11/20- Malignant Diseases of the GU system Flashcards

(82 cards)

1
Q

What is the most common urologic malignancies? Next?

A
  1. Prostate
  2. Bladder
  3. Kidney
  4. Testis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Among men, ___ cancer is the most common.

This cancer is the #__ cause of cancer deaths in men

A

Among men, prostate cancer is the most common.

This cancer is the #2 cause of cancer deaths in men (2nd to lung)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Bladder is the #__ most common and the #__ cause of cancer deaths (among men)

A

Bladder is the #4 most common and the #8 cause of cancer deaths (among men)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

T/F: There is no GU cancer in the top 10 causes of cancer in women. What is the highest?

A
  • True; no GU cancer in top 10 women cancer cases
  • Kidney cancer is #8 (only 3% of new cases)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the risk factors for Prostate cancer?

  • Which is most important
  • What are modifiable risk factors
A
  • Advanced age
  • African American race (more common and earlier age/higher stage)
  • Family history (strongest!)
  • Modifiable risk factors
  • Obesity
  • Fat intake (mono-unsaturated fats)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe family history role in prostate cancer/risks

A
  • 2-3x increased risk of prostate cancer
  • BRCA link: female relatives with breast/ovarian cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is involved in prostate cancer screening?

A
  • PSA: prostate-specific antigen
  • DRE: digital rectal exam
  • Palpation of posterior zone of prostate
  • Should be done annually for men > 50 yo BOTH are required
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is PSA? - What is it’s function? - Circulation

A

Serine protease that is unique to prostate

  • Lyses seminal coagulum
  • Circulates free or bound to a-1 antichymotrypsin
  • %free correlates with benign vs. malignant
  • >25%: more likely BPH
  • < 10%: at least 50% chance of being cancer
  • Only valid at total PSA values 4-10
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the expected values/diagnostic criteria levels of PSA

A

% free correlates with benign vs. malignant

  • >25%: more likely BPH
  • <10%: at least 50% chance of being cancer
  • Only valid at total PSA values 4-10
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

__% of prostate cancer occurs in the ____ zone

A

75% of prostate cancer occurs in the posterior zone

  • Habitus may make difficult; technical points
  • PSA testing has caused “stage migration” (finding earlier)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What has US Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) recommends what for prostate screening?

What does American Urological Association say?

A
  • Recommends against prostate specific antigen (PSA)-based screening for prostate cancer
  • American Urological Association disagrees: all men 55-69 yo should discuss PSA screening with provider and get screened every 2 yrs
  • Little benefit to men 70+ with life expectancy under 10-15 yrs
  • Screening with PSA has reduced prostate cancer mortality
  • Screening with PSA has led to diagnosis and treatment of many indolent cancers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the sensitivity and specificity of PSA screening?

How to improve?

A

Overall

  • Sensitivity: 35%
  • Specificity: 63%

If stratify for PSA > 4:

  • Sensitivity: 86%
  • Specificity: 33%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How should we manage screening of prostate cancer?

A

Need to focus on age-specific! recommendations and practices (and tx need to maximize cure and minimize ASEs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is prostate cancer diagnosed?

  • What is the most common stage?
A
  • Transrectal US-guided prostate biopsy
  • Histologic report: Gleason grading
  • DRE >> clinical stage
  • Most common = T1c
  • Risk stratification

Biopsy features + DRE = grade and stage then:

  • Staging: imaging in intermediate/high risk
  • Bone scan and CT of abdomen/pelvis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the staging of prostate cancer

A
  • T1a, T1b by TURP
  • T1c: non-palpable
  • T2: palpable but organ confined
  • T3a: extra-capsular
  • T3b: SV invasion
  • T4: invades adjacent organs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the median age of diagnosis of prostate cancer?

  • Most common stage
  • Peak when and why
A
  • Median age of Dx: 66 yo
  • Most in cT1c stage (localized): 60-75%
  • Peak in 1992 due to PSA use
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How are prostate cancer deaths changing?

