Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

LCCC Nursing > Psych Exam 1 > Flashcards

Psych Exam 1 Flashcards

0
Q

Cultural relativity

A

The “normality” of behavior is determined by the culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Incomprehensibility

A

The inability of the general population to understand the motivation behind the behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Alarm reaction stage

A

Fight or flight syndrome is initiated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Stage of resistance

A

Individual uses the physiological responses of the first stage as a defense to adapt to the stressor. If adaption occurs, third stage is prevented or delayed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Stage of exhaustion

A

Prolonged exposure to the stressor to which the body had become adjusted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The immediate response

A

The hypothalamus stimulates the sympathetic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Sustained stress response

A

Promotes susceptibility to diseases of adaptation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Anxiety & grief

A

Two major primary psychological response patterns to stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Anxiety

A

A diffuse apprehension that is vague in nature and is associated with feelings of uncertainty and helplessness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Mild anxiety

A

Seldom a problem, can provide motivation for survival, still function at optimal level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Moderate anxiety

A

Perceptual field diminishes, may still attend to needs, less alert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Severe anxiety

A

Perceptual field is so finished that concentration centers on one detail only or on many extraneous details, much difficulty completing a task

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Panic

A

The most intense state of anxiety, unable to focus on even one detail within the environment, hallucinations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Defense mechanisms

A

Used at the mild to moderate state of anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Repressed severe anxiety can cause

A

Psychoneurotic patterns of behaving like anxiety and somatoform disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Anxiety disorders

A

Symptoms are anxiety and avoidance of behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Somatoform disorders

A

Physical symptoms for which there is no demonstrable organic pathology (hypochondriac & pain disorder)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Extended periods of panic can lead to

A

Psychotic behavior such as schizophrenia, schizoaffective, and delusional disorder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Grief

A

Subjective star of emotional, physical, and social responses to the loss of a valued entity; the loss may be real or perceived

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Stages of grief

A

DABDA; Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Anticipatory grief

A

Experiencing of grief process before the actual loss occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Resolution

A

Length of the grief process is entirely individual. It can last from a few weeks to years and it is influenced by a number of factors; thought to occur when a person can look back on the relationship and accept both the pleasures and the disappointments of the association.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Prolonged response

A

Intense preoccupation with memories of the lost entity for many years after the loss has occurred. Behaviors of denial and anger are exhibited.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Delayed/inhibited response

A

The individual because fixed in the denial stage of grieving.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Distorted response

A

Fixed in the anger stage of grieving. All behaviors are exaggerated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Axis I

A

Clinical disorders and other conditions that may be a focus of clinical attention; “why are they in the ward?” Includes all disorders except personality and MR patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Axis II

A

Personality disorders and mental retardation- usually begin in childhood and are stable into adulthood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Axis III

A

General medical conditions that are relevant to understanding the management of the individual’s mental disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Axis IV

A

Psychosocial and environmental problems; “what happened in life to cause illness?” These are problems that may affect diagnosis, treatment, and prognosis of mental disorders named on axes I and II.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Axis V

A

The measurement of an individual’s psychological, social, and occupational functioning on the Global Assessment of Functioning Scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Personality

A

Influenced by temperament (inborn personality characteristics) and the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Personality disorders

A

Occur when personality traits become inflexible and maladaptive, causing either significant functional impairment or subjective distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When did Freud believe that basic character was formed?

A

Age 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Id

A

The pleasure principle, impulsive and may be irrational, present at birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Ego

A

Rational self, mediator, develops between 4-6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Superego

A

Perfection principle, develops between 3-6 years, assists ego in control of id impulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Conscious

A

Memories that remain in your awareness, smallest of the three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Preconscious

A

Suppress unpleasant or nonessential memories from consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Unconscious

A

All memories that you’re unable to bring to conscious awareness, largest of three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Psychic energy

A

Force required for mential functioning , also called libido

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Oral stage

A

Birth-18 months, relief through oral gratification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Anal stage

A

18 months-3 years, learning independence and control, with focus on excretory function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Phallic stage

A

3-6 years, Identification with parent of same fender, development of sexual identity, focus on gentian organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Latency stage

A

6-12 years, sexuality repressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Genital stage

A

13-20 years, libido reawakened, opposite gender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Trust vs mistrust

A

Birth-18 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Autonomy vs shame & doubt

A

18 months-3 years, Self control and independence within the environment, self control and self-confidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Initiative vs guilt

