion
  3. Entries into structures should be sprayed from the foundation to a heigh of 2 to 3 feet
262
Q

How do you identify a hard tick?

A

Distinct hard covering - scutum

263
Q

How do you identify a soft tick?

A

No scutum

264
Q

What diseases does the hard tick transmit?

A
  1. Lyme disease
  2. Rocky mountain spotted fever (tick typhus)
  3. Tick-borne rickettsioses of Eastern Hemisphere
265
Q

What diseases does the soft tick transmit?

A
  1. Relapsing Fever

2. Recurring Fever

266
Q

How do you control ticks?

A
  1. Avoid infested areas
  2. Wear protective clothing
  3. Apply insect repellent
  4. Remove all ticks found on the body at once
  5. Clear vegetation from infested areas
  6. Apply insecticides as early in the year as the ticks are noted
267
Q

What is a characteristic of mites?

A
  1. Burrows into the horny layer of teh dermis

2. Causes intense itching and occassionally erythema

268
Q

What are some characteristics of the nest mite?

A
  1. Live within nests of birds and rodents and only bite man when deprived of their normal hosts
  2. House mouse mite is part of this group; capable of vectoring Rickettsialpox from mouse to man
269
Q

How do you control Mites?

A
  1. Apply risidual pesticide
  2. PPE
  3. Repellent
  4. Elimite
  5. Heat sterilization of clothing and bedding
270
Q

How do you control mite infested foods?

A
  1. Dispose of infested material
  2. Sanitation of food storage and handling areas
  3. Use of effective residual sprays
271
Q

What are charateristics of bedbugs?

A
  1. Infest warm blooded animals
  2. not known to vector disease
  3. Flat, reddish-brown, wingless with sucking mouthpart
  4. Nocturnal feeders
  5. Bites produce small, hard, white swellings (wheals)
272
Q

How do you control Bedbugs?

A

Pesticide applications

273
Q

How do you identify a Norway Rat (Rattus Norvegicus)?

A
  1. Most common and largest domestic rat
  2. Fur is reddish-brown to grayish brown
  3. Fat body
  4. Adults weigh 10 to 17 ounces
  5. Tail is shorted than the body and head combined
  6. Ears are small and close
  7. Blunt nose and small eyes
274
Q

Norway Rat habits?

A
  1. Home range of 100 to 150 feet
  2. Prefers - garbage, meat, fish, vegetables, fruits and cereal
  3. Leaves run markings on walls caused by oils in their fur
  4. Urine color is fluorescent green under black light
275
Q

How do you identify a Roof Rat?

A
  1. Smaller than the norway rat
  2. Frequently found on ships
  3. Body is slender
  4. Tall is longer than the head and body combined
  5. Ears are long
  6. Pointed noise
276
Q

Roof Rat habits?

A
  1. Home range is 100 to 150 feet
  2. Agile climber
  3. Preferred food - seeds, cereal, vegetables, fruit and grass, leather goods, chocolate and even weaker members of its own kind
  4. Will leave run marks overhead
277
Q

How do you identify the house mouse/field mouse?

A
  1. Smallest of domestic rodents
  2. Fur is dusky gray, body is small and slender
  3. Tail is about as long as the head and the body combined
278
Q

How do you control rodents?

A
  1. Elimanate sources of food, water and shelter
  2. Keep food storage areas clean
  3. Rat guards
  4. Traps on board ship
  5. Rodenticides are not authorized
  6. Appropriate lighting to prevent dark spaces
279
Q

What does a rat guard look like?

A
  1. minimum 36 inch outside diameter
  2. Should be placed at least 6 feet away from the pier and at least 2 feet from the vessel
  3. Point of the cone should face the ship
280
Q

What instruction governs the ship sanitation Certificate program?

A

BUMEDINST 6210.4

281
Q

What does the Ship Sanitation Certificate Program Require/

A

SMDR on a ship to a foreign port to obtain either an exemption or sanitation control certificate

282
Q

How long is the Ship Sanitation Certificate good for?

A
  1. One year

2. Can be extended for one month by the original issuer

283
Q

Where can inspectors not issue a Sanitation certificate?

A

On ships they are assigned to as ship’s company

284
Q

Who maintains the Ship Sanitation Certificate?

A

The Medical Department

22010 (23 decks)

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