A

Prostate cancer deaths are decreasing

  • PSA finding cancer earlier
  • Better treatments
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the 5 year survival of prostate cancer:

  • Localized
  • Regional
  • Distant
  • All stages
A

Natural history of prostate cancer is very long:

  • Localized: 100%
  • Regional: 100%
  • Distant: 28%
  • All stages: 99%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is management/treatment of prostate cancer?

A

Active surveillance

  • Risk features
  • Protocol for monitoring

Surgery

  • Radical prostatectomy + bilateral pelvic LND
  • Approaches and risks

Radiation

  • External beam therapy
  • Brachytherapy: radioactive seeds

Investigational

  • Focal therapies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe TMN staging of organ-confined prostate cancer

A

Organ-confined: not though to involve regional LN or any visceral organs

  • Clinical stage: cT1-3, N0, M0
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Surgery is therapeutic and diagnostic for treating prostate cancer. What does it involve?

A
  • Excision of prostate, seminal vesicles
  • Excision of pelvic LNs
  • Anastomosis of bladder to urethra
  • Pathologic analysis > prognostic information
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe TMN staging of advanced stage prostate cancer

A
  • Locally advanced stage: cT4
  • Nodal metastasis: N1
  • Distant metastasis: M1

This scan shows something at femoral head (not kidneys, those normally light up), and actually has a lot of vertebral mets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is treatment for advanced stage prostate cancer treatment?

A

Systemic treatment

  • Androgen deprivation (ADT)
  • Chemotherapy
  • Other hormonal tx

Role for local therapy (Surgery, XRT) must be individualized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are surgical and pharmacologic methods of androgen deprivation?

A

Surgical: orchiectomy

Pharmacologic:

  • LHRH agonists: Lupron, Zoladex, Eligard
  • Anti-androgens: Bicalutamide, Flutamide
  • Older but occasionally utilized:
  • Ketoconazole
  • Diethylstilbesterol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
SUMMARY of prostate cancer - Screening - Staging - Treatment
_Screening_ - PSA and stage migration - Long survival and low mortality make use of PSA controversial _Staging_ - Overwhelming majority low-stage - Most common stage _Treatment_ - Risk stratified
26
Testis cancer is a ___ \_\_\_ tumor
Testis cancer is a **germ cell** tumor
27
What is seen here?
Testis cancer
28
Describe epidemiology of testis cancer: - Most common malignancy in what population - \_\_% of all cancers in men worldwide - Age of distribution is \_\_\_\_ - Ethnicity
- Most common malignancy in **young men (15-34 yo)** - **1%** of all cancers in men **worldwide** - **Age** of distribution is **bimodal** - **Whites 5-6x** more than blacks
29
What are risk factors for testis cancer?
- Undescended testicle (even if brought down) - Maternal estrogen exposure - Contralateral testis tumor
30
25% of men with testis cancer will present how? (important)
**Subfertile semen parameters** (in 25% of men with testis cancer)
31
What signs/symptoms contribute to diagnosis of testis cancer?
- Palpable mass - Tender breasts (2%) - Rarely with back pain
32
What is seen here?
- **Left pic**: irregular contour, heterogeneous echo - **Right pic:** normal; homogeneous echogenecity, spherical/round
33
What are serum tumor markers that can help diagnose/monitor testis cancer?
Serum tumor markers: **- AFP** **- beta-HCG** **- LDH** Stage not defined fully until nadir of markers
34
How is the TNM stage of testis cancer established?
- **Radical orchiectomy** for **T** - **CT scan a/p** for **N/M** * **LNs of retroperitoneum!** (due to vascular drainage; embryologically, testes start high and then descends. Only to inguinal LNs in late stages)
35
Break down testis cancer staging for: - Localized presentation - Regional presentation - Distant metastatic presentation What are the 5 yr survival rates?
- **Localized**: 69% of cases * 5 yr survival: 99% - **Regional**: 18% of cases * 5 yr survival: 96% - **Distant** metastatic: 12% of cases * 74% 5 yr survival
36
What are the testis cancer types? - What are products they make? - What are most tumors
They are GERM CELL tumors - **Seminoma**: 10-20% * Make B-hCG but never AFP - Non-seminoma * **Embryonal**: 60% make AFP, 65% make B-hCG * **Choriocarcinoma**: ALL, 100%!, make B-hCG * **Yolk sac**: 90% make AFP * **Teratoma** - Most are MIXED GCTs
37
What is the treatment for testis cancer?
- Treatment determined by stage + histology + risk category - Surgery: **orchiectomy** (nearly always step 1) - Observation - Surgery: **Retroperitoneal** **LND** (RPLND) - **Chemo**therapy - **Radiation** therapy
38
Describe fertility preservation in testis cancer treatment
- Chemo is toxic to spermatogenesis - RPLND can lead to retrograde ejaculation * Injury to ?
39
What are some newer concepts of long-term toxicities of testis cancer treatment?
- CV SE and metabolic synrome - Pulmonary toxicity of bleomycin - Secondary malignancy * Leukemia after chemo * Solid organ tumors after radiation
40
SUMMARY: Testis cancer - Age - Staging
- Young man's disease - Staging * Primary tumor * Tumor markers (based on cell types present) * Imaging: to look at primary landing zone (retroperitoneal!)
41
Describe cancer of the male genitalia
Penile cancer: squamous cell cancer
42
What are risk factors for penile squamous cell cancer?
- HPV (positive in 30-60% of cases) - Hygiene: circumcision - Smoking
43
What is the incidence for penile squamous cancer?
.\< 1% in US
44
How is carcinoma in situ managed? Prognosis?
- Topical treatment - Can progress to invasive
45
Describe the staging and surgery for penile (squamous cell) cancer
Surgery: - Partial penectomy - Radical penectomy - Inguinal LND - Pelvic LND
46
Describe urothelial cancer - Aka? - Where can it occur
- Transitional cell carcinoma _Locations:_ - Bladder - Ureter - Renal pelvis
47
What are risk factors for bladder cancer?
- **Males** (3x) - **Cigarette** smoking ~ 50% of cases - Occupational/environmental **exposure**: 20% of cases * Aromatic amines: plastics, chemical, rubber processing (and tobacco) * Aluminum, dye, pesticides, arsenic, leather processing, printing industry - **Infection** - **Schistosoma** hematobium