A

3-6 years, sense of purpose and initiate own activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Industry vs inferiority

A

6-12 years, self confidence by learning, performing successfully, and receiving recognition from peers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Identity vs role confusion

A

12-20 years, integrate tasks mastered in previous stages into secure self

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Intimacy vs isolation

A

20-30 years, form a relationship with person, cause, or institution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Generativity vs stagnation

A

30-65 years, achieve life goals and consider well being for future generations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Ego integrity vs despair

A

65 years-death, review life and either feel happy or sad about it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Legislation

A

Determines what is right or good within a society

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Ethics

A

Deals with rightness and wrongness of actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Bioethics

A

Term applied to ethics within the concept of medicine, nursing, and allied health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Absolute right

A

When there is no restriction whatsoever on the individual’s entitlement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Legal right

A

A right on which society has agreed and formalized as a law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Utilitarianism

A

Ethical theory that promotes actions based on the end results that produce the most good (happiness) for the most people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Kantianism

A

Suggests that decisions and actions are bound by a sense of duty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Christian ethics

A

Do unto others as you would have them do to you

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Natural law theories

A

Do good and avoid evil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Ethical egoism

A

Decisions are based on what is best for the individual making the decision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Beneficence

A

One’s duty to benefit or promote the good of others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Nonmaleficence

A

Abstaining from negative acts toward another; acting carefully to avoid harm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Veracity

A

Tell the truth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Statutory law

A

Made from legislative systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Common law

A

Derived from decisions made from previous cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Civil law

A

Protects the private and property of individuals and businesses- torts & contracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Tort

A

Violation of a civil law in which an individual has been wronged

Intentional- touching
Unintentional- malpractice & negligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Criminal law

A

Provides protection from conduct deemed injurious to the public welfare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

HIPPA

A

Individuals have right to med records, corrections made to records, and who had knowledge of records

72
Q

Privileged communication

A

May refuse to reveal info about and communications with clients (psych and attorneys)

73
Q

Duty to warn

A

Threat, Identification of intended victim, ability to intervene in a feasible meaningful way to protect intended victim

74
Q

Involuntary commitment

A

Emergent, mentally I’ll, involuntary outpatient commitment, gravely disabled

75
Q

Malpractice

A

Professional negligence

Existence of a duty, failure to care, Injury, close casual connection between nurse’s conduct and patient’s injury

76
Q

Defamation

A

Info is detrimental to client’s reputation

77
Q

Libel

A

Written defamation

78
Q

Slander

A

Spoken defamation

79
Q

territoriality

A

tendency to own space

80
Q

density

A

number of people within a given environment

81
Q

distance

A

the space used to communicate

82
Q

social organization

A

groups within which individuals are acculturated, acquiring knowledge and internalizing values; families, religious groups, ethnic groups

83
Q

northern European americans

A

less value is placed on marriage, future-oriented

84
Q

African americans

A

about 31% of households are run by females, some have a “granny” that practice folk medicine

85
Q

native americans

A

touch is not highly regarded, silent and reserved, uncomfortable expressing emotions, present-time oriented, medicine man is called shaman, TB, alcoholism, and nutritional deficiencies

86
Q

asians

A

soft spoken, not very touchy, past and present oriented, psychiatric illness is thought as behavior that is out of control

87
Q

latinos

A

present-oriented, use hot and cold technique

88
Q

western European americans

A

warm and affectionate, present-oriented, strong allegiance to culture

89
Q

arabs

A

conversations are very close together, speech is loud and expressive, time is present-oriented, women value modesty, no pork

90
Q

jews

A

time orientation is past, present, then future, children are highly grateful for parents

91
Q

antipsychotics

A

block dopamine (psychosis)

92
Q

atypicals

A

block specific serotonin receptor (depression)

93
Q

benzos

A

facilitate transmission of GABA (anxiety)

94
Q

case management

A

manager is assigned to negotiate with multiple providers to obtain diverse services; elderly, disabled, handicapped.

95
Q

managed care

A

strategy used by purchasers of health services who make determinations about various types of services in order to maintain quality and control costs

96
Q

case manager

A

individual responsible for negotiating with multiple health care providers to obtain a variety of services for the cleint

97
Q

critical pathways of care (CPCs)

A

tools for provision of care in a case management system, outcomes have designated length of time, used by entire interdisciplinary team, case managers responsible for CPCs carrying through, standardized (protocol for clients with problems that can have a designated outcome)

98
Q

Problem oriented recording

A

SOAPIE

99
Q

focus charting

A

DAR

100
Q

PIE method

A

APIE

101
Q

who can facilitate therapy?