48
Describe the connection between bladder cancer and tobacco
- Smokers of \> 2 packs/day have ~7x the risk of nonsmokers - Risk in nonsmokers 1-2% - Risk in smokers 6-10% - Rationale for screening in firefighters - Smoking cessation, even at time of diagnosis, improves bladder cancer survival
49
How is bladder cancer diagnosed?
_Hematuria_ - Gross painless hematuria \>\> automatic workup - Microscopic hematuria \>\> more detail needed _Testing of microhematuria_ - Urinalysis with micro (dip inadequate) - Urine culture - If \>= 3 rbc/hpf in absence of infection -\> workup
50
Describe the diagnostic workup of microhematuria in bladder cancer?
_DDx:_ - Kidneys: stone, mass, infection - Ureters: stone, mass - Bladder: stone, mass, infection - Prostate: BPH - Anticoagulation effect - Trauma - Prior pelvic radiation - Atrophic vaginitis/urethritis Prevalence of microhematuria: **1-20%**
51
What are risk factors for hematuria?
- Age **\> 40 yo** - **Male** - History of tobacco use - Chemical exposure - History of stones - Symptoms
52
Workup for bladder cancer?
- CT abdomen/pelvis (3-phase) - Cystoscopy - +/- Urine cytology
53
What is the presentation of bladder cancer?
- Other symptoms (with microhematuria) * Dysuria * Urgency/frequenc * Burning or suprapubic pain - Women frequently misdiagnosed and treated UTI even with gross hematuria - 10% present with symptoms related to metastasis or advanced disease * Bone pain * Constitutional symptoms
54
How do you evaluate bladder cancer?
- Urine cytology - Cystoscopy * Biopsy * Resection (TUR) * Bimanual exam - Imaging * Hydronephrosis * Lymphadenopathy * Visceral lesions
55
Describe the staging of bladder cancer? What is most common?
Stage [Tis -T4] + Grade [Low/High]
56
Describe non-muscle invasive UC-bladder - Stages - Treatment - Surveillance - Management of recurrence
- _Stages_: Tis, Ta, T1 - _Surgery_: TUBT - Intravesical therapy: * Mitomycin * BCG: Bacillus Camille-Guerin - _Surveillance_: * Regular interval cystoscopy * Annual imaging * Urine cytology - _Management_ of recurrence - Depending on presentation, some chance of progression to more invasive disease
57
Describe muscle-invasive UC-bladder - Stages - Surgery - Surveillance - Management of recurrence
- Stages **T2-T4** - Surgery: * Diagnostic TURBT + bimanual exam * **Cystectomy/Cystoprostatectomy** * **Radical cystectomy**: women (bladder, +/- uterus, +/- anterior wall of vagina), man (bladder, prostate, seminal vesicles) * **Bilateral pelvic LND** - Chemotherapy: neoadjuvant/ajuvant * **CISPLATIN**-based - **Chemoradiation** * Non-surgical candidates * Inferior survival vs. surgery - **Urinary diversion:** * Ileal conduit (incontinent stoma) * Neobladder (continent) * Continent cutaneous diversion - **Surveillance** * Urine cytology * Scheduled imaging - Management of recurrence * Urothelial: upper tracts * Distant
58
What is shown here?
Urinary diversion - Bowel segment with bowel re-anastomosis
59
Describe the pathology of bladder cancer (and percentages)
- **Urothelial** cell carcinoma (UC): **90%** - **Squamous** cell carcinoma (SCC): **7%** * 85% of cases in Egypt secondary to Bilharzial infection (schistosomiasis) * Chronic irritation: long term catheter - **Adenocarcinoma**: **2%**
60
Describe urothelial cancer of the upper tracts - Location - Percnetages
- Ureter or renal pelvis - 5-7% of all renal tumors - 5% of urothelial cancers * \> 80% of those had prior bladder cancer
61
Describe management/treatment for urothelial cancer in upper tracts
_Surgery_ - **Endoscopy**: biopsy and fulguration - **Resection**: segmental, nephroureterectomy _Chemotherapy_
62
Describe the survival of urothelial cancer
- Overall 77% alive and disease-free at 5 yrs
63
SUMMARY: Urothelial cancer - Screening - Staging - Survival
- Bladder cancer is uncommon _Screening_ - No routine or recommended screening - **Microhematuria**! - Target populations Staging: bladder cancer: **- 80% are non-muscle-invasive at presentation** - 90% are urothelial (transitional) cell cancer _Survival_ - Example of high cost of care
64
What is the most common kidney cancer?
Renal Cell Carcinoma
65
What are risk factors for kidney cancer (renal cell carcinoma)?
- Obesity - Tobacco use * 20-40% of men with RCC * 10-20% of women - Hypertension
66
Hereditary syndromes are responsible for \_\_% of RCCs
Hereditary syndromes are responsible for **2-3%** of RCCs
67
What are hereditary syndromes/causes of kidney cancer?
- Von Hippel-Lindau - Tubeous sclerosis - Hereditary papillary renal cell carcinoma - Hereditary leiomyomatosis and RCC (HLRCC)
68
What is Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome? - Inheritance pattern - Locus - Gene - Cancer type - Associated manifestations - Age of onset - Uni or bilateral
- **Autosomal dominant** - **Chr 3p** - **VHL** gene - **Clear cell** renal cell carcinoma (in 50%) - Associated manifestations: pheochromocytoma, retinal angiomas, hemangioblastomas of SC/brainstem, cysts of kidney/pancreas - Early onset: **20s-40s** - Often **bilateral**, multiple
69
What renal cancer is associated with tuberous sclerosis?
- **Clear cell** renal cell carcinoma - Also **angiomyolipoma**
70
What are the genetics/mechanism behind hereditary papillary renal cell carcinoma?
- Met **proto-oncogene** mutations - **chr 7q31-34** - Encodes **hepatocyte GF**
71
What cancers are associated with Hereditary Leiomyomatosis and RCC (HLRCC)? - Genetics
- **Cutaneous leiomyomas** - **Uterine fibroids** - **20%** have **RCC** - **Chr1q**: fumarate hydratase gene
72
Describe the mechanisms for the following genes: - VHL - HIF - VHL (TSG)
- **VHL**: codes for protein r/f degradation of HIF - **HIF**: induces angiogenesis in hypoxic environment via regulation of VEGF/PDGF **- VHL (TSG) mutn**: constitutive activation of HIF in normoxic conditions \>\> urnegulated angiogenesis
73
Describe the VEGF pathway and what gene is involved
_VEGF pathway:_ - Neovascularity, proliferation - VHL: tumor suppressor gene * Involved in VHL and sporadic RCC _Can target alteration with new meds_ - Targeted therapy
74
What is the diagnostic workup for a renal mass?
- **Imaging** * Preferred: axial imaging (CT/MRI) pre and post-contrast phases * Alternative: renal US - **Urinalysis** - When considering malignancy in DDx: * Add chest x-ray * Labwork: renal function, CBC, livery function
75
What is the presentation of kidney cancer? - Classic triad **(TESTED)** - Gende - Median age - Syndromes
_Classic triad (observed in under 25%)_ - **Hematuria**: gross or microscpic - **Flank pain** - **Palpable abdominal mass** _Paraneoplastic syndromes common:_ - Hypercalcemia - Elevated LFTs _Epidemiology:_ - **Males** (2x) - Median age at dx = **64 yo**
76
Describe the class of renal cystic lesions. How are they classified? - Malignancy risk
Cystic lesions are classified on CT (**Bosniak**) - **Class I**: simple cyst (0% malignancy risk) - **Class II**: nonenhancing fine septum or Ca++ (minimal malignancy risk) - **Class IIf**: hyperdense, multiple septa, wall nodules (5-15% malignancy risk) - **Class III:** enhancing nodule or septa (50% malignancy risk) - **Class IV**: enhancing soft tissue component (90% malignancy risk)
77
What is seen here?
Bosniak cysts
78
What has improved the incidental finding of kidney cancer and caused a stage migration?
CT era
79
Describe kidney cancer staging
**- Stage I**: confined to kidney, \< 7 cm **- Stage II**: confined to kidney, \> 7 cm **- Stage III**: outside capsule but within Gerota's fascia; can go to vena cava **- Stage IV**: outside Gerota's fascia, to other organs, to LNs
80
What are some kidney cancer mimics?
**25%** of resected masses are **benign** - **Oncocytoma**: along spectrum of chromophome - **Angiomyolipoma**: characteristic macroscopic FAT on imaging - **Secondary malignancies**: lymphoma, metastasis from other primary (breast)
81
What is done to treat kidney cancer?
- Active surveillance for small renal masses (\< 4 cm) - Surgery * Nephron-sparing surgery: partial nephrectomy * Radical nephrectomy * +/- regional LN dissection * Mestastectomy in select cases - Ablative therapies: cryotherapy, radiofrequency ablation - Systemic therapy: "targeted" immunotherapy _- Molecular pathway modulators_ * **VEGF inhibitors** (anti-angiogenic): Bevacizumab (Avastin), Sunitinib (Sutent), SOrafenib, Pazopanib * **mTOR inhibitors**: GFs, Hif-1 regulation; Everolimus, Temsirolimus _- Cytokine therapy_ * Interferon, Interleukin-2 * Much more toxic, only agent with any reported 'complete response'
82
SUMMARY: kidney cancer
- The small renal mass is most common - Hereditary syndromes are rare * Think young, bilateral masses, other stigmata - Treatment * Surgery is mainstay * Role for targeted therapy