A

masters degree

102
Q

who can facilitate a group?

A

RN

103
Q

deinstitutionalization

A

closing of mental hospitals and discharging of individuals with mental illness; began in 1960s

104
Q

primary prevention

A

reducing the incidence of mental disorders in the population; targeting groups at risk and providing education

105
Q

secondary prevention

A

reducing the prevalence of psychiatric illness by shortening the course; early identification

106
Q

tertiary prevention

A

reducing residual defects that are associated with severe or chronic mental illness; preventing complications of existing illness

107
Q

community as a client: primary prevention

A

identify stressful life events and target relevant populations at high risk or prevent or minimize harmful consequences

108
Q

situational crises

A

poverty, high rate of life change events, environmental conditions, trauma

109
Q

community as a client: secondary prevention

A

early detection and intervention with those individuals experiencing mental illness symptoms; populations at risk: individuals experiencing maturational or situational crises

110
Q

adolescence: secondary prevention

A

parents can no longer cope with situation, disruptive and age-inappropriate behaviors become norm

111
Q

marriage: secondary prevention

A

substance abuse

112
Q

parenthood: secondary prevention

A

sexual abuse of child, birth of child with special needs, diagnosis of terminal illness in a child, death of child

113
Q

community as a client: tertiary prevention

A

individuals with severe and persistent mental illness

114
Q

community mental health centers

A

treatment alternative- improves coping ability and prevent exacerbation of acute symptoms & case management is used frequently

115
Q

program of assertive community treatment (PACT)

A

treatment alternative- provides comprehensive, locally based treatment to people with serious and persistent mental illnesses; provides services to people who are unable on their own to receive treatment from a traditional model of case management

116
Q

day-evening treatment

A

treatment alternative- prevent institutionalization or to ease transition from inpatient to community living

117
Q

community residential facilities

A

treatment alternative- may provide food, shelter, housekeeping, counseling, medical care, etc.

118
Q

psychiatric home health care

A

treatment alternative- for the individual with serious mental illness who no longer lives in a structured, supervised setting, this service can help keep patient living independently; an acute psychiatric diagnosis is not enough to qualify for this service; client must show that he/she is unable to leave home without assistance

119
Q

homeless shelters

A

resource available for homeless- temporary accommodations

120
Q

health-care centers and storefront clinics

A

resource available for homeless- can provide meds, assess vital signs, screen for TB, immunizations, etc.

121
Q

mobile outreach units

A

resource available for homeless- reach out to homeless in their environment in an effort to provide health care. Teams will drive or walk around and seek out homeless individuals who are in need of assistance.

122
Q

pre-interaction phase

A

gather info about client and recognize one’s own feelings about client

123
Q

orientation phase

A

gather assessment data, formulate diagnosis, set goals, create trust and rapport

124
Q

working phase

A

promote client’s insight about perception of reality, continuously evaluate progress toward goal

125
Q

termination phase

A

progress has been made, a plan of action for more adaptive coping has been established

126
Q

concrete thinking

A

many patients experience this- focuses thought process on specifics and immediate issues, rather than generalities and eventual outcomes

127
Q

transference

A

client unconsciously transfers to the nurse feelings formed toward a person from his/her past

128
Q

countertransference

A

nurse’s behavioral and emotional response to client

129
Q

intimate distance

A

0 to 18 inches- closest distance

130
Q

personal distance

A

18 to 40 inches- conversations with friends or colleagues

131
Q

social distance

A

4 to 12 feet- conversations with strangers or acquaintances

132
Q

public distance

A

> 12 feet- speaking in public or yelling to someone some distance away

133
Q

SOLER

A

sit squarely facing the client, observe an open posture, lean forward toward the client, establish eye contact, relax

134
Q

feedback is useful when…

A

descriptive rather than evaluative, focused on behavior rather than client, specific and not general, directed toward behavior that the client can modify

135
Q

milieu therapy

A

therapeutic community- client is expected to learn adaptive coping, interaction, and relationship skills that can be generalized to other aspects of his or her life

136
Q

therapeutic community is based on:

A

health in each individual is realized and encouraged to grow, every interaction is an opportunity for therapeutic intervention, client owns their environment & behavior, peer pressure is a useful tool, inappropriate behavior is dealt with as it occurs, restrictions and punishment are avoided

137
Q

what makes a hospital environment therapeutic?

A

physiological needs are met, facilities are conductive to achievement of the goals of therapy, democratic form of government exists, responsibilities are assigned according to client abilities, structured program, community and family are included

138
Q

camaraderie

A

individuals receive joy and pleasure from interactions with significant others

139
Q

group therapy

A

sound theoretic base and leaders generally have advanced degrees

140
Q

therapeutic groups

A

focus is on group relations, interactions among group members

141
Q

altruism

A

individuals provide assistance and support one another, thereby helping to create a positive self-image and promote self-growth

142
Q

catharsis

A

members express both positive and negative feelings

143
Q

autocratic

A

focus is on leader, members are dependent, production is high, but morale is low

144
Q

democratic

A

focus is on members, production is somewhat lower than autocratic, but morale is higher

145
Q

laissez-faire

A

no focus, goals are undefined, productivity and morale are low

146
Q

psychodramatists

A

education is higher than master’s degree

147
Q

group psychotherapists

A

minimum master’s degree

148
Q

allopathic medicine

A

also known as science-based medicine

149
Q

acupuncture/acupressure

A

healing energy (qi) flows through the body along specific pathways called meridians, which connects a series of acupoints

150
Q

subluxations

A

displacements of vertebrae and to restore these back to normal, the vertebrae are minipulated

151
Q

massage is contraindicated

A

high BP, acute infection, osteoporosis, phlebitis, skin conditions, varicose veins, and over the site of a recent burn, bruise, or injury

152
Q

psychoanalysis

A

the major goal is for the client to gain insight and understanding about current relationships and behavior patterns by confronting the unconscious conflicts

153
Q

abreaction

A

the individual relives the painful experience

154
Q

interpersonal therapy (IPT)

A

time-limited for treatment of major depression

155
Q

reality therapy

A

all individuals are responsible for what they do & concept of responsibility is emphasized; humans are born with the needs for power, belonging, freedom, fun, and survival

156
Q

biofeedback

A

use of instrumentation to become aware of processes in the body that usually go unnoticed and to help bring them under voluntary control

157
Q

aggressiveness

A

defending one’s own rights by violating basic rights of others

158
Q

passive-aggressive

A

defending one’s own rights by expressing resistance to social and occupational demands

159
Q

cognitive therapy

A

commonly used in treatment of mood disorders & teaches ways to control though distortions that may be a factor in the development and maintenance of mood disorders

160
Q

goals of cognitive therapy

A

obtain symptom relief as quickly as possible, assist the client in identifying dysfunctional patterns of thinking, guide client to logic that tests the validity of the dysfunctional thinking

161
Q

personalizing

A

automatic thought- thinking you’re the only one something is happening to

162
Q

all or nothing

A

automatic thought- thoughts such as “I’m a COMPLETE failure” or “EVERYTHING I do is great”

163
Q

mind reading

A

automatic thought- assuming thoughts of others

164
Q

discounting positives/negatives

A

automatic thought- disregarding either the good that you did or the bad that you did

165
Q

Therapeutic interpersonal relationship

A

Nurse provides care for clients in need of psychosocial intervention

166
Q

Interpersonal communication techniques

A

Tools of psychosocial intervention

167
Q

Transactional model

A

Both participants perceive each other, listen to each other, and simultaneously engage in the process of creating meaning in a relationship

168
Q

Giving recognition

A

Acknowledging, indicating awareness- ex. I see you made your bed

169
Q

Offering general leads

A

Encourages client to continue- ex. Go on

170
Q

Encouraging description of perceptions

A

Asking client to verbalized what is being perceived- ex. What are the voices saying

171
Q

Reflecting

A

Direct questions or feelings back to client so that they may be recognized and accepted- ex. What do YOU think you should do?

172
Q

Exploring

A

Delving further into subject- ex. Please explain your situation more

173
Q

Requesting an explanation

A

Asking “why” implies the client most defend their behavior

174
Q

Indicating the existence of an external source of power

A

Encourages client I project blame for his or her thoughts on others- ex. What makes you say that?

175
Q

Belittling feelings expressed

A

Causes client to feel unimportant- ex. Everybody gets down in the dumps sometimes. I feel that way sometimes!

176
Q

Dorthea Dix

A

In 1841, started a campaign that resulted in establishment of a number of hospitals for the mentally ill

177
Q

Community Mental Health Centers Act

A

1963; attempt to improve care for mentally ill

178
Q

1980s

A

federal funding was reduced and number of community health centers was diminished due to recession

LCCC Nursing (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions