Chem/Phys Flashcards

1
Q

The SI base unit for mass is

A

the kilogram

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2
Q

How do we sum vectors?

A

Trace a path from one vector to the next and then map the path from the origin to the endpoint of the vector sum

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3
Q

What is the equation for vx?

A

vo x cos(θ)

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4
Q

What is the equation for vy?

A

vo x sin(θ)

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5
Q

What is the kinematic equation for Δy?

A

Δy = vyt + 1/2at²

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6
Q

In circular motion, the moving object is always accelerating toward ________.

A

the center of the circle

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7
Q

The slope of a _______ vs. _______ graph denotes velocity

A

displacement; time

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8
Q

An acceleration that remains steady at 0 m/s is a _______ acceleration

A

constant

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9
Q

A free fall situation refers to what?

A

situations where an object has no initial vertical velocity and experiences constant acceleration due to gravity

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10
Q

What is the simplified free fall equation?

A

t=√(2y/g)

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11
Q

What is a radical?

A

a species with one or more unpaired electrons

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12
Q

How do you determine entropy change in a reaction given the moles of reactants and products?

A

Count up the number of moles on both the reactants and products side

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13
Q

For a zero order reaction, the rate law is the _____ ______ and a plot of the reactant concentration over time is a straight line with ___ as the slope

A

rate constant; -k

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14
Q

How can we determine the order of a reaction given the rate law?

A

by adding up the exponents for the reactants included in the rate law

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15
Q

What are the units for a third order reaction?

A

M⁻²⁻s¹

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16
Q

Catalysts [stabilize or destabilize] the transition state.

A

stabilize

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17
Q

A [homogenous or heteogenous] catalyst is one that is in a different phase than the gaseous and liquid reactants

A

heteogenous

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18
Q

What is the overall order of a chemical reaction if it involves a single reactant (R) and if a plot of  1/([R]) vs. time is linear?

A

second order

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19
Q

What is the overall order of a chemical reaction if it involves a single reactant (R) and if a plot of  [R] vs. time is linear?

A

zero order

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20
Q

What is the overall order of a chemical reaction if it involves a single reactant (R) and if a plot of  (ln R) vs. time is linear?

A

first order

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21
Q

Only ________ are included in rate laws

A

reactants

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22
Q

What is the first step to determine the order of a specific reactant given the rate of the reaction and the concentrations of each reactant?

A

look for any cases where the concentrations of two reactants stayed constant while the third changed

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23
Q

What is the equation for the velocity of a sound wave in a certain material?

A

v=√B/p

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24
Q

If a given material has the smallest bulk modulus of the materials listed, then sound will travel more _______ through the material than others

A

slowly

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25
Q

What is an anomer?

A

a specific type of epimer that differs only at the anomeric carbon

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26
Q

The _______ carbon is derived from the carbonyl carbon in the sugar’s straight-chain aldehyde or ketone form and is bound to __ oxygen atoms

A

anomeric; 2

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27
Q

What is the equation for torque?

A

𝛕=rFsinθ

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28
Q

What are the two forces acting on a beam in the horizontal direction?

A

the x component of the tension and the reaction force from the hinge

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29
Q

What is torque?

A

a twisting force (F) applied at some distance from the center of rotation

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30
Q

What are triceps, what force do they provide, and what is their function?

A

muscles on the back of the humerus, opposing the biceps, providing a force that extends the arm, and increases the angle of the arm when the biceps relax

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31
Q

What tissues in the body generate force?

A

muscles

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32
Q

What is the formula for Fstatic?

A

(μs)(N)

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33
Q

static frictional force acts [statement]

A

to oppose motion and never actually makes an object start moving in the opposite direction

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34
Q

terminal velocity is only relevant in cases where ___ _________ is present

A

air resistance

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35
Q

when no non-conservative forces are present, a projectile not in contact with any other objects will experience only the ________ ________ _________

A

downward gravitational force

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36
Q

When does rotational equilibrium occur?

A

the sum of the downward (counterclockwise) torques must equal the sum of the upward (clockwise) torques

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37
Q

What does Faraday’s constant state?

A

9.65 x 10⁴ coulombs are present per mole of electrons

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38
Q

Lewis bases are species that ______ an electron pair

A

donate

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39
Q

CN⁻ is an example of a _____ ____

A

Lewis base

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40
Q

RHR-1 involves what?

A

pointing your right thumb in the direction of the moving current & curl your fingers around the wire

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41
Q

How can we determine the theoretical yield?

A

multiply the # of moles of product formed by the molar mass

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42
Q

At physiological pH, the carboxyl group of glycine is _________, & ___ charge is delocalized by resonance btw the 2 O atoms

A

deprotonated; negative

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43
Q

[More or Less] energy is needed to evaporate water to vapor than to melt ice to water because no _______ bonds exist in water vapor

A

More; hydrogen

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44
Q

Hydrolysis is a rxn that releases a _____ ____ from a _________

A

fatty acid; triglyceride

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45
Q

Bacteria often have _______ that catalyze hydrolysis of ester linkage btw fatty acid & triglyceride

A

lipases

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46
Q

True or False - the Doppler effect can be observed with light as well as sound waves

A

True

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47
Q

Sound waves are _________ waves

A

longitudinal

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48
Q

For a Doppler shift to occur, the sound source & the object must be ______ relative to each other

A

moving

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49
Q

Fractional distillation depends on the _______ _____ of each substance

A

boiling point

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50
Q

Enantiomers can be separated by introducing _____ _______

A

chiral compounds

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51
Q

Affinity chromatography is based on varying affinities for ________ _____

A

stationary phase

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52
Q

Migration in size-exclusion chromatography is based on ____ & ________ ____

A

size; molecular mass

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53
Q

In size-exclusion chromatography, _______ molecules migrate more quickly than _______ ones

A

larger; smaller

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54
Q

In gel electrophoresis, _______ molecules migrate more quickly than _______ ones

A

smaller; larger

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55
Q

The equation for electrical field is

A

E=V/d

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56
Q

Mutations to critical residues are much more likely to produce a [loss of function or gain of function]

A

loss of function

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57
Q

Enantiomers are virtually identical in all of their physical and chemical properties except for two properties which are:

A

they rotate plane-polarized light in opposite directions (but with equal magnitude) and they react differently with certain other chiral molecules

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58
Q

_____ _______ is used to separate mixtures of enantiomers based on how they react with certain other chiral molecules

A

Chiral resolution

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59
Q

What are FLP?

A

Mixtures or compounds that contain Lewis acids

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60
Q

What are Brønsted-Lowry bases?

A

species that accept protons (ex. NH₃)

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61
Q

What are Brønsted-Lowry acids?

A

species that donate protons

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62
Q

What is a Lewis acid?

A

a compound that accepts electrons

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63
Q

Asparagine & glutamine are both ______ ______ _____ _____

A

polar uncharged amino acids

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64
Q

What is the 3 letter code for Asparagine?

A

Asn

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65
Q

What is the 3 letter code for Glutamine?

A

Gln

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66
Q

An increase in [H⁺] is a _______ in pH

A

decrease

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67
Q

Aspartic acid is an ______ amino acid & its side chain has a ____ group

A

acidic; COOH

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68
Q

Side chain of asparagine includes an ______ functionality

A

amide

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69
Q

D is the abbreviation for ________ ____

A

aspartic acid

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70
Q

What does pKa represent?

A

pH at which half of molecules of a particular species will be protonated & the other half will be deprotonated

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71
Q

What does the Venturi effect state?

A

a fluid’s velocity must increase as it passes through a constriction

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72
Q

According to Bernoulli principle, then, the _________ _________ must _________ to conserve energy

A

hydrostatic pressure; decrease

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73
Q

What is the equation for the decibel level of sound?

A

dB = 10log(I/I₀)

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74
Q

What is the function of fructokinase?

A

catalyzes phosphorylation of fructose into fructose-1-phosphate

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75
Q

What is starch?

A

a series of glucose rings linked by glycosidic bonds

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76
Q

In starch, only the ______ ______ carbon is available to be oxidized

A

terminal anomeric

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77
Q

Formation of a acetal disaccharide requires ____ of a molecule of water

A

loss

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78
Q

What are the units for viscosity?

A

Pa·s

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79
Q

What are the units of Pascal?

A

N/m²

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80
Q

What are the units for Newton?

A

kg·m/s²

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81
Q

x-axis is called the ________

A

abscissa

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82
Q

y-axis is called the ________

A

ordinate

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83
Q

The average kinetic energy of a sample of gas depends only on the _______ of the sample

A

temperature

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84
Q

According to kinetic molecular theory, the formula for KE of gas sample is what?

A

KE=(3/2)KᵦT

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85
Q

What is buoyancy?

A

the force that results from the displacement of fluid when an object is submerged

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86
Q

What is the relationship between buoyant force & density?

A

the ↑ the density, the ↑ the buoyant force

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87
Q

True or False: Mass differences will factor into determining the final velocities

A

False

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88
Q

kg·m/s² are units of what quantity?

A

force

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89
Q

1 liter-atmosphere is equal to _____ joules

A

101.33

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90
Q

True or False: Units of meters (m) is a base SI unit

A

True

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91
Q

True or False: Units of kilometers (km) is a base SI unit

A

False

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92
Q

In a spring, PE is ___ when fully extended or compressed

A

max

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93
Q

Once the mass is released from one end, ________ ______ is converted to ________ ______ until the mass passes through its equilibrium position (the point where potential energy of the mass/spring system rests at zero).

A

potential energy; kinetic energy

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94
Q

As the mass passes through its equilibrium position, its ________ ______ is converted back to ________ ______ as the spring compresses

A

kinetic energy; potential energy

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95
Q

What is the formula for work done on or by a gas?

A

W=PΔV

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96
Q

What is an isochoric system?

A

a system where volume is held constant in which no work is done

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97
Q

Work [on or by] the surroundings causes the gas to transfer some of its own energy to the surroundings

A

on

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98
Q

When the gas is performing work [on or by] its surroundings, it is transferring some of its own energy to those surroundings. Because the gas has lost some amount of internal energy when performing work, its temperature must have ________.

A

on; decreased

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99
Q

Sound waves are _______ waves whereas waves associated with electromagnetic radiation are ________ waves

A

longitudinal; transverse

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100
Q

Speed of sound through a medium is primarily determined by the ____ _______ of that material

A

bulk modulus

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101
Q

When stiffer materials have a higher bulk modulus, so sound moves more [slowly or quickly] through stiffer materials

A

quickly

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102
Q

What is the formula for v?

A

v=𝜆f

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103
Q

MHz is equal to how many ____ s⁻¹?

A

1 x 10⁶

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104
Q

In longitudinal waves like ultrasound, ________ particles are moving ____ ___ _____ as the wave traverses a region

A

physical; back-and-fourth

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105
Q

Waves with higher _________ are capable of causing greater ____________

A

amplitudes; displacement

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106
Q

What is the formula for velocity traveling on a pendulum?

A

v=√2gh

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107
Q

What is the formula for the period of a pendulum?

A

T=2π√(L/g)

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108
Q

Yes or No: Does the frequency of a sound wave change when it enters a new medium?

A

No, the frequency of a sound wave does not change when it enters a new medium

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109
Q

Sound generally travels [slower or faster] in solids than in air

A

faster

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110
Q

Wavelength must [increase or decrease] in response to the velocity [increasing or decreasing] when a sound wave moves into a new medium

A

increase; increasing

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111
Q

What is the decibel scale?

A

a logarithmic scale in which each 10 decibel interval represents one order of magnitude

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112
Q

40 dB difference represents a ___ difference in intensity

A

10⁴

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113
Q

A ______-____-______ frequency will be observed if the source of the sound and the observer are moving closer together overall

A

higher-than-actual

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114
Q

What is formula for the Doppler equation?

A
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115
Q

What is the formula for the electric field?

A

E=F/q

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116
Q

What is the formula for frequency?

A

f=c/𝜆

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117
Q

What corresponds to destructive interference?

A

half a wave difference in phase between two waves

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118
Q

The period has a [direct or indirect] relationship with wavelength

A

direct

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119
Q

What is the formula for period given the frequency?

A

T=1/f

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120
Q

What is the equation for determining the energy of a photon?

A

E=hf

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121
Q

What is the value of Planck’s constant?

A

6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ J·s

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122
Q

How do you determine the enthalpy for the complete combustion of one mole of a molecule?

A

By taking the bond energies of each individual bond in the reactants minus the bond energies of each individual bond in the product

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123
Q

How do you determine the enthalpy for the complete combustion of one mole of a molecule?

A

By taking the bond energies of each individual bond in the reactants minus the bond energies of each individual bond in the product

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124
Q

Bond lengths are generally [directly or inversely] related to bond energies and bond order

A

inversely

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125
Q

The higher the bond order, the [stronger or weaker] the bond & the [higher or lower] the vibrational frequency in IR spectrum

A

stronger; higher

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126
Q

What does the zeroth law of thermodynamics state?

A

heat energy can only spontaneously move from a high energy area (hot) to a low energy (cold)

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127
Q

What happens when we put work into a system?

A

thermal energy moves in the opposite direction

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128
Q

0 K is how many degrees Celsius?

A

-273℃

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129
Q

What does the third law of thermodynamics state?

A

the entropy of a pure, crystalline substance at 0 K is known as absolute zero

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130
Q

Le Chatalier’s principle states that lowering the temperature causes an exothermic reaction to shift [left or right] to release heat causing ΔS to be [positive or negative]

A

right; negative

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131
Q

How can we obtain the equilibrium constant?

A

by multiplying the associated equilibrium constant for the overall reaction and the inverse of Ksp

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132
Q

The vaporization of water is an [endothermic or exothermic] process

A

endothermic

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133
Q

How do we calculate for the heat of formation of water in the liquid and gas phases?

A

by subtracting the enthalpy for liquid water by the enthalpy for gaseous water

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134
Q

When carbonate is placed in acidic conditions, it will be converted to _______ ____, which can be broken down into ______ _______ & _____

A

carbonic acid; carbon dioxide; water

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135
Q

True or False: The change in voltage between two points does not change based on which path the current takes

A

True

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136
Q

Current flows from areas of ____ voltage to areas of ___ voltage

A

high; low

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137
Q

Le Châtelier’s principle states that a decrease in the concentration of a _______ will lead to a decrease in the concentration of reactants

A

product

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138
Q

Le Châtelier’s principle does not apply to what two phases of matter?

A

solids and liquids

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139
Q

True or False: London dispersion forces & Van der Waals’ forces refer to the same force

A

True

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140
Q

What are London dispersion forces (Van der Waals’ forces)?

A

forces that are caused by the interaction of dipoles which are briefly created due to the random motion of electrons

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141
Q

True or False: All molecules experience London dispersion forces & Van der Waals’ forces

A

True

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142
Q

What does the RHR state?

A

thumb points in the direction of the current & other fingers curl in the direction of magnetic field, palm will point in the direction of the force on the wire

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143
Q

Only the direction of the _______& _______ _____ are necessary to use RHR for Lorentz force

A

current; magnetic field

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144
Q

What types of neurons are required for measurement of the Lorentz force?

A

straight neurons

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145
Q

Electric field lines point [toward or away from] a positive ion

A

away from

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146
Q

Any form of matter has a [higher or lower] permittivity than the permittivity of free space & so any permittivity must be [positive or negative]

A

higher; positive

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147
Q

The electric field is oscillating and so must be produced by [a direct or an alternating] current

A

an alternating

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148
Q

1 MHz is how many Hz?

A

10⁶ Hz

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149
Q

What is the name of the following structure?

A

thioester

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150
Q

To qualify as an aromatic, a compound must be ______, _____, ________, and obey _____ ____

A

cyclic; planar; conjugated; Huckel’s rule

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151
Q

What is Huckel’s rule?

A

the molecule must have a total of 4n + 2π electrons

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152
Q

This picture is the structure of what molecule?

A

pyrrole

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153
Q

pyrrole is ______, _____, ________, and has _ p orbital electrons (including the lone pair on nitrogen)

A

cyclic; planar; conjugated; 6

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154
Q

D-galactose is a __ ______ of D-glucose

A

C4 epimer

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155
Q

While D-glucose has the C-H bond in the _____ position ______ the β surface, D-galactose has the C-H bond in the ________ position ______ the β surface

A

axial; facing; equatorial; away from

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156
Q

How is stereochemistry determined?

A

by placing the least ordered substituent facing the back, and then checking if the first three ordered substituents go clockwise (R) or counter-clockwise (S)

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157
Q

What is the Bohr effect?

A

describes how a drop in pH will result in higher levels of carbon dioxide

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158
Q

What are salt bridges?

A

electrostatic interactions between a negatively charged O atom & a positively charged H atom

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159
Q

True or False: Van der Waals forces are an example of electrostatic interactions involved in the secondary, tertiary, and quarternary structure of hemoglobin

A

True

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160
Q

True or False: Peptide bonds are considered a form of electrostatic interaction

A

False

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161
Q

When temperature is increased, [more or less] heat is added to the system, which shifts equilibrium away from ________ & towards ________

A

more; reactants; products

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162
Q

True or False: Pure solids are included in equilibrium constants

A

False, pure solids are not included in equilibrium constants

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163
Q

What is the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation?

A

pH = pKa + log([A-]/[HA])

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164
Q

Heat can be considered as a [reactant or product] for endothermic reactions

A

reactant

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165
Q

In an exergonic reaction, the reaction [releases or absorbs] energy as it proceeds, so ΔG is [positive or negative] and [spontaneous or nonspontaneous]

A

releases; negative; spontaneous

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166
Q

What is the function of the heater in ITC?

A

works to maintain the sample temperature between the sample cell & reference cell as the reaction occurs

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167
Q

What is the pH range for the indicator bromothymol blue?

A

6 to 7

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168
Q

What is the pH range for the indicator naphtholphthalein?

A

8

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169
Q

What is the equivalence point?

A

when the moles of acid or base added is equivalent to the moles of acid or base originally present in the solution

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170
Q

At what point does the pKa occur?

A

the half-equivalence point

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171
Q

What does the half-equivalence point represent?

A

the point at which pH=pKa and [A-]=[HA]

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172
Q

What is the equation for heat transfer with heat capacity?

A

Q=mcpΔT

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173
Q

What specific information does the heat equation provide?

A

the total amount of heat that needs to be transferred to raise the temperature a certain number of degrees Celsius back to the original temperature

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174
Q

What can the rate of heat transfer be used for?

A

to calculate the total amount of time required to transfer the total amount of heat energy

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175
Q

What equation can be used to determine the pKa given the Ka?

A

pKa=-log(Ka)

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176
Q

What is considered an accurate pH indicator?

A

has a pH range of color change that includes the equivalence point of the titration, ±1

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177
Q

What is considered an accurate pH indicator?

A

has a pH range of color change that includes the equivalence point of the titration, ±1

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178
Q

What is the equivalence point of a strong acid/weak base titration?

A

less than pH 7

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179
Q

What is the equivalence point of a strong acid/strong base titration?

A

exactly 7

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180
Q

What is the equivalence point of a strong base/weak acid titration?

A

greater than 7

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181
Q

What kinematic equation can be used to determine the time given the height and the mass?

A

Δy=v₀t+1/2at²

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182
Q

What is the formula for finding the force of kinetic friction?

A

Fr = μkFₙ

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183
Q

What is the power given the current and voltage?

A

P=IV

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184
Q

What is the standard work equation?

A

work=Fdcosθ

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185
Q

What are 3 ways to increase the power of a circuit?

A

decrease the resistance, increase the current, and decrease the temperature

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186
Q

1 roentgen = ? C/kg?

A

2.58 x 10⁻⁴ C/kg

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187
Q

What is the energy in the photochemical reaction ΔHᵤ?

A

the difference between the laser pulse energy Eₘ and the heat detected ΔHₙᵣ

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188
Q

What is the thin-lens equation?

A
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189
Q

How do we calculate for the kinetic energy of a photoelectron?

A

hf - 3.4 eV

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190
Q

What is the formula for weight?

A

W=mg

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191
Q

What is the formula for buoyant force?

A

W=rVg

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192
Q

The pressure in a liquid due to the gravitational force of the liquid above a given depth is ___________ to the density and the depth

A

proportional

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193
Q

What is the equation for Snell’s law?

A

n₁sinθ₁=n₂sinθ₂

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194
Q

What is the latent heat of fusion?

A

the amount of energy needed to convert a substance from its solid to liquid state

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195
Q

What is the formula used to calculate the electric field given the resistance, voltage, current, and distance separating two electrodes?

A

E = (V - IR)/L

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196
Q

What is the difference between an exothermic reaction and an exergonic reaction?

A

an exothermic reaction involves the loss of energy as heat whereas an exergonic reaction involves the products having a lower potential energy than the reactants

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197
Q

1 nm is how many meters?

A

1 x 10⁻⁹ m

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198
Q

In uniform circular motion, the kinetic energy [does or does not] change but the direction of the motion (sign of the velocity) [does or does not] change

A

does not; does

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199
Q

What is a furan?

A

a heterocyclic, five-membered aromatic ring with four carbon atoms and one oxygen

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200
Q

The color appearance of the object is in what?

A

the light that strikes the object and reflects back to our eye

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201
Q

How are covalent bonds formed?

A

when the two atoms involved share electrons equally

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202
Q

How are polar covalent bonds formed?

A

when electrons are shared in an unequal fashion

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203
Q

How are polar covalent bonds formed?

A

when electrons are shared in an unequal fashion

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204
Q

Acetic acid an -__ group, allowing it to form hydrogen bonds with similar particles

A

OH

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205
Q

Acetic acid an -__ group, allowing it to form hydrogen bonds with similar particles

A

OH

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206
Q

When does a bent geometry appear?

A

when a central atom is bound to two substituents while also containing two lone pairs

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207
Q

How would we calculate the mass of a molecule present in a metal complex?

A

By multiplying the number of moles of a molecule by the molar mass of that molecule

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208
Q

Keq is not affected by ________ changes

A

pressure

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209
Q

How is the formal charge calculated?

A

By subtracting the total number of valence electrons by the sum of the number of nonbonding electrons and bonding electrons

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210
Q

What is molarity?

A

Moles of solute per liter of total solution

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211
Q

What is mole fraction?

A

a measure of the moles of a relevant compound compared to the total number of moles present

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212
Q

Changing volume will [change or not change] the number of moles of any individual gas

A

not change

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213
Q

What is electron affinity?

A

an element’s desire to gain an electron

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214
Q

_____ _____ have no desire to gain or lose electrons

A

noble gases

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215
Q

Reactions occurring in galvanic cells are always [spontaneous or nonspontaneous]

A

spontaneous

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216
Q

Spontaneous refers to [positive or negative] Ecell values

A

positive

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217
Q

Positive cell potentials correlate to [positive or negative] ΔG values

A

negative

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218
Q

Positive cell potentials correlate to [positive or negative] ΔG values

A

negative

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219
Q

Spontaneous reactions that have negative ΔG values have K values that are [greater than, equal to, or less than] one

A

greater than

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220
Q

When writing an equilibrium constant expression, remember to disregard ____ ______ and ______

A

pure liquids; solids

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221
Q

A reduction in volume will [increase or decrease] the pressure of the system

A

increase

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222
Q

A reduction in volume will [increase or decrease] the pressure of the system

A

increase

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223
Q

When a reduction in volume increases the pressure of the system, the equilibrium will shift to the side that contains [more or fewer] moles of gas in an attempt to reestablish a stable state

A

fewer

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224
Q

Bromine needs to [gain or lose] one electron to establish a complete octet resulting in an [endothermic or exothermic process]

A

gain; exothermic

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225
Q

Bromine needs to [gain or lose] one electron to establish a complete octet resulting in an [endothermic or exothermic process]

A

gain; exothermic

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226
Q

Potassium prefers to [gain or lose] an electron to have a full octet resulting in an [endothermic or exothermic process]

A

lose; endothermic

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227
Q

What happens at equilibrium?

A

the forward and reverse reactions are occurring at the same rate

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228
Q

What happens at equilibrium?

A

the forward and reverse reactions are occurring at the same rate

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229
Q

What element is an exception to the rule that electron affinity increases as you move upwards and to the right on the periodic table?

A

nitrogen

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230
Q

Carbon has an electron configuration of [He]2s²2p², so the addition of another electron would give carbon a ____-______ orbital and is thus highly [favorable or unfavorable]

A

half-filled; favorable

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231
Q

Carbon has an electron configuration of [He]2s²2p², so the addition of another electron would give carbon a ____-______ orbital and is thus highly [favorable or unfavorable]

A

half-filled; favorable

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232
Q

Nitrogen has an electron configuration of [He]2s²2p², so addition of another electron would alter nitrogen’s half-filled valence state and produce a ______-____ orbital

A

partially-filled

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233
Q

True or False: pH can have a value that is either below 0 or above 14

A

True, pH can have a value that is either below 0 or above 14

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234
Q

True or False: pH can have a value that is either below 0 or above 14

A

True, pH can have a value that is either below 0 or above 14

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235
Q

True or False: pH can have a value that is either below 0 or above 14

A

True, pH can have a value that is either below 0 or above 14

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236
Q

What is one example of a solution that has a pH below 0 or above 14?

A

10 M HCl which has a pH of -1

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237
Q

What is one example of a solution that has a pH below 0 or above 14?

A

10 M HCl which has a pH of -1

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238
Q

HF is a [strong or weak] acid, so HF has a fairly [weak or strong] conjugate base

A

weak; strong

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239
Q

HF is a [strong or weak] acid, so HF has a fairly [weak or strong] conjugate base

A

weak; strong

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240
Q

After neutralization of HF and NaOH, the three species that will remain in solution are __, __, & ___

A

F⁻, Na⁺, and H₂O

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241
Q

The better reducing agent is always the species that is…

A

more likely to oxidize

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242
Q

The better reducing agent is always the species that is…

A

more likely to oxidize

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243
Q

What happens when zinc is oxidized?

A

zinc loses two electrons to become Zn²⁺

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244
Q

What happens when zinc is oxidized?

A

zinc loses two electrons to become Zn²⁺

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245
Q

What is molality?

A

moles of solute divided by kilograms of solvent

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246
Q

One electron from a bond and six electrons from the lone pairs forms how many electrons? What is the name of this group of elements?

A

7 electrons; halogens

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247
Q

One electron from a bond and six electrons from the lone pairs forms how many electrons? What is the name of this group of elements?

A

7 electrons; halogens

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248
Q

True or False: Molar solubility is distinct from Ksp

A

True

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249
Q

What is molar solubility?

A

the number of moles of a particular solid that dissociate in one liter of solution

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250
Q

What is molar solubility?

A

the number of moles of a particular solid that dissociate in one liter of solution

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251
Q

What is molar solubility?

A

the number of moles of a particular solid that dissociate in one liter of solution

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252
Q

Protium is the most common, well-known form of ________

A

hydrogen

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253
Q

Protium is the most common, well-known form of ________

A

hydrogen

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254
Q

Deuterium and tritium are _______ isotopes, containing _ proton and _ neutrons and _ proton and _ neutrons, respectively

A

hydrogen; 1; 2; 1; 3

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255
Q

What kind of cell uses an external power source to move electrons in a way that would be naturally nonspontaneous?

A

electrolytic cell

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256
Q

What kind of cell discharges and releases energy in a spontaneous process?

A

galvanic cell

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257
Q

What happens when two polarizing lights are oriented at a 90° angle?

A

no light will be able to pass through

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258
Q

What happens when two polarizing lights are oriented at a 90° angle?

A

no light will be able to pass through

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259
Q

What is the formula for horizontal velocity?

A

vₓ=vᵢcosθ

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260
Q

What is the formula for horizontal velocity?

A

vₓ=vᵢcosθ

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261
Q

What is the formula for the period of a pendulum?

A

T=2π√(L/g)

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262
Q

What is the formula for the period of a pendulum?

A

T=2π√(L/g)

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263
Q

What is the formula for the period of a pendulum?

A

T=2π√(L/g)

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264
Q

All mirrors or lenses with positive focal lengths represent [converging or diverging] systems

A

converging

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265
Q

All mirrors or lenses with positive focal lengths represent [converging or diverging] systems

A

converging

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266
Q

All converging mirrors are [concave or convex]

A

concave

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267
Q

All converging mirrors are [concave or convex]

A

concave

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268
Q

All converging lenses are [concave or convex]

A

convex

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269
Q

All converging lenses are [concave or convex]

A

convex

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270
Q

Convex mirrors represent [converging or diverging] systems

A

diverging

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271
Q

What is absolute pressure?

A

the sum of the relevant gauge and atmospheric pressures

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272
Q

What is absolute pressure?

A

the sum of the relevant gauge and atmospheric pressures

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273
Q

What is absolute pressure?

A

the sum of the relevant gauge and atmospheric pressures

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274
Q

In a vaccum, no atmospheric pressure is present, making Pabsolute [less than, equal to, or greater than] Pgauge

A

equal to

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275
Q

In a vaccum, no atmospheric pressure is present, making Pabsolute [less than, equal to, or greater than] Pgauge

A

equal to

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276
Q

10⁹ Watts is how many megawatts (MW)?

A

10³ MW

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277
Q

10⁹ Watts is how many megawatts (MW)?

A

10³ MW

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278
Q

Electric field lines point in the direction that a [positive or negative] particle will be pushed

A

positive

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279
Q

What is the formula for the radius of a wire?

A

R=⍴L/A

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280
Q

When the angle between the displacement and force vectors is zero, no ______ is applied to the system

A

torque

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281
Q

When the angle between the displacement and force vectors is zero, no ______ is applied to the system

A

torque

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282
Q

Magnetic fields always exert a force on a moving particle that is [parallel or perpendicular] to both the particle’s velocity and the field itself

A

perpendicular

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283
Q

Magnetic fields always exert a force on a moving particle that is [parallel or perpendicular] to both the particle’s velocity and the field itself

A

perpendicular

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284
Q

Magnetic fields always exert a force on a moving particle that is [parallel or perpendicular] to both the particle’s velocity and the field itself

A

perpendicular

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285
Q

When light travels from air into glass, it will bend [toward or away from] the normal at an angle determined by the index of refraction

A

toward

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286
Q

Which color of light has the longest wavelength of all visible light and encounters the smallest index of refraction as it passes through glass?

A

red light

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287
Q

Which color of light has the longest wavelength of all visible light and encounters the smallest index of refraction as it passes through glass?

A

red light

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288
Q

Which color of light has the longest wavelength of all visible light and encounters the smallest index of refraction as it passes through glass?

A

red light

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289
Q

What are the two main criteria that must be met for internal reflection to occur?

A

light must be traveling from a medium with a high index of refraction to one with a lower index, preferably with a large difference between the two and that the angle of incidence must be relatively large

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290
Q

What are the two main criteria that must be met for internal reflection to occur?

A

light must be traveling from a medium with a high index of refraction to one with a lower index, preferably with a large difference between the two and that the angle of incidence must be relatively large

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291
Q

The [wavelength or frequency] of light does not change when that light transitions between media

A

frequency

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292
Q

When light rays move from a material with a low index of refraction to one with a higher index of refraction, the wavelength [increases, remains constant, or decreases]

A

decreases

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293
Q

A _______ _______ image is always formed on the other side of the mirror when looking at a divergent (convex) mirror, regardless of the object’s distance from the mirror’s focal length

A

virtual upright

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294
Q

A _______ _______ image is always formed on the other side of the mirror when looking at a divergent (convex) mirror, regardless of the object’s distance from the mirror’s focal length

A

virtual upright

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295
Q

What is the formula for centripetal force?

A

Fcentripetal = macentripetal = mv²/R

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296
Q

What is the formula for centripetal force?

A

Fcentripetal = macentripetal = mv²/R

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297
Q

What kind of alcohol produces the most stable carbocation (tertiary) and consequently will most easily lose a water molecule upon protonation of the hydroxyl group in acidic media?

A

tert-butyl alcohol

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298
Q

What is the formula for Ohm’s Law?

A

V = IR

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299
Q

An input of energy can be caused by an _______ in pressure

A

increase

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300
Q

An input of energy can be caused by an _______ in pressure

A

increase

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301
Q

What is the formula to calculate the % error?

A

( I accepted value - experimental valueI/accepted value) x 100%

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302
Q

What is the formula to calculate the % error?

A

( I accepted value - experimental valueI/accepted value) x 100%

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303
Q

What is the formula to calculate the % error?

A

( I accepted value - experimental valueI/accepted value) x 100%

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304
Q

A higher _______ _____ leads to a higher boiling point

A

molecular weight

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305
Q

Acetone cannot form what kinds of bonds?

A

hydrogen bonds

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306
Q

Acetone cannot form what types of bonds?

A

hydrogen bonds

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307
Q

How many molecules of O₂ will be required for every 2 molecules of Ca?

A

1 molecule of O₂

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308
Q

How many molecules of O₂ will be required for every 2 molecules of Ca?

A

1 molecule of O₂

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309
Q

A weaker conjugate base is one that has a [larger or smaller] pKb

A

larger

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310
Q

A weaker conjugate base is one that has a [larger or smaller] pKb

A

larger

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311
Q

Ka corresponds to the ____ and the Kb corresponds to the _________ ____

A

acid; conjugate base

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312
Q

Boyle’s law states that pressure and volume are [directly or inversely] proportional

A

inversely

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313
Q

Boyle’s law states that pressure and volume are [directly or inversely] proportional

A

inversely

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314
Q

True or False: the substance will precipitate when the ion product is smaller than the Kₛₚ

A

False, the substance will NOT precipitate when the ion product is smaller than the Kₛₚ

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315
Q

ΔG has an _____ magnitude and ________ sign for the forward & reverse reactions

A

equal; opposite

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316
Q

The half-reaction that has a more positive reduction potential is where [reduction or oxidation] occurs

A

reduction

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317
Q

The half-reaction that has a more positive reduction potential is where [reduction or oxidation] occurs

A

reduction

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318
Q

As an equilibrium constant, Kₛₚ only responds to changes in _________

A

temperature

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319
Q

As an equilibrium constant, Kₛₚ only responds to changes in _________

A

temperature

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320
Q

A compound will boil when its vapor pressure is [greater than, equal to, or less than] ambient pressure to which it is exposed

A

equal to

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321
Q

Adding a vaccum to distillation apparatus dramatically [increases or decreases] ambient pressure, making compounds that typically have a higher boiling point more prone to vaporization

A

decreases

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322
Q

What type of linkage joins the two subunits of maltose?

A

α-1,4 linkage

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323
Q

Nonpolar solvents are best used for what?

A

monosubstitution

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324
Q

Polar solvents are best used for what?

A

polysubstitution

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325
Q

The glucose monomer in lactose has what kind of linkage?

A

ꞵ-1,4 linkage

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326
Q

Esters can be hydrolyzed by _____ to form carboxylic acids and alcohols

A

water

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327
Q

When hydrolyzing esters, the water acts as a __________ and attacks the _________ carbonyl carbon, breaking the bond between that carbon and the non-carbonyl oxygen

A

nucleophile; electrophilic

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328
Q

Compared to C=C bonds, C=O bonds are [lengthened or shortened] slightly due to the electronegativity of the O atom

A

shortened

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329
Q

_____ is a reducing agent & that it could turn an aldehyde into an alcohol.

A

NaBH₄

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330
Q

What kind of reaction can establish a new carbon-carbon bond?

A

Grignard reaction

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331
Q

DMSO is a _____, ______ solvent

A

polar, aprotic

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332
Q

In a polar, aprotic solvent, nucleophilicity [increases or decreases] as one moves down the periodic table

A

decreases

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333
Q

The ꞵ anomer of glucose is slightly [more or less] stable than the α anomer

A

more

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334
Q

_____ is the site of potential autocatalytic cleavage

A

ester

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335
Q

Glycogen [does or does not] have any free reducing ends

A

does not

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336
Q

A positive Tollens’ test is indicated by what?

A

the formation of a silver mirror, or shiny Ag precipitate

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337
Q

Formation of a silver mirror requires the presence of a ________ _____

A

reducing sugar

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338
Q

What are furanoses?

A

five-membered rings that consist of four carbon and one oxygen atom

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339
Q

What are pyranoses?

A

six-membered rings made of five carbons and one oxygen

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340
Q

Quinone compounds are ________

A

aromatic

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341
Q

Quinone is a highly [oxidized or reduced] compound

A

oxidized

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342
Q

Chromium trioxide is used in _________ reactions

A

oxidation

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343
Q

Esters are notably [reactive or unreactive]

A

unreactive

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344
Q

A double bond counts only as a _____ _________

A

single substituent

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345
Q

In IUPAC naming conventions, all functional groups besides the highest-priority group are listed in ____________ order with the numbered carbon to which they are attached

A

alphabetical

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346
Q

How can pH be determined given the concentration of H⁺?

A

pH=-log[H⁺]

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347
Q

What is a stereogenic carbon?

A

a carbon center attached to four different substituents

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348
Q

Electrons travel from _____ to ________ whereas current moves from ________ to _____

A

anode; cathode; cathode; anode

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349
Q

When calculating mole fraction, the denominator must include what?

A

all of the species present

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350
Q

How can we form an ideal buffer?

A

by obtaining equimolar amounts of a weak acid and its conjugate base

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351
Q

Ne is a [polar or nonpolar] molecule

A

nonpolar

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352
Q

The d subshell begins at what period?

A

period 4

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353
Q

The higher the pKa value, the [stronger or weaker] the acid

A

weaker

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354
Q

The stronger the conjugate base, the [smaller or larger] its Kb value

A

larger

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355
Q

The “ate” suffix is commonly used for what?

A

anions

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356
Q

What is the chemical formula for perchlorate?

A

ClO₄⁻

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357
Q

The anode of an electrolytic cell is [positive or negative]

A

positive

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358
Q

Positive to negative electron flow represents a [spontaneous or nonspontaneous] process

A

nonspontaneous

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359
Q

To get to the half-equivalence point, we need what?

A

exactly half of the volume required to neutralize the first proton

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360
Q

What formula can be used to calculate the volume of a molecule given the concentrations of both molecules & the volume of one molecule?

A

M₁V₁=M₂V₂

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361
Q

The 4s orbital has a [higher or lower] energy than the 3d block. So the two 4s electrons will be removed [before or after] any of the 3d electrons

A

higher; before

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362
Q

Water’s phase diagram is a slightly [positive or negative] slope of line separating solid & liquid gases

A

positive

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363
Q

Water has a solid phase that is [more or less] dense than liquid

A

less

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364
Q

Isothermal curves are generally [more or less] steeply-sloping than adiabatic curves

A

less

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365
Q

What is the formula used to solve for the boiling point elevation?

A

ΔTᵦ = Kᵦmi

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366
Q

______ _____ occurs when both the temperature and pressure of the three phases of the substance coexist in equilibrium

A

triple point

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367
Q

The following molecule is what type of acid?

A

dicarboxylic acid

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368
Q

Higher-energy bonds are [shorter or longer] and [weaker or stronger] than ones containing lower amounts of energy

A

shorter; stronger

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369
Q

What is the formula for magnetic field?

A

F=qvB

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369
Q

What is the formula for magnetic field?

A

F=qvB

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370
Q

A particle must possess both ________ & a _____ to be affected by a magnetic field

A

velocity; charge

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371
Q

Electric field sum as ______

A

vectors

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372
Q

What are the two formulas for a charge on a capacitor?

A

C=QV & C=kεₒA/d

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373
Q

The diaelectric is [directly or indirectly] proportional to the capacitance

A

directly

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374
Q

The diaelectric is [directly or indirectly] proportional to the capacitance

A

directly

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375
Q

If light is moving from a lower into a higher index of refraction, it must bend [toward or away from] the normal

A

toward

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375
Q

If light is moving from a lower into a higher index of refraction, it must bend [toward or away from] the normal

A

toward

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376
Q

The more stable the conjugate base, the [weaker or stronger] the acid

A

stronger

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377
Q

Concentration cells are a form of what type of cell?

A

galvanic cell

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378
Q

Concentration cells include the [same or different] species in both half-cells

A

same

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379
Q

In a galvanic cell, electrons move spontaneously from the _____ to the ______

A

anode; cathode

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380
Q

What types of metals are highly reactive with water?

A

alkali metals

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381
Q

Due to their extreme tendency to lose a single electron and reach a noble gas configuration, alkali metals serve as good ________ ______

A

reducing agents

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382
Q

What is the Kw expression?

A

Kw = [H⁺][OH⁻]

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382
Q

What is the Kw expression?

A

Kw = [H⁺][OH⁻]

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383
Q

What is the formula for pKw?

A

pKw = pH + pOH

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384
Q

What is the formula for Kw given the Ka and Kb?

A

Ka*Kb = Kw

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385
Q

What are the two most well-known chemical hallmarks of transition metals?

A

ability to possess multiple oxidation numbers and tendency to form brightly-colored compounds

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386
Q

What is the oxidation half of the redox reaction that represents the combination of oxygen and solid sulfur into sulfur dioxide?

A

S → S⁴⁺ + 4e⁻

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386
Q

What is the oxidation half of the redox reaction that represents the combination of oxygen and solid sulfur into sulfur dioxide?

A

S → S⁴⁺ + 4e⁻

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387
Q

What is the reduction half of the redox reaction that represents the combination of oxygen and solid sulfur into sulfur dioxide?

A

O₂ + 4e⁻ → 2O²⁻

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388
Q

Ketones mainly exert what type of intermolecular forces?

A

dipole-dipole interactions

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389
Q

The smaller the molecule, the [more or less] energy required to remove it from solution

A

less

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390
Q

Absolute zero represents a temperature of _ K, or ____ C

A

O K, -273℃

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391
Q

In neutral solution, pH is [greater than, equal to, or less than] pOH

A

equal to

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392
Q

Electrical force depends on what two factors?

A

the particle’s charge and the strength of the electric field experienced by the particle

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393
Q

Capacitance C is proportional to the _____ ____ and inversely proportional to the __________ _______ of the plates

A

plate area; separation distance

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394
Q

Ions are thousands of times [more or less] massive than the electron

A

more

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395
Q

How are isoforms produced?

A

alternative splicing of pre-mRNA

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396
Q

The ____ ________ of the gel will identify whether both or only one of the isoforms is expressed

A

band pattern

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397
Q

Enzymes with a Hill coefficient [greater than, equal to, or less than] than 1 exhibits cooperativity

A

greater than

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398
Q

Enzymes with a Hill coefficient [greater than, equal to, or less than] than 1 does not exhibit cooperativity

A

equal to

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399
Q

What is a characteristic of noncompetitive inhibitors?

A

they bind the enzyme and the enzyme–substrate complex with the same affinity

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400
Q

HCl reacts with CO₃²⁻ to form what?

A

CO₂(g)

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401
Q

If the absolute value of the work done is mgΔh where Δh is positively defined, these actions involve the [same or unequal] amount of work

A

same

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402
Q

As the object moves up and slows down, the frequency shift is [positive or negative] and _____ __ ____ at the peak of the object’s flight; as the object falls, the shift becomes increasingly [positive or negative]

A

negative; falls to zero; positive

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403
Q

What is the logarithmic form of the Ka expression?

A

pH = pKa + log([conj. base]/[conj. acid])

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404
Q

_____ catalyze the saponification of an ester

A

bases

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405
Q

Isopropyl alcohol contains how many hydroxyl groups?

A

one hydroxyl group

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406
Q

The free energy of the reaction ΔG′° is related to what equilibrium constant expression?

A

Keq = [ADP][Pi]/[ATP]

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407
Q

Co(II) is a dication and is formed from the atomic element by the loss of what?

A

two 4s electrons

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408
Q

How can the total number of molecules that were hydrolyzed be calculated?

A

multiply the rate in µM•s⁻¹ by the time (in seconds) and the volume of the solution (in L)

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409
Q

What is Kₘ?

A

the concentration of substrate at which the kinetics experiment reaches half the maximum velocity

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410
Q

1 g is how many ng?

A

10⁹ ng

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411
Q

[Aspartate or or Glutamate] has a slightly shorter chain and thus will be further from the active site

A

Aspartate

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412
Q

What type of bond links monosaccharides together in an oligosaccharide is a special type of acetal linkage?

A

glycoside bond

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413
Q

True or False: The side chain of alanine contains sites for hydrogen bonding

A

False, the side chain of alanine does not contain sites for hydrogen bonding

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414
Q

The focal length of the mirror depends only on what?

A

the radius of the curvature

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415
Q

Each light ray will refract at each surface of the lens and will increasingly diverge from the others because of the shape of each surface, so only [converging or diverging] rays can result

A

diverging

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416
Q

The two plates of the capacitor collect charges of [same or opposite] sign

A

opposite

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417
Q

As more charge arrives it is [easier or harder] to fill the plates until finally an equilibrium occurs

A

harder

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418
Q

As the capacitor discharges the voltage across it falls, thus to maintain a constant current, R must be proportionately [increased or reduced]

A

reduced

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419
Q

Auto-ionization refers to what?

A

dissociation into hydronium and hydroxide ions

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420
Q

Generation of acidic conditions in situ could be effectively prevented by the presence of ________, which forms an insoluble precipitate with chloride

A

pyridine

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421
Q

A trigonal pyramidal geometry is found in molecules where the central atom has _____ substituents and ___ lone pair of electrons

A

three; one

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422
Q

As bond order increases, bond length [shortens or lengthens] and bond energy [increases or decreases]

A

shortens; increases

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423
Q

The [cis or trans] form is better able to stack on top of like molecules

A

trans

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424
Q

Better stacking equates to [more or less] surface area over which intermolecular forces may be exerted, making the substance [more or less] difficult to melt

A

more; more

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425
Q

What are meso compounds?

A

symmetrical molecules with multiple chiral centers

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426
Q

Meso compounds [do or do not] rotate polarized light

A

do not

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427
Q

Kw is only equal to approximately 10⁻¹⁴ at ____

A

25℃

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428
Q

True or False: Concentrations of acid and conjugate base have to be equal to produce a buffer

A

False, concentrations of acid and conjugate base do not have to be equal to produce a buffer

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429
Q

What is the name of this molecule?

A

urea

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430
Q

Amides are composed of what?

A

a carbonyl adjacent to a nitrogen atom

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431
Q

Silica is a highly [polar or nonpolar] molecule

A

polar

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432
Q

The ______ plateau represents the heat of vaporization

A

second

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433
Q

In the equation, pKa + pKb = pKw, pKa represents the pKa of an ____ while the pKb represents the pKb of its _________ ____

A

acid; conjugate base

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434
Q

What is an ether?

A

an oxygen atom connected by single bonds to two carbon-based groups

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435
Q

What is an ester?

A

a functional group where a carbon has a double bond to an oxygen, a single bond to a carbon, and a single bond to an oxygen that is bonded to another carbon

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436
Q

Cyclohexane has [the same or a different] molecular formula than n-hexane and isohexane

A

a different

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437
Q

True or False: Pure water always has an equal number of hydroxide and hydrogen ions

A

True, pure water always has an equal number of hydroxide and hydrogen ions

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438
Q

Both pH and pOH [increase or decrease] when the temperature increases

A

decrease

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439
Q

What is the first ionization energy?

A

the energy required to remove an electron from the outer shell of an atom

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440
Q

For any given period, when is the first ionization energy lowest?

A

when the removal of the electron results in a complete shell or subshell

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441
Q

For any given period, when is the first ionization energy highest?

A

when the removal of the electron disrupts a complete shell or subshell

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442
Q

The hydroxide ion is one of the worst _______ ______ in substitution reactions

A

leaving groups

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443
Q

What is the formula for the number of possible peptides that contain one each of n amino acids?

A

n!

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444
Q

What is the complementary color to yellow?

A

purple

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445
Q

What is the absorbance of the color purple?

A

360 nm

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446
Q

The protonation of the oxygen atom in glucose makes this substance a [better or worse] leaving group in much the same way that protonation of an alcohol facilitates substitution of an –OH group

A

better

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447
Q

The SDS-PAGE conditions denature the protein and eliminate __________ structure

A

quarternary

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448
Q

This structure represents what?

A

cytosine that has been methylated at the C5 position

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449
Q

The use of histine tagging and a nickel column is a form of what type of chromatography?

A

affinity chromatography

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450
Q

The protein with the smallest size has the ________ electrophoretic mobility

A

greatest

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451
Q

Each mole of ____ can reduce a mole of disulfide bonds

A

NADH

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452
Q

Under what circumstances must the sum of the forces in the horizontal direction be zero?

A

if the horizontal component of T, T cos θ, has the same magnitude as the frictional force F.

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453
Q

What is the formula for determining pressure?

A

Pressure = (density) • g • (height)

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454
Q

What is the formula for Snell’s Law?

A

n₁sinθ₁ = n₂sinθ₂

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455
Q

A ray should bend [towards or away from] the normal when it enters going from a lower refractive index to a higher one

A

towards

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456
Q

How can we determine the approximate number of wavelengths of light?

A

by dividing the diameter by the wavelength

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457
Q

Phosphate is only capable of forming what two types of intermolecular interactions?

A

hydrogen bonds and charge-charge interactions

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458
Q

The tyrosine side chain contains a ______ group

A

phenol

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459
Q

The serine side chain contains a _______ group

A

hydroxyl

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460
Q

When does an aldol addition occur?

A

when there is no dehydration in an aldol condensation

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461
Q

How can one determine the charge of a battery?

A

by multiplying the amount of Farads by the voltage

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462
Q

How can one determine the energy of a battery?

A

by multiplying 0.5 by the amount of Farads by the voltage squared

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463
Q

The relative thermodynamic stability of isomers can be determined based on what?

A

the amount of heat produced when the compounds are combusted

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464
Q

The less heat there is, the [less or greater] the stability

A

greater

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465
Q

N-H sites readily exchange tritium protons due to what?

A

their lone pair-facilitating protonation and subsequent tritium exchange with water

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466
Q

True or False: The expression for ideal gas law must include the multiplication of Avogadro’s number

A

True

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467
Q

The activation energy for a reaction represents what?

A

the minimum energy barrier necessary to be overcome by the reactants on the path to products

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468
Q

What is an oxidation–reduction?

A

when both elements involved change oxidation states during the reaction

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469
Q

What are electric field lines?

A

lines that are equally spaced in a uniform field

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470
Q

What type of enzyme catalyzes this reaction?

A

an oxidoreductase

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471
Q

FAD is an example of a _____ _______

A

cofactor oxidant

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472
Q

In order to lower the pH of a buffer, the proportion of acidic buffer component must be [increased or decreased]

A

increased

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473
Q

The formation of a peptide bond is accompanied by the formation of _____ as a by-product

A

water

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474
Q

The mass of water is how many amu?

A

18 amu

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475
Q

______ is the final acquirer of electrons in the reaction and is therefore _______

A

oxygen; reduced

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476
Q

Positively charged substances are also very [hydrophilic or hydrophobic]

A

hydrophilic

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477
Q

Oxygen is a Lewis basic atom present in the side chains or backbones of the listed amino acids that has either a partially [positive or negative] charge

A

negative

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478
Q

Nitrogen is a Lewis basic atom that has a partially [positive or negative] chain in the peptide backbone due to resonance

A

positive

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479
Q

Heme is an example of a what?

A

a porphyrin

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480
Q

What is the basic unit of a porphyrin?

A

the pyrrole ring, which is a five-sided heterocycle containing one nitrogen atom

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481
Q

What type of enzyme catalyzes the hydroxylation of a methyl group?

A

an oxidoreductase

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482
Q

What is the formula for ΔG’°?

A

ΔG’° = −RTlnKeq([products]/[reactants])

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483
Q

What is pK?

A

the pH at which the fraction of folded DNA is 0.5

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484
Q

Cooperativity is measured as what?

A

the slope of the unfolding transition

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485
Q

A cation-exchange column only binds to [positively or negatively] charged proteins, which only occurs when the pH is [less than, equal to, or greater than] the pI

A

positively; less than

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486
Q

The _________ of a wave is not affected by the medium through which it propagates

A

frequency

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487
Q

What is the continuity equation if u is the speed of flow in the capillary bed?

A

A × v = n × a × u

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488
Q

a spontaneous reaction is one that exhibits ΔG being [less than, equal to, or greater than] 0, so Keq is [less than, equal to, or greater than] 1

A

less than; greater than

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489
Q

What is the formula for the weight of a water column?

A

the atmospheric pressure multiplied by the tube cross-sectional area A

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490
Q

When the acid and conjugate base concentrations are equal, the __ of a buffer equals the ___ of the acid

A

pH; pKa

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491
Q

NO₂⁻ reacts with water to form what?

A

OH⁻ ions

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492
Q

What is tautomerism?

A

the migration of a hydrogen atom from an α-carbon atom to an oxygen atom

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493
Q

Polarity in neutral molecules results from what?

A

uneven distribution of electron density

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494
Q

Uneven distribution of electron density often occurs in what two types of compounds?

A

in zwitterions and in ylides

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495
Q

Molecules that contain strongly electron-withdrawing or electron-donating substituents are highly _____ and possess correspondingly high ______ _______

A

polar; dipole moments

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496
Q

When cyclic hemiacetals and acetals are formed, the ring carbon atom derived from the carbonyl group in the open-chain form of a monosaccharide (i.e., the carbon atom that bears two oxygen substituents) is called what?

A

the anomeric carbon

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497
Q

The prefixes “α” and “β” are employed to define the stereochemistry of what bond at the anomeric carbon atom?

A

C-OR bond

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498
Q

To determine if a specific compound is an oxidizing or reducing agent, look at the _________ ______ of each individual element in the reactants and products

A

oxidation states

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499
Q

How many hydroxide ions are required to hydrolyze one ester linkage of a triacylglycerol molecule?

A

one hydroxide ion

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500
Q

A fatty acid salt contains what two things?

A

a long hydrocarbon chain, which is soluble in nonpolar solvents, and a charged group –CO2⁻Na⁺, which is soluble in polar solvents

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501
Q

The empirical formula shows what?

A

the lowest whole number ratio of moles of each element in a mole of the compound, or the corresponding number of atoms per molecule

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502
Q

How can the polarity of each of the bromomethanes be determined?

A

by the vector sum of all of the individual bond polarities within a given molecule of the compound

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503
Q

An acid differs from its conjugate base only by what?

A

the presence of an additional H⁺

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504
Q

A base differs from its conjugate acid only in what?

A

the lack of a single H⁺

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505
Q

What is the ionization potential?

A

the energy required to remove an electron from an atom

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506
Q

The reactivity of a metal depends on what?

A

its ionization potential

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507
Q

This picture is the structure of what molecule?

A

glycerol 3-phosphate

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508
Q

What types of interactions are primarily responsible for glycerol stabilization?

A

hydrogen bonding interactions

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509
Q

Residues that stabilize glycerol binding also contain functional groups that are capable of what?

A

forming hydrogen bonds

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510
Q

What does Boyle’s law state?

A

if the number of gas moles and the temperature is fixed, there is an inverse relationship between P and V

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511
Q

At standard temperature and pressure (0℃, 1 atm), 1 mole of any gas will occupy how much volume?

A

22.4 L

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512
Q

How is the partial pressure of oxygen calculated?

A

by multiplying the total pressure by the mole fraction of oxygen

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513
Q

When are deviations from ideal gas behavior maximized?

A

when molecular volume and/or intermolecular interactions are increased

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514
Q

H₂O experiences hydrogen bonding between what?

A

between the H donor of one water and the O acceptor of another water molecule

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515
Q

The following picture is the structure of what molecule?

A

formaldehyde

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516
Q

When naming nomenclature, does the aldehyde or ketone functional group have higher priority?

A

aldehyde

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517
Q

When naming nomenclature, the highest priority functional group has the [highest or lowest] possible number

A

lowest

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518
Q

Phenoxide can also be described as what?

A

phenolate ion

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519
Q

Phenoxide has how many different resonance structures?

A

five different resonance structures

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520
Q

The following reaction depicts what kind of mechanism?

A

hydrolysis mechanism

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521
Q

__________ is a very common method of activating zymogens

A

Hydrolysis

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522
Q

What role does an enol normally serve in a chemical reaction?

A

an enol would act as a nucleophile and attack an electrophile using its alpha carbon

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523
Q

What is the reactive electrophilic site on an alpha-beta unsaturated carbonyl carbon?

A

beta carbon

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524
Q

What happens when you add water to an imine or enamine?

A

imine or enamine will be converted back to the carbonyl

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525
Q

What type of reaction occurs more rapidly than any other reaction?

A

proton transfer reactions

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526
Q

All Grignard reagents function as ______ _____ and must be present __ ______ in order to successfully esterify carboxylic acids

A

strong bases; in excess

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527
Q

Double and triple bonds must contain ___ _____ ____ before they “add” bonds made from pi orbitals

A

one sigma bond

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528
Q

What is a meso compound?

A

compounds that have multiple chiral centers but are not optically active overall

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529
Q

Why can’t compounds with a single stereocenter be meso compounds?

A

Because meso compounds require symmetry to yield a structure that is achiral as a whole

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530
Q

True or False: Carbon is the only atom that can serve as a chiral center

A

False, carbon is not the only atom that can serve as a chiral center

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531
Q

What is formed from the reduction of a carbonyl group?

A

an alcohol

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532
Q

Reductive animation reactions always result in the production of what?

A

an amine, specifically from an aldehyde or ketone

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533
Q

What is formed from the reduction of an imine group?

A

an amine

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534
Q

What is chromium trioxide (CrO₃)?

A

a strong oxidizing agent and is reacting with a molecule that contains tertiary, secondary, and primary alcohols

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535
Q

Gases behave least ideally at [low or high] pressure and [low or high] temperature

A

high; low

536
Q

One gigapascal (or GPa) is equivalent to how many Pa?

A

1 x 10⁹ Pa

537
Q

Rf is a measure of what?

A

the distance traveled by a compound in comparison to the distance covered by the solvent front

538
Q

Glutamine has an _________ _____ side chain

A

uncharged polar

539
Q

Electronegativity is a trend that exists [across a period or down a group]

A

across a period

540
Q

Why is the conjugate base of a thiol-containing molecule like sulfur better able to delocalize negative charge compared to oxygen?

A

because sulfur is much larger than oxygen

541
Q

What is N-ethylpropionamide?

A

an amide that results from the combination of an alkyl amine and an acyl chloride

542
Q

What are the two assumptions of ideal gases?

A

All of the volume is assumed to be occupied by the gas itself, not the particles and the particles themselves do not experience intermolecular forces from other particles in the gas

543
Q

A benzene ring is an [electron-withdrawing or electron-donating] group

A

electron-withdrawing

544
Q

Tert-butyl is an [electron-withdrawing or electron-donating] group

A

electron-donating

545
Q

Attachment of an electron-donating group will add electron density to the hydroxyl oxygen, making it more [positively or negatively] charged and [more or less] likely to lose its proton

A

negatively; less

546
Q

Enantiomers have specific rotations that have the [same or different] magnitude but [the same or opposite] sign

A

same; opposite

547
Q

What is the equation to find the enantiomeric excess of an enantiomer?

A

enantiomeric excess = (observed rotation*100)/specific rotation

548
Q

What does Kirchoff’s second law state?

A

voltage drops across parallel branches of a circuit are always identical

549
Q

What is the definition of 1 electron-volt?

A

the energy required to move an electron through a 1.0 V potential

550
Q

What formula can be used to find the energy required to move an electron?

A

V=U/q

551
Q

What are three equations for power in an electric circuit?

A

P = VI = V²/R = I²R

552
Q

With relatively small amounts of current flowing through the lines, [more or less] power is lost to resistance

A

less

553
Q

What is the time constant (equal to RC)?

A

the amount of time it takes a capacitor to reach 63% of its final charge

554
Q

What is the density of water in four different units?

A

1 g/cm³ = 1 g/mL = 1 kg/L = 1000 g/L

555
Q

What is a viscous fluid?

A

a fluid that resists flow

556
Q

Laminar flow is a quality of what type of fluid?

A

ideal fluid

557
Q

How do substances moving in a laminar flow manner travel?

A

travel in parallel layers, with a lack of up-and-down motion

558
Q

What is the equation for electric field?

A

E=ma/q

559
Q

What is the formula for finding the total kinetic energy for a fluid?

A

1/2⍴v² * volume

560
Q

What is the formula for determining the buoyant force?

A

Fᵦ = ⍴Vg

561
Q

What is mass defect?

A

All nuclei weigh less than the sum of their component protons and neutrons

562
Q

What happens when subatomic particles come together to form a nucleus?

A

some of their mass is converted into energy

563
Q

What equation can be used to set the magnetic force equal to the electric force?

A

qvB = Eq or vB=E

564
Q

How can the RHR be used to determine the direction of the induced magnetic field?

A

Stick your thumb in the direction of the current and curl your fingers around the wire, representing the circular magnetic field emanating from the wire

565
Q

True or False: A resistor’s resistance changes over time

A

False, a resistor’s resistance does not change over time

566
Q

When the current across a capacitor is decreasing, the voltage across its plates must be [increasing or decreasing]

A

increasing

567
Q

Magnetic fields always exert a force on a moving particle that is [parallel or perpendicular] to both the particle’s velocity and the field itself

A

perpendicular

568
Q

What is the equation for work?

A

W = Fd cosθ

569
Q

What does the relationship of W = Fd cosθ tell us?

A

only the force exerted parallel to the object’s motion contributes to the work

570
Q

The magnitude of the force is [directly or indirectly] proportional to the electric charge

A

directly

571
Q

Alpha and beta particles possess charges of [same or opposite] sign, and thus will experience forces in [same or opposite] directions

A

opposite; opposite

572
Q

What is the formula to find the absolute pressure p at depth h below the surface of a fluid?

A

p = p₀ + ρgh

573
Q

What is the formula to find the pressure difference Δp between two locations in the water?

A

Δp = ρgΔh

574
Q

What does Archimedes’ Principle state?

A

the upward buoyant force, B, equals the weight of water displaced

575
Q

What is the formula for buoyant force according to Archimedes’ Principle?

A

B = ⍴Vₛg

576
Q

Work is the product of what two quantities?

A

force and distance

577
Q

The system will be in equilibrium only if what?

A

the right and left forces exert torques that cancel each other

578
Q

What is the equation for when the torque magnitudes are at equilibrium?

A

FleftLleft = FrightLright

579
Q

True or False: The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection

A

True

580
Q

To find the relative refractive index to air one needs what two variables?

A

the incident and refracted angles

581
Q

The kinetic friction force F is the product of what?

A

the normal force the ramp exerted on the mass and the coefficient of kinetic friction

582
Q

True or False: The normal force is independent of speed

A

True

583
Q

The kinetic friction is given by what mathematical expression?

A

-μₖₕNᵢ

584
Q

How can we calculate the volume flow rate?

A

the product of blood speed and artery cross-sectional area

585
Q

The law of conservation of mechanical energy describes what?

A

the relation between the kinetic and potential energies of a system

586
Q

According to the law of conservation of mechanical energy, an [increase or decrease] in one form of energy requires the [increase or decrease] in the other

A

increase; decrease

587
Q

The coefficient of kinetic friction is always [lower than, equal to, or higher than] that of static friction

A

lower than

588
Q

A constant force on a mass produces what?

A

a constant acceleration (Newton’s second law)

589
Q

The buoyant force on an immersed object is the product of what?

A

(density of the liquid) × (volume of the object) × (acceleration of gravity)

590
Q

What is specific gravity?

A

the ratio of the density of an unknown substance to that of water

591
Q

What is the formula for the time of a projectile object thrown vertically?

A

t = 2v/g

592
Q

Sound wave are __________ and ________ when incident on materials just as light waves are

A

reflected; absorbed

593
Q

Fusion means what?

A

melting

594
Q

An individual enters the stage of exhaustion only after what?

A

that individual has encountered the stressor for a prolonged period of time

595
Q

Oxidation of tertiary alcohols is difficult because it involves what?

A

C–C bond breaking

596
Q

The stereochemical designator for the double bond of E or Z is based on the [lowest or highest] priority functional groups

A

highest

597
Q

The pulsed laser radiation interacts with the cornea for a [shorter or longer] time than a continuous laser radiation, thus [less or more] heat is transferred to the cornea

A

shorter; less

598
Q

An amine is defined as what?

A

R₃N, where R = H or a carbon group (but NOT C=O)

599
Q

No more than ___ out of three R groups can be H

A

two

600
Q

NaBH₄ reduces a ______ to a _________ _______

A

ketone; secondary alcohol

601
Q

What does a random order mechanism mean?

A

either substrate could bind first

602
Q

The side chains of valine and phenylalanine are what?

A

hydrophobic

603
Q

A buffer has a buffering capacity that is how many pH units away from the pKa?

A

±1 pH unit away from the pKa

604
Q

Why can’t oxygen be an electrophilic atom?

A

because it has a partially negative charge

605
Q

Diffraction causes what?

A

the initially plane-parallel wave-fronts of light to change direction and partially enter the shadow region behind the thread due to its narrowness

606
Q

If the pH is less than the pKₐ then the [keto or enol] form is preferred

A

keto

607
Q

Cl has how many more protons in the nucleus than P?

A

two more protons

608
Q

How can a Cl nuclide be produced from P?

A

by two successive β⁻ decays

609
Q

What side chain groups are essential to metal ion binding?

A

carboxylate side chain groups

610
Q

Aspartic acid and glutamic acid have what types of side chain groups?

A

carboxylate side chain groups

611
Q

What is current in terms of its units?

A

flow of charge per unit time

612
Q

What is the base unit for mass in physics?

A

kg

613
Q

Free electrons arrange themselves on what?

A

the surface of conductors

614
Q

What is the effect of the collective electric field of the free electrons?

A

cancels any external electric field

615
Q

True or False: Bound electrons can arrange themselves on the surface of the conductor due to the binding effects

A

False, bound electrons cannot arrange themselves on the surface of the conductor due to the binding effects

616
Q

What happens when threshold is met at the axon hillock?

A

voltage-gated sodium channels open, generating an action potential

617
Q

How can the current associated with an NCV pulse be calculated according to Ohm’s law?

A

by dividing the potential change by the axon resistance which is the resistance per unit length divided by the length

618
Q

A substance that dissolves to generate an acidic solution is called what?

A

an oxyacid.

619
Q

Substances that are insoluble in neutral water but dissolve if the solution is acidic features what?

A

basic anions

620
Q

Alkali metal oxides and hydroxides are ______ _____

A

strong bases

621
Q

Given the formula for calcium chloride is CaCl₂, it produces _____ as many Cl⁻ ions as Ca²⁺ ions in solution when it dissolves

A

twice

622
Q

This picture is the structure of what molecule?

A

hemiacetal group

623
Q

Hydrogen bonding is a higher than anticipated dipole–dipole interaction, it causes substances that exhibit it to have [higher or lower] than expected boiling points and [higher or lower] vapor pressures

A

higher; lower

624
Q

An enzyme is a [chiral or achiral] catalyst

A

chiral

625
Q

Why is an enzyme capable of preferentially forming one enantiomer?

A

because a lower energy chiral transition state leads to the preferred product

626
Q

True or False: A diverging lens spreads out light before it reaches the crystalline lens

A

True

627
Q

The crystalline lens will focus the light further [forward or back], that is on the retina and correcting [myopia or hyperopia]

A

back; myopia

628
Q

What two functional groups will hydrolyze in H₂SO₄?

A

acetal and cyanohydrin

629
Q

According to Archimedes’ principle, Wair is proportional to what?

A

body density

630
Q

Blood in the pulmonary artery is essentially [the same or different] as venous blood

A

the same

631
Q

Venous blood is [lower or higher] in pH than arterial blood due primarily to the CO2 it carries

A

lower

632
Q

H₂S is a what?

A

weak acid

633
Q

____ _____ have a small fraction of the solute molecule ionize and release protons into solution

A

Weak acids

634
Q

No reaction occurs when the product formed is a _______ ________

A

soluble compound

635
Q

The lower the value of Kₛₚ is, the [lower or higher] the concentrations of the cation and anion in an aqueous solution and the lower the solubility of the compound in water

A

lower

636
Q

The pH at the equivalence point in any titration is the pH of what?

A

the salt solution formed

637
Q

The reaction of an ion such as benzoate ion with water is called what?

A

hydrolysis

638
Q

What is equivalent mass?

A

the mass of an acid that yields one mole of hydrogen ions or the mass of a base that reacts with one mole of hydrogen ions

639
Q

A molecule that accepts an electron pair from the OH⁻ of a strong base is acting as a what?

A

a Lewis acid

640
Q

What element has the largest charge of stable, naturally occurring nuclei?

A

uranium

641
Q

Adding more protons makes the long-range repulsive Coulomb force [stronger or weaker] than the short-range attractive nuclear force, and a higher-charge nucleus undergoes [fission or fusion]

A

stronger; fission

642
Q

Coulomb’s law states what?

A

the repulsive force versus fragment separation (r) has a 1/r² dependence

643
Q

This graph depicts what kind of relationship between f(r) and r?

A

f(r) = 1/r²

644
Q

Frictional forces dissipate an amount of energy (in joules) given by what?

A

the product of the force (in newtons) times the distance (in meters) over which the force acts

645
Q

The coefficient of friction is defined as what?

A

the frictional force divided by the normal force

646
Q

The normal force on a level surface is the product of what?

A

the mass and the gravitational acceleration, g

647
Q

A ____ __________ has a node at each end

A

half wavelength

648
Q

Two traveling waves that make up a standing wave must have _____ amplitudes and move in ________ directions

A

equal; opposite

649
Q

The resistivity relation at a fixed temperature is what?

A

Resistance = Resistivity x Length/Area

650
Q

What is IR spectroscopy used for?

A

to identify functional groups present on organic molecules

651
Q

True or False: IR spectroscopy would distinguish between enantiomers

A

False, IR spectroscopy would not distinguish between enantiomers

652
Q

The direction in which enantiomers rotate plane-polarized light can be assessed by what technique?

A

polarimetry

653
Q

For a pendulum, period, length, and gravitational acceleration are related by what equation?

A

T = 2π√(Ig)

654
Q

True or False: The greater the difference between the index of refraction of the lens material and that of the surrounding environment, the more the rays will bend

A

True, the greater the difference between the index of refraction of the lens material and that of the surrounding environment, the more the rays will bend

655
Q

What is the equation for capacitance?

A

C = εA/d

656
Q

Doubling the radius of a circle [doubles, triples, or quadruples] the area

A

quadruples

657
Q

What are the two assumptions of ideal fluids?

A

ideal fluids are nonviscous and incompressible

658
Q

What is viscosity?

A

the internal friction of a fluid - a quality that causes it to dissipate energy as it travels

659
Q

True or False: Bernoulli’s equation relates much more heavily to viscosity than compressibility

A

True

660
Q

True or False: Continuity equation relates much more to viscosity than to compressibility

A

False, continuity equation relates much more to compressibility than to viscosity

661
Q

The initial kinetic energy of the block (KEᵢblock) is equal to what?

A

the magnitude of work done by friction (ߊWfߊ)

662
Q

Torque is the product of what?

A

the force and the lever arm

663
Q

What is the lever arm?

A

the distance from the fulcrum

664
Q

Increasing the lever arm [minimizes or maximizes] the torque

A

maximizes

665
Q

1 revolution is equal to how many radians?

A

2π radians

666
Q

What is the formula for energy in terms of torque?

A

energy = (torque) x (angle)

667
Q

The kinetic energy at the bottom of the ramp is equal to what?

A

the difference between the potential energy at the top and the energy lost to rotation

668
Q

What is the formula for the energy of rotation?

A

0.5I𝜔²

669
Q

Why can fluid appear to be sucked downward in a concave meniscus?

A

because fluid particles are more attracted to the glass sides of the tube than to each other

670
Q

Attractive forces between different particles are known as what?

A

adhesive forces

671
Q

Forces between like particles are termed what?

A

cohesive forces

672
Q

What is the formula for E in terms of F and q?

A

E=F/q

673
Q

How can the force on the charge be determined?

A

multiply the charge by that of the electric field in N/C

674
Q

What kinematic equation can be used to determine the time for an object to hit the ground?

A

d = v₀t + 1/2a₀t²

675
Q

A converging lens forms what kind of image?

A

a real image

676
Q

Real images are always [upright or inverted]

A

inverted

677
Q

A diverging lens forms what kind of image?

A

a virtual image

678
Q

Virtual images are always [upright or inverted]

A

upright

679
Q

Myopia is corrected with [converging or diverging] lenses

A

diverging

680
Q

What is the thin lens equation?

A

1/f = 1/o + 1/i

681
Q

What is the geometry of right triangles?

A

the ratio of the image’s distance to the object’s distance is equal to the ratio of the image’s height to the object’s height

682
Q

Dynamic equilibrium describes what?

A

an object moving at a constant velocity without acceleration

683
Q

The block experiences a frictional force Ff that is equal and opposite to the component of the gravitational force that acts [parallel or perpendicular] to the surface of the incline F∥

A

parallel

684
Q

True or False: Charged particles intrinsically generate magnetic fields

A

False, charged particles do not intrinsically generate magnetic fields

685
Q

Current flowing along a circular wire generates what?

A

unidirectional magnetic field lines within the interior of the coil

686
Q

What are magnetic fields?

A

vector quantities representing the magnetic influence that electrical currents and magnetized materials would experience at a location in three-dimensional space

687
Q

Volumetric flow rate is equal to what?

A

the cardiac output

688
Q

What is stroke volume?

A

the volume of blood that is ejected from the left ventricle (LV) in one cardiac cycle

689
Q

Cardiac output is the product of what?

A

stroke volume and heart rate

690
Q

1 mL is equal to how many cm³?

A

1 cm³

691
Q

What is volumetric flow rate?

A

the product of cross-sectional area A and flow velocity v, or Q = Av

692
Q

What does Pascal law state?

A

For a static, incompressible (constant density), and fully enclosed fluid, an external pressure applied to the fluid will be uniformly transmitted to all surfaces

693
Q

What is the Henderson-Hesselbalch equation?

A

pH = pKa + log([A⁻]/[HA])

694
Q

What is an indicator used for?

A

to visually detect the endpoint of an acid-base titration

695
Q

What are the two things a good indicator must do?

A

not react with the substance being titrated and should change color close to the equivalence point of a titration

696
Q

What are polyprotic acids?

A

acids with more than one acidic proton (H⁺ ion) that can dissociate in water

697
Q

Electronegativity tends to [increase or decrease] moving down a group (column) on the periodic table

A

decrease

698
Q

How is equilibrium achieved?

A

when the forward reaction and the reverse reaction occur simultaneously at the same rate

699
Q

What are conformational isomers?

A

versions of the same molecule that form when an atom rotates about its bond

700
Q

Describe the similarities and differences of diastereomers with respect to their stereocenters

A

differ at one or more stereocenters but have the orientation of at least one stereocenter in common

701
Q

When one chiral molecule is converted to its enantiomer or to a different chiral molecule, the mechanism often includes formation of what?

A

a planar intermediate

702
Q

What is decarboxylation?

A

the removal of a carboxyl group from a compound; the removed carboxyl group is converted to CO₂

703
Q

True or False: Fluorene is a hydrocarbon

A

True

704
Q

True or False: Hydrocarbons can act as a Brønsted-Lowry base to accept a proton (H⁺) from an acid such as HCl

A

False, hydrocarbons cannot act as a Brønsted-Lowry base to accept a proton (H⁺) from an acid such as HCl

705
Q

N-H stretches absorb infrared light at what wavelength range?

A

3200-3600 cm⁻¹

706
Q

How can the velocity be solved using the formula for kinetic energy?

A

Rearrange to v = √2KE/m

707
Q

What does Newton’s 3rd law state?

A

a pair of equal and opposite forces exists when two objects interact

708
Q

What does Archimedes’ Principle state?

A

an object in a fluid experiences a net upwardly directed buoyant force Fb equal to the product of the fluid’s density ⍴, the gravitational acceleration g, and the volume Vfl of the fluid displaced by the object

709
Q

What would happen to the object in the fluid when pobj﹥pfl?

A

the weight W of the object is greater than Fb & the object will immediately sink in the fluid

710
Q

What would happen to the object in the fluid if pobj﹤pfl?

A

W is less than Fb and the object will rise in the fluid until it floats on the surface

711
Q

What does Newton’s first law of motion imply?

A

objects with inertia resist changes in their velocity

712
Q

True or False: An object’s inertia is equal to its mass m

A

True

713
Q

When does mechanical equilibrium occur?

A

when the net external force acting on an object is equal to zero

714
Q

What are the two forms of mechanical equilibrium?

A

static equilibrium and dynamic equilibrium

715
Q

When does static equilibrium occur?

A

when the object has zero velocity

716
Q

When does dynamic equilibrium occur?

A

when the object has a constant nonzero velocity

717
Q

What does the work-energy theorem state?

A

work W done by a force on an object can be calculated as the change in the object’s kinetic energy ΔKE

718
Q

When does bimolecular nucleophilic substitution (SN2) occur?

A

when a nucleophile donates electrons to an electrophile with a good leaving group

719
Q

Why are larger halogens better leaving groups than small halogens?

A

because they can spread the negative charge over a larger surface area

720
Q

What is Fisher esterification?

A

the conversion of a carboxylic acid into an ester by an acid-catalyzed reaction with an alcohol

721
Q

True or False: Acid-catalyzed reactions increase nucleophilicity

A

False

722
Q

When does superheating occur?

A

when a liquid is heated past its boiling point but does not boil

723
Q

What purpose do boiling chips serve?

A

they provide surfaces with nucleation sites where small bubbles can form

724
Q

What are the 3 common types of distillation?

A

simple, fractional, and vacuum distillation

725
Q

Simple distillation is most ideal for what types of compounds?

A

compounds with boiling points that are less than 150℃ and more than 25℃ apart

726
Q

Fractional distillation is most ideal for what types of compounds?

A

compounds with boiling points that are less than 150℃ & less than 25℃ apart

727
Q

Vacuum distillation is most ideal for what types of compounds?

A

compounds with boiling points greater than 150℃

728
Q

What is gas-liquid chromatography?

A

a technique used to separate compounds based on boiling point, which depends on several factors including molecular weight, intermolecular forces, and branching

729
Q

Compounds with fewer branching have a [smaller or larger] surface area than compounds with more branching

A

larger

730
Q

What happens in a series circuit?

A

the same current flows through each element

731
Q

By conservation of energy, the voltage rise from the voltage source Vₛ is [greater than, equal to, or less than] the sum of the voltage drops across the other elements in the circuit, Vᵣ and LED Vf

A

equal to

732
Q

The starting time of the pulse wave corresponds to the contraction of the heart is the large spike in what kind of signal?

A

ECG signal

733
Q

The ending time that corresponds to the arrival of the pulse wave in the finger is the peak in what kind of signal?

A

PPG signal

734
Q

The heart rate corresponds to the _________ of the heartbeat

A

frequency

735
Q

Visible light consists of wavelengths that range from ___ __ to ___ __

A

400 nm; 750 nm

736
Q

The color violet corresponds to what wavelength on the electromagnetic spectrum?

A

400 nm

737
Q

The color red corresponds to what wavelength on the electromagnetic spectrum?

A

750 nm

738
Q

When does periodic motion occur?

A

when an object moves in a cyclical fashion, returning to the same location after a certain period of time

739
Q

What is the equation for angular velocity?

A

ω = 360° x f

740
Q

What does the work-energy principle state?

A

the total work done by a force is equal to the change in kinetic energy (ΔKE) of the object acted upon by the force

741
Q

The work done by the force also contributes to a change in the potential energy of the system if…

A

the forces acting on the object are conservative forces (e.g. gravity)

742
Q

What does power measure?

A

the rate at which energy is expended by a physical process over a period of time, or P = E/t

743
Q

Power can also reflect a ____ __ ______ ________ or conversion between systems

A

rate of energy transfer

744
Q

Indicators are [weak or strong] acids or bases

A

weak

745
Q

The concentrations of indicators are relatively [low or high] during a titration

A

low

746
Q

What is bromothymol blue?

A

a weakly acidic indicator that changes from pale yellow at pH 6 to dark blue at pH 8

747
Q

What is transesterification?

A

a reaction between an ester and an an alcohol in which the ester-OR group is replaced with the alcohol-OR group

748
Q

Alcohols are named based on the [shortest or longest] continuous carbon chain containing the hydroxyl group

A

longest

749
Q

How are esters formed?

A

by an acid-catalyzed reaction known as a Fischer esterification

750
Q

What is a Fischer esterification?

A

an acid-catalyzed reaction in which a carboxylic acid and an alcohol combine

751
Q

The parent chain containing a carboxylic acid functional group as the highest priority group has its parent chain numbered beginning with what?

A

the carbonyl carbon of the the carboxyl group

752
Q

A reaction that produces a less disordered system yields a [positive or negative] ΔS

A

positive

753
Q

A reaction that produces a more disordered system yields a [positive or negative] ΔS

A

negative

754
Q

What is the latent heat of fusion?

A

the amount of heat a substance must absorb to transition from a solid to a liquid

755
Q

What is the latent heat of vaporization?

A

the amount of heat a substance must absorb to transition from a liquid to a gas

756
Q

What are epimers?

A

a type of diastereomer that differ in spatial orientation at only one stereocenter

757
Q

Specific rotation describes what?

A

the direction (+ or -) and magnitude (degrees) a chiral molecule rotates plane-polarized light

758
Q

What is the equation for specific rotation ɑ?

A

ɑ=ɑobs/c×l

759
Q

The empirical formula describes what?

A

only the ratios of each unique atom in a compound

760
Q

The molecular formula describes what?

A

the actual number of each type of atom

761
Q

How can the empirical formula be calculated from the known mass of each type of atom in a compound

A

by calculating the number of moles of each atom in the compound

762
Q

For the empirical formula, how can we find the number of moles for each atom?

A

by dividing each mass given by the atomic mass of the atom

763
Q

What is the formula for the Lorentz force?

A

F = qvB

764
Q

The direction of the force is always ______________ to the particle’s velocity

A

perpendicular

765
Q

The mass and inertia of an electron are much [smaller or larger] than those of a proton

A

smaller

766
Q

True or False: The thermal expansion of the length L or volume V of a substance is linearly proportional to its change in temperature ΔT

A

True

767
Q

What is the term that describes the phase change of a solid directly to a gas?

A

condensation

768
Q

At the melting (or freezing) point of a substance, the substance can exist in what phases?

A

either its solid or liquid phase

769
Q

A system is in a state of thermodynamic equilibrium if what?

A

the temperature of the system is constant and uniform throughout its volume and there is no flow of energy

770
Q

State functions describe what?

A

the equilibrium state of a system as a relationship between various thermodynamic variables and are independent of the path taken by the system to arrive at its present state

771
Q

What are some examples of a state function?

A

a system’s pressure, volume, and temperature

772
Q

Process functions describe what?

A

the path taken by a system to transition from one equilibrium state to another

773
Q

What are adiabatic processes?

A

Processes that occur with no heat exchange between the system and the environment

774
Q

What does the first law of thermodynamics state?

A

the change in internal energy (ΔU) is the sum of the amount of heat (Q) transferred to the system and the work (W) done to the system by the surroundings

775
Q

The work associated with the expansion or contraction of a gas is known as what?

A

pressure-volume work

776
Q

What is the formula for pressure-volume work?

A

the product of the external pressure (P) and the change in volume (ΔV)

777
Q

What is conduction?

A

the transfer of heat through direct physical contact

778
Q

What is convection?

A

the transfer of heat through the flow of fluids

779
Q

What is radiation?

A

the transfer of heat through electromagnetic radiation

780
Q

1 m³ is how many L?

A

1000 L

781
Q

What happens in laminar flow?

A

the packets move together in a layered, uniform manner, and the flow is smooth

782
Q

What happens in turbulent flow?

A

the motion of the packets becomes highly nonuniform, and the resulting flow is more chaotic

783
Q

Large values of Reynolds number are associated with the onset of what?

A

turbulence

784
Q

What is the formula for the continuity equation for a circular conduit?

A

A = πr₁² x v₁ = πr₂² x v₂

785
Q

What is viscosity?

A

an intrinsic property of a fluid that characterizes the amount of friction resisting the motion inside the fluid itself

786
Q

How can the average acceleration be determined?

A

by taking the difference of the final and initial velocities divided by the difference between the final and initial times

787
Q

A hemiacetal originates from what and consists of what?

A

an aldehyde and consists of a carbon bonded to a hydroxyl group, an alkyl group, an -OR group, and a H atom

788
Q

Furanoses are ____-membered rings

A

five

789
Q

Pyranoses are ___-membered rings

A

six

790
Q

The anomeric carbon is characterized as what?

A

the carbon in a carbohydrate with two bonds to oxygen

791
Q

A sugar is classified as L or D based on what?

A

the configuration of the chiral center with the highest number

792
Q

An R-configuration at this center designates a [D or L]-sugar, and an S configuration designates an [D or L]-sugar

A

D; L

793
Q

A cyclic sugar is in what configuration if the anomeric carbon substituent is on the opposite side of the ring plane as the substituent of the highest numbered chiral center?

A

ɑ-configuration

794
Q

A cyclic sugar is in what configuration if the anomeric carbon substituent is on the same side of the ring plane as the substituent of the highest numbered chiral center?

A

β-configuration

795
Q

What is the formula for the change in Gibbs free energy?

A

ΔG° = ΔH° - TΔS°

796
Q

ΔG° is what kind of function and what does it describe?

A

a state function that describes the spontaneity of the reaction

797
Q

When ΔG°﹤0, the reaction is [spontaneous or nonspontaneous] and that when ΔG°﹥0, the reaction is [spontaneous or nonspontaneous]

A

spontaneous; nonspontaneous

798
Q

When ΔS° is positive and ΔH° is negative, the process is…

A

always spontaneous

799
Q

When ΔS° is negative and ΔH° is positive, the process is…

A

nonspontaneous (+ΔG°) at any temperature

800
Q

When ΔS° and ΔH° are negative, the process is…

A

spontaneous (-ΔG°) at low temperatures and nonspontaneous (+ΔG°) at high temperatures

801
Q

When ΔS° and ΔH° are positive, the process is…

A

the process is nonspontaneous (+ΔG°) at low temperatures and spontaneous (-ΔG°) at high temperatures

802
Q

An endothermic reaction has a positive change in enthalpy ΔH°, which indicates what?

A

the products have higher enthalpy than the reactants

803
Q

Why are dissociation reactions typically endothermic processes?

A

because energy must be added to the system (as heat) to dissociate (break) the bonds in the reactants

804
Q

Why do dissociation reactions tend to increase entropy?

A

because a larger molecule is broken into two (or more) smaller molecules, which generally increases the disorder of the system

805
Q

What are the two exceptions to the octet rule?

A

small atoms that have an only s orbital and for larger atoms in Period 3 and beyond when d orbitals are utilized

806
Q

A calorimetry experiment measures what?

A

the temperature T as a reaction progresses

807
Q

The magnitude of ΔT is equal to what?

A

the difference between the final and initial temperatures of the reaction

808
Q

A negative ΔG indicates what?

A

the reaction is spontaneous

809
Q

A positive ΔG indicates what?

A

the reaction is nonspontaneous

810
Q

What is the activation energy Eₐ?

A

the difference between the free energy of the transition state and the energy of the reactants

811
Q

Because Eₐ is the energy required by the reactants to form a higher energy transition state, Eₐ is always [positive or negative]

A

positive

812
Q

How do catalysts lower the activation energy?

A

by stabilizing the transition state for a reaction, creating a less energetic transition state

813
Q

A homogenous catalyst is in the [same or different] phase as the reactants

A

same

814
Q

A heterogenous catalyst is in the [same or different] phase as the reactants

A

different

815
Q

A surface catalyst works through what process and how does it work?

A

adsorption, in which the reacting species clings to the surface of the catalytic medium

816
Q

Why does increasing the surface area of a catalyst increase the rate of the reaction?

A

because a greater surface area allows more molecules to collect on the surface

817
Q

What are the trends for ionic radii across a period and down a group?

A

decrease in size across a period of the periodic table and increase moving down a group

818
Q

Losing electrons to form a cation causes the remaining electrons to experience a [greater or smaller] effective nuclear charge (Zeff)

A

greater

819
Q

Gaining electrons to form an anion produces greater electronic repulsion and nuclear shielding creating a [greater or lesser] Zeff, which pushes electrons farther down the nucleus

A

lesser

820
Q

Na⁺, F⁻, Mg²⁺, and O²⁻ are _______________

A

isoelectronic

821
Q

What happens in ꞵ⁺ decay?

A

a nuclear proton converts to a neutron and ejects a positron

822
Q

What happens in ꞵ⁻ decay?

A

a neutron converts to a nuclear proton and emits an electron

823
Q

What happens in electron capture?

A

a proton captures an electron near the nucleus and converts to a neutron without a positron or electron emission

824
Q

The chemical behavior of an atom is determined primarily by what?

A

its electron configuration

825
Q

Isotopes of the same element have nearly identical _______ __________ but differ in their _______ __________

A

chemical properties; physical properties

826
Q

How are the reactants and/or products of a particular reaction related to one another?

A

by the mole ratios from the balanced reaction equation or chemical formula

827
Q

Zeff [increases or decreases] as the atomic number increases

A

increases

828
Q

Zeff [increases or decreases] as the group number increases

A

increases

829
Q

How are coordinate covalent bonds formed?

A

between two atoms when both shared electrons are donated by the same atom

830
Q

The coordination number of a metal complex refers to what?

A

the number of coordinate bonds formed between the central metal ion and its nearest neighboring atoms

831
Q

How do hybrid orbitals minimize electronic repulsion?

A

by adopting specific orientations that are determined by the number of hybrid orbitals formed

832
Q

What happens in resonance?

A

the arrangement of the atoms is unchanged, but some π bonds and nonbonding electrons “oscillate” between multiple atoms

833
Q

Solute molecules that can associate with solvent molecules through [similar or different] types of intermolecular forces tend to be attracted to the solvent and are more soluble to it

A

similar

834
Q

Electrostatic attractions are ______________ _____ ___________

A

positive-negative charge attractions

835
Q

What is a retro-aldol reaction?

A

the reverse of an aldol condensation

836
Q

The retro-aldol reaction yields what two products?

A

two ketones, two aldehydes, or one of each

837
Q

F⁻ is mildly [acidic or basic]

A

basic

838
Q

UV has [higher or lower] energy and [higher or lower] frequency than visible light or IR radiation

A

higher; higher

839
Q

What is refraction?

A

the change in the direction of a sound wave when it is incident upon a tissue at an oblique angle and is determined by Snell’s law

840
Q

What is scattering?

A

when the waves are scattered in all directions in a non-uniform manner

841
Q

What does amplification do to a signal?

A

makes the signal stronger

842
Q

What is ultrasound?

A

sound with a frequency above the human range of hearing

843
Q

An increase in intracellular NADH levels results in [increased or decreased] levels of pyruvate and OAA

A

decreased

844
Q

Conversion of pyruvate to glucose requires its initial conversion into ____________, in a reaction catalyzed by ________ ___________ in the ____________

A

oxaloacetate; pyruvate carboxylase; mitochondria

845
Q

Oxaloacetate (OAA) is then decarboxylated and phosphorylated by cytosolic or mitochondrial forms of what enzyme?

A

phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK)

846
Q

After transport of either OAA in the form of malate or PEP directly from the ____________, the remainder of gluconeogenesis takes place in the _______

A

mitochondria; cytosol

847
Q

What are lipases?

A

enzymes that digest lipids (fats)

848
Q

What is the formula for a straight-chain alkane?

A

CₙH₂ₙ₊₂

849
Q

What is the formula for a double bond?

A

CₙH₂ₙ

850
Q

What is the formula for a triple bond?

A

CₙH₂ₙ₋₂

851
Q

What is aspartme?

A

the methyl ester of the dipeptide containing aspartic acid and phenylalanine

852
Q

This picture is the structure of what type of molecule?

A

dipeptide

853
Q

What is the formula for the efficiency of an engine?

A

ƞ (efficiency) = W/Qₕ

854
Q

What equation does the first law of thermodynamics state?

A

Qh = Qc + W

855
Q

What is the unit for joules in base SI units?

A

kgᐧm²/s²

856
Q

This picture is the structure of what functional group?

A

imide

857
Q

This picture is the structure of what functional group?

A

primary amine

858
Q

This picture is the structure of what functional group?

A

tertiary amine

859
Q

For a pure compound, the melting point range is [broad or narrow]

A

narrow

860
Q

The presence of impurities in a compound [increases or decreases] and [narrows or broadens] the melting point range

A

decreases; broadens

861
Q

Eluting strength depends on what?

A

how strongly a compound adsorbs onto the adsorbent

862
Q

Since typical adsorbents in normal phase TLC are highly polar, eluting strength [increases or decreases] with increasing solvent polarity

A

increases

863
Q

What is the equation for HIC with regards to acceleration?

A

HIC = m x a x t

864
Q

How can normality be calculated?

A

by multiplying the molarity of the solution by the number of protons per molecule of acid

865
Q

According to Huckel’s rule, if a molecule has 6π electrons, then it is ________

A

aromatic

866
Q

What is a heterocycle?

A

a ring of atoms of more than one kind

867
Q

Perchloric acid is a [weak or strong] acid

A

strong

868
Q

What is formula for pH given the [H⁺]?

A

pH = -log[H⁺]

869
Q

What is the pH of a solution that has a hydrogen ion concentration of 1 x 10⁻² M?

A

2

870
Q

The process of mutorotation requires what?

A

ring opening

871
Q

Where does ring opening occur?

A

at a hemiacetal group

872
Q

A hemiacetal group consists of what?

A

a carbon atom directly attached to one -OR group and one -OH group

873
Q

What is cytochrome c oxidase?

A

an enzyme responsible for electron transfer in the electron transport chain

874
Q

True or False: The spinal cord is part of the peripheral nervous system

A

False, the spinal cord is part of the central nervous system

875
Q

Collagen is a primary component in what type of tissue?

A

connective tissue

876
Q

When does phagocytosis in macrophages occur?

A

after the macrophage has identified its target via antigen receptors

877
Q

A hemiacetal consists of what?

A

a carbon atom directly attached to one -OR and one -OH group

878
Q

What is high-performance liquid chromatography?

A

a purification technique in which a liquid solvent (mobile phase) is under pressure and carries a small sample through a column filled with adsorbent material (stationary phase) to a detector

879
Q

In reversed-phase HPLC, the stationary phase is a [polar or nonpolar] compound, and the mobile phase is a comparatively [polar or nonpolar] compound

A

nonpolar; polar

880
Q

What is mass spectrometry?

A

a technique that ionizes molecules, detects the ion’s molecular weight, and generates a plot (mass spectrum) of the abundance of each ion versus its mass-to-charge ratio m/z

881
Q

What is the formula for mass-to-charge ratio m/z?

A
882
Q

Sodium acetate is a ____ ____

A

weak base

883
Q

What is extraction?

A

a technique that uses immiscible solvents to separate molecules in a mixture based on differences in solubility

884
Q

What must occur to precipitate the DNA from aqueous solution?

A

its charge must be neutralized through extraction with ethanol and a salt such as sodium acetate

885
Q

Decreasing the pH of the solvent causes what?

A

an increase in the concentration of H⁺ ions and results in a greater number of multiply charged ions

886
Q

In normal-phase HPLC, the stationary phase is [polar or nonpolar] relative to the mobile phase

A

polar

887
Q

In normal-phase HPLC, molecules with more polar bonds have a [weaker or stronger] affinity for the stationary phase and have longer retention times than molecules with fewer polar bonds

A

stronger

888
Q

In normal-phase HPLC, the molecule that moves through the column slowest, has the longest retention time, and elutes last has what?

A

a greater number of atoms capable of forming hydrogen bonds with the the stationary phase

889
Q

What is the first step for determining the structure of an organic molecule from its name?

A

determine the number of carbon atoms in the parent chain, which is the longest chain containing the highest priority functional group. The prefix of the parent alkane determines the number of carbons and the suffix describes the highest priority functional group

890
Q

What is the second step for determining the structure of an organic molecule from its name?

A

Determine the position and identity of each substituent if any. All substituent names are placed at the beginning of the compound name together with the number of the carbon to which the substituent is attached

891
Q

The reaction of a ketone or an aldehyde with a cyanide ion produces what?

A

a cyanohydrin

892
Q

The cyanohydrin functional group contains what two functional groups on what carbon?

A

a hydroxyl group (-OH) and a cyano group (C⫢N) attached to the same carbon

893
Q

If the Fmoc group is removed by a noncyclic amine, the amine [does or does not] need to be cyclic for protection

A

does not

894
Q

If the Fmoc group is not removed, the cyclic nature of the amine [is or is not] important for deprotection

A

is

895
Q

RP-HPLC uses a [polar or nonpolar] stationary phase and a [polar or nonpolar] mobile phase

A

nonpolar; polar

896
Q

Acetone, methanol, and water are all _____ solvents

A

polar

897
Q

In infrared (IR) spectroscopy, what is the frequency range for O-H stretch?

A

3200-3650 cm⁻¹

898
Q

In infrared (IR) spectroscopy, what is the frequency range for sp C-H stretch?

A

3300 cm⁻¹

899
Q

In infrared (IR) spectroscopy, what is the frequency range for sp² C-H stretch?

A

3100 cm⁻¹

900
Q

In infrared (IR) spectroscopy, what is the frequency range for sp³ C-H stretch?

A

3000 cm⁻¹

901
Q

In infrared (IR) spectroscopy, what is the frequency range for C=O stretch?

A

1650-1810 cm⁻¹

902
Q

Proton nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy detects what?

A

protons in a molecule when an external magnetic field and radio frequency are applied to a sample

903
Q

Hydrogen atoms that are in identical magnetic environments within a molecule exhibit what?

A

rotational or planar symmetry

904
Q

The splitting pattern of a signal is based on what?

A

the n + 1 rule

905
Q

The location of signals in the ¹HNMR spectrum is known as what?

A

the chemical shift

906
Q

An electron cloud around the protons shields them from the external magnetic field, causing what?

A

an upfield signal

907
Q

An electronegative substituent withdraws electrons and deshields neighboring protons from the magnetic field, causing what?

A

a downfield signal

908
Q

What happens in transesterification?

A

the alkoxy group (-OR group) on an ester and alcohol are switched

909
Q

What happens when a battery discharges?

A

the half-reaction at the anode gives up electrons, which are transferred to the cathode (reduction) to complete the other half-reaction

910
Q

What must be present between the half-reactions to achieve the balanced net reaction from the sum of the two half-reactions?

A

an electron balance

911
Q

Identical species appearing as reactants in one half-reaction and as products in the other cancel and [are or are not] part of the net reaction expression

A

are not

912
Q

What are enantiomers?

A

a pair of identical molecules that have the opposite configuration

913
Q

A resolving agent is a ______ molecule

A

chiral

914
Q

The separation of enantiomers requires what?

A

the addition of a resolving agent

915
Q

In a concentration cell, the anode and cathode are made of the [same or different] metal and are surrounded by the [same or different] ionic solution, but the solutions are [the same or different] in concentration

A

same; same; different

916
Q

In the less-concentrated half-cell, cations are [produced or consumed]

A

produced

917
Q

In the more concentrated half-cell, cations are [produced or consumed] until the cation in each half-cell are equal

A

consumed

918
Q

Boyle’s law describes what?

A

the inverse relationship between volume V and pressure P for a fixed number of molecules of an ideal gas at constant temperature

919
Q

Charles’ law describes what?

A

the directly proportional relationship between the volume and the absolute temperature at of a fixed number of molecules of an ideal gas at a constant pressure

920
Q

Avogadro’s law describes what?

A

the directly proportional relationship between the number of moles and the volume of an ideal gas at constant temperature and pressure

921
Q

Guy-Lussac’s law describes what?

A

the directly proportional relationship between the pressure and the absolute temperature of a fixed number of molecules of an ideal gas kept at a constant volume

922
Q

The kinetic molecular theory indicates what?

A

that pressure comes from the combined force of gas particle collisions with the sides of the container

923
Q

What does Avogadro’s law state?

A

that at a constant temperature and pressure, the volume V of an ideal gas is directly proportional to the number of moles n of the gas.

924
Q

What does Dalton’s law of partial pressures state?

A

that in a container with a mixture of gases, the total pressure is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of each of the gases within the container

925
Q

What is the mole fraction?

A

the ratio of the number of moles of an individual gas to the total number of moles

926
Q

What is the formula for the total distance dₜ that the ultrasound travels?

A

the product of the speed of sound c and the echo time tₑ

927
Q

What is the formula for the weight W of an object?

A

the product of its density ⍴, gravitational acceleration g, and volume V

928
Q

What does the Archimedes principle state?

A

an object placed in a fluid experiences a buoyant force Fᵦ equal to the product of the density ⍴f of the fluid, g, and the volume Vd of the displaced fluid

929
Q

The Doppler effect causes what?

A

the frequency of a sound emitted from a source to be perceived as a different frequency by an observer when the source and/or observer are moving relative to the Earth

930
Q

The perceived sound frequency f is calculated from what?

A

the speed of sound v, the observer velocity vₒ, the source velocity vₛ, and the frequency fₛ of the sound transmitted by the source

931
Q

When the observer is moving toward the source, the [plus or minus] sign is used in the [numerator or denominator]

A

plus; numerator

932
Q

When the source is moving toward the observer, the [plus or minus] sign is used in the [numerator or denominator]

A

minus; denominator

933
Q

When the observer is moving away from the source, the [plus or minus] sign is used in the [numerator or denominator]

A

minus; numerator

934
Q

When the source is moving away from the observer, the [plus or minus] sign is used in the [numerator or denominator]

A

plus; denominator

935
Q

For a particular tissue, v equals what?

A

the product of the wavelength λ and f

936
Q

+1 C is equivalent in charge to approximately how many protons?

A

6.24 x 10¹⁸ protons

937
Q

-1 C is equivalent in charge to approximately how many electrons?

A

6.24 x 10¹⁸ electrons

938
Q

The charge magnitudes of one electron and one proton are the smallest unit of charge known as what?

A

the elementary charge qₑ

939
Q

What does the law of conservation of charge state?

A

that electric charge is neither created nor destroyed

940
Q

Only ____ can be exchanged with the surroundings in a closed system

A

heat

941
Q

The amino group of one amino acid reacts with the carboxyl group of another amino acid to form a peptide bond through what kind of reaction?

A

dehydration reaction

942
Q

The carboxyl group of one amino acid loses a hydroxyl group (-OH) and the amino group of the other loses a hydrogen atom, releasing ___ as a _________

A

H₂O; byproduct

943
Q

Serine has a _____ _________ side chain

A

polar uncharged

944
Q

Both arginine and serine are considered __________

A

hydrophilic

945
Q

What type of amino acids predominate in nature?

A

L-amino acids

946
Q

Glyceraldehyde is an oxidized form of what molecule?

A

glycerol

947
Q

What is glyceraldehyde?

A

a three-carbon aldose with one aldehyde group and two hydroxyl groups

948
Q

Chair projections show substituents in what two positions?

A

either axial or equatorial positions

949
Q

Simple distillation is best suited for what conditions?

A

compounds with boiling points<150℃ and >25℃ apart

950
Q

Fractional distillation works best for what conditions?

A

for compounds that have boiling points <150℃ and are <25℃ apart

951
Q

Vacuum distillation is appropriate for what conditions?

A

compounds that have boiling points>150℃

952
Q

__________ is the fully oxidized form of coenzyme Q

A

ubiquinone

953
Q

Coenzyme Q participates in what?

A

the electron transport chain in the mitochondrial membrane

954
Q

What are the lengths of the two distinct chains of triacylglycerol?

A

one with 16 carbons and two with 18 carbons

955
Q

What is saponification?

A

the hydrolysis of ester bonds with a strong base

956
Q

One equivalent of base is defined as what?

A

the amount of base needed to hydrolyze one ester linkage in a triacylglycerol

957
Q

Why are fatty acid sodium salts soluble in aqueous solutions?

A

because the charged carboxyl group and sodium ion interact with water through ion-dipole interactions

958
Q

Why does the protonation of fatty acid sodium salts render the molecule insoluble in water?

A

because the fatty acid is no longer a charged species and so cannot interact as readily with water

959
Q

The long-chain hydrocarbons on fatty acids greatly [increase or decrease] the hydrophobicity of these molecules

A

increase

960
Q

What are geometric isomers?

A

stereoisomers that arise from disubstituted double bonds

961
Q

Why can geometric isomers be separated by gas chromatography?

A

because they have slightly different boiling points

962
Q

In intermolecular collisions cause the movement of heat between high- and low-temperature regions because molecules within high-temperature regions tend to move [slower or faster] and therefore have [smaller or larger] kinetic energies

A

faster; larger

963
Q

What is the elementary charge of an electron?

A

-1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹ C

964
Q

What is the formula for the charge Q on an object?

A

Q = ne

965
Q

Doppler effect describes what?

A

a waveform phenomenon in which the frequency of the waveforms perceived by an observer is greater or less than the real, native frequency of waveforms emitted from the source

966
Q

When do Doppler shifts occur?

A

when the velocity of the waveform source (vₛ) or the velocity of an observer (vₒ) leads to a perceived change in the velocity of the emitted waveforms relative to the observer

967
Q

The motion of the observer or waveform source relative to each other leads to a shift in only the ________ _________ ________ of the sound waveform as successive waveform crests and troughs are perceived closer together or farther apart

A

apparent, perceived velocity

968
Q

Why can no amount of motion by either the source or the observer modify the native velocity of the emitted waveform?

A

because the speed of a waveform is primarily influenced by its type and by the medium through which it travels

969
Q

What is torque 𝜏?

A

a rotational force that causes an object to spin about an axis

970
Q

Torques that cause an object to spin counterclockwise are [positive or negative]

A

positive

971
Q

Torques that cause an object to spin clockwise are [positive or negative]

A

negative

972
Q

When an object is in static equilibrium the net torque is ____

A

zero

973
Q

What is the formula for the lens equation?

A

1/F = 1/o + 1/i

974
Q

The refraction of light through a converging (convex-shaped) lens causes what?

A

parallel light rays to converge at the focal length behind the lens and f is positive

975
Q

A diverging (concave-shaped) lens causes what?

A

incident parallel light rays to diverge and f is negative

976
Q

A dehydration reaction is not stereospecific if what happens?

A

the subsequent loss of a proton will lead to a mixture of cis- and trans-alkenes

977
Q

What is the functional group that represents a peptide bond?

A

an amide group

978
Q

In gas-liquid chromatography, the first peak to emerge will be from the [least or most] polar and the [least or most] volatile compound

A

least; most

979
Q

What happens in an Sₙ2 reaction?

A

there is an inversion of configuration

980
Q

Diluting the solution will [increase or decrease] the percentage ionization by Le Chȃtelier’s Principle

A

increase

981
Q

Adding a strong acid [increases or decreases] the amount of H⁺ in solution and [increase or decrease] the percentage of weak acid that ionizes

A

increases; decrease

982
Q

What is the index of refraction of a medium equal to?

A

the ratio of the speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light in the medium

983
Q

What is the formula for work in terms of power

A

Work = Power x time

984
Q

Disulfide bridges is a type of what kind of bonding?

A

intermolecular covalent bonding

985
Q

True or False: Arginine has a side chain that can promote strong adhesion via electrostatic interaction

A

True, Arginine has a side chain that can promote strong adhesion via electrostatic interaction

986
Q

True or False: Glycine has a side chain that can promote strong adhesion via electrostatic interaction

A

False, Glycine does not have a side chain that can promote strong adhesion via electrostatic interaction

987
Q

Glycine has a side chain that can promote strong adhesion via electrostatic interaction

A

True, Glycine has a side chain that can promote strong adhesion via electrostatic interaction

988
Q

The side chain of serine is a what?

A

primary alcohol

989
Q

Alanine has what kind of side chain?

A

a methyl side chain

990
Q

The side chain of tyrosine is a what?

A

a phenol

991
Q

The side chain of threonine is a what?

A

secondary alcohol

992
Q

True or False: Long alkyl chains are affected by pH

A

False, long alkyl chains are not affected by pH

993
Q

The high number of capillaries in the body means what?

A

the total cross-sectional area of these vessels is larger than any other vessel type in the circulatory system

994
Q

An increase in the total cross-sectional area results in the velocity of the blood [increasing or decreasing]

A

decreasing

995
Q

Rhodopsin kinase catalyzes the reaction between ATP and rhodopsin that causes rhodopsin to be ______________

A

phosphorylated

996
Q

The substrate for rhodopsin kinase that is also the source of phosphate is what?

A

ATP

997
Q

In glycogen, each glucose subunit is connected to an adjacent glucose subunit by what kind of bond?

A

an α-1,4-glycosidic bond

998
Q

In glycogen, branching is due to the formation of what kind of bonds?

A

ɑ-1,6-glycosidic bonds

999
Q

True or False: The ratio of the image height to the object height is equal to the ratio of the lens-image distance to the object-lens distance

A

True

1000
Q

Spontaneous reactions must have a [positive or negative] ΔG°

A

negative

1001
Q

Reactions that create gaseous products from solids and liquids must have a [positive or negative] ΔS°

A

positive

1002
Q

A spontaneous reaction occurs when E° is [greater than, equal to, or less than] zero

A

greater than

1003
Q

What is the measurement unit of power?

A

watt

1004
Q

Watt is defined in units of what?

A

J/s = ftᐧlb/s = kgᐧm²/s³

1005
Q

True or False: Free energy is a measure of reaction rate/activity

A

False, free energy is NOT a measure of reaction rate/activity

1006
Q

A single replacement reaction involves what?

A

the replacement of one type of atom with another in a reaction between a compound and a neutral element in its stable form

1007
Q

Alcohols are [poor or good] leaving groups and [weak or strong] electrophiles

A

poor; weak

1008
Q

How can an alcohol’s leaving group ability be improved?

A

through the formation of a mesylate (-SO₃CH₃) or a tosylate (-SO₃C₆H₄CH₃)

1009
Q

How can mesylates and tosylates be produced?

A

by the reaction of an alcohol with a base and methanesulfonyl chloride or p-toulenesulfonyl chloride, respectively

1010
Q

How can mesylate and tosylate anions stabilize their negative charges?

A

by the delocalization of electrons through resonance

1011
Q

The α-carbon of a carboxylic acid is susceptible to what?

A

substitution reactions such as bromination

1012
Q

What is the Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky (HVZ) reaction?

A

the substitution of bromine on the α-carbon of a carboxylic acid

1013
Q

The Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky (HVZ) reaction begins with what?

A

the addition of PBr₃

1014
Q

What is the side chain of tryptophan?

A

indole

1015
Q

What is the side chain of proline?

A

a cyclic alkyl group that bonds to the nitrogen of the amino acid backbone in a five-membered ring

1016
Q

What is the side chain of histidine?

A

imidazole

1017
Q

What is imidazole?

A

a five-membered aromatic ring containing two nitrogen atoms

1018
Q

What is the side group of tyrosine?

A

phenol

1019
Q

On the periodic table, electronegativity tends to [increase or decrease] across a row and [increase or decrease] down a column

A

increase; decrease

1020
Q

Greater separation between two elements on the periodic table usually indicates what?

A

a greater difference in electronegativity and a larger dipole moment (higher polarity)

1021
Q

What does the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion (VSEPR) theory state?

A

the shape of a molecule can be determined from its Lewis structure by distributing the electron domains as far apart as possible around a central atom to minimize electron repulsion

1022
Q

A molecule’s electron geometry is determined by what?

A

the number of electron-dense regions

1023
Q

The molecular geometry (shape) is determined by what?

A

the orientations the bonded atoms adopt due to the number of bonding and nonbonding electron domains around the central atom

1024
Q

Many intermolecular forces involve what?

A

the partial charges of bond dipoles

1025
Q

When does a dipole-dipole interaction occur?

A

when the opposite partial charges of the permanent dipoles of the polar bonds in neighboring molecules form a mutual attraction

1026
Q

What is theoretical yield?

A

the maximum amount of a product that can be produced from a given amount of the limiting reactant initially present

1027
Q

The overall (net) reaction for the process can be determined from what?

A

the sum of the reactions for each step

1028
Q

What is electronegativity?

A

the tendency of an atom to attract electrons within a bond

1029
Q

The electronegativity of an atom depends on what?

A

the distance of the valence electrons from the nucleus and how well the core electrons shield the valence electrons from the nucleus

1030
Q

On the periodic table, electronegativity tends to [increase or decrease] from left to right across a period and from bottom to top in a group

A

increase

1031
Q

Within each group (column), the atomic radius generally [increases or decreases] from top to bottom

A

increases

1032
Q

Within each period (row), the atomic radius tends to [increase or decrease] from left to right

A

decrease

1033
Q

What is the formula for Zeff?

A

Zeff = Z - S

1034
Q

Substitution reactions require what?

A

a good nucleophile and a good leaving group on a suitable substrate

1035
Q

When do Sₙ2 reactions occur?

A

when a nucleophile attacks an electrophile, causing the leaving group to leave in the same step

1036
Q

Why do Sₙ2 reactions take place more readily on the less substituted carbon?

A

because they are less sterically hindered, allowing the nucleophile easier access to attack the electrophilic substrate

1037
Q

Halide leaving group ability [increases or decreases] as the size of the halide ion increases

A

increases

1038
Q

To determine the suffix, organic compounds with multiple functional groups are named using what?

A

the highest-priority functional group

1039
Q

All other functional groups are named using what?

A

prefixes

1040
Q

Numbering of the longest carbon chain provides what?

A

location references for substituents and stereocenter configurations

1041
Q

Numbering of the longest carbon must assign the [lowest or highest] possible number to the highest-priority group

A

lowest

1042
Q

The color of a substance is determined by what?

A

the wavelengths of light it absorbs

1043
Q

A substance appears to be the color that is _____________ to the color of light that is maximally absorbed

A

complementary

1044
Q

The work done to lift an object is equal to what?

A

its change in gravitational potential energy ΔPE

1045
Q

When does dynamic equilibrium occur?

A

when the sum of all forces acting on an object in motion is equal to zero

1046
Q

What are used to assess the directional components of translational forces?

A

free-body diagrams

1047
Q

What is power?

A

the amount of work done per unit time

1048
Q

The velocity of blood in the aorta is equal to what?

A

the ratio of the cardiac output and the cross-sectional area of the aorta

1049
Q

1 L is equal to how many cm³?

A

1000 cm³

1050
Q

During exercise, what increases to maintain normal body temperature?

A

blood flow to the skin

1051
Q

Excess body heat generated during exercise can be transferred to the surface through what process?

A

convection

1052
Q

Excess body heat generated during exercise can be dissipated into the environment through what process?

A

radiation

1053
Q

The ideal gas law implies what?

A

that the molar volume is 22 L/mol for all gases at standard temperature of 273 K and pressure of 1 atm

1054
Q

Magnetic fields are generated by what?

A

electromagnetic radiation, permanent magnets, or the motion of charged particles

1055
Q

How can the direction of magnetic fields generated by moving charges be determined?

A

using the right-hand rule

1056
Q

True or False: Charged particles intrinsically generate magnetic fields

A

False, charged particles do not intrinsically generate magnetic fields

1057
Q

What is a reaction free-energy diagram?

A

a plot of the Gibbs free energy (y-axis) versus the reaction coordinate (x-axis)

1058
Q

During elementary molecular conversion steps, existing bonds are broken while new bonds are formed, resulting in what?

A

momentary transition states with elevated energy that are seen graphically as energy maxima (peaks)

1059
Q

What is specific rotation?

A

the degree to which a chiral molecule rotates plane-polarized light

1060
Q

True or False: Diastereomers differ in the magnitude of their specific rotations

A

True

1061
Q

True or False: Enantiomers have specific rotations of the same magnitude but opposite direction

A

True

1062
Q

What are conformational isomers?

A

versions of the same molecule that form when an atom rotates about its bond

1063
Q

What are esters?

A

carboxylic acid derivates

1064
Q

How are esters formed?

A

by the condensation of a carboxylic acid and an alcohol under acidic conditions

1065
Q

What are terpenes?

A

a type of lipid made up of branched five-carbon units known as isoprenes

1066
Q

Terpenes are classified according to what?

A

the number of isoprene units present in the molecule

1067
Q

A monoterpene is made up of what?

A

two isoprene units

1068
Q

An Sₙ1 reaction occurs in how many steps?

A

two steps

1069
Q

What are the two steps of an Sₙ1 reaction?

A

a carbocation intermediate is formed when the bond between the leaving group and adjoining carbon atom is broken; next, the nucleophile adds to the carbocation to form the reaction product

1070
Q

Substrates that form a more stable carbocation react [faster or slower] than substrates that form a less stable carbocation

A

faster

1071
Q

Oxidation of an organic molecule requires what?

A

a decrease in the number of C-H bonds and an increase in the number of C-O bonds

1072
Q

Primary alcohols can be oxidized by various oxidizing agents to what?

A

carboxylic acids

1073
Q

Secondary alcohols can be oxidized by various oxidizing agents to what?

A

ketones

1074
Q

Why can’t tertiary alcohols be oxidized?

A

because the tertiary carbon does not have any C-H bonds to lose

1075
Q

Aldehydes are oxidized by various oxidizing agents to what?

A

carboxylic acids

1076
Q

What is chromic acid?

A

an oxidizing agent that can oxidize primary alcohols and aldehydes to carboxylic acids and secondary alcohols to ketones

1077
Q

What are protecting groups?

A

organic molecules added to a functional group to prevent them from reacting under a given set of reaction conditions

1078
Q

Protecting groups tend to be stable against what?

A

oxidation and reduction

1079
Q

Why do London dispersion forces tend to be more pronounced in larger molecules?

A

because larger molecules have larger electron clouds that are more polarizable

1080
Q

Structural changes that increase polar sites on the protein surface [increase or decrease] water solubility

A

increase

1081
Q

Alanine contains what kind of side chain?

A

a methyl side chain

1082
Q

What are two reactions of Sₙ1?

A

carbocation formation and nucleophilic addition

1083
Q

Why do Sₙ1 reactions readily occur with tertiary alkyl halides?

A

because they are sterically hindered and form stable carbocations

1084
Q

As electronegativity decreases, nucleophilicity tends to [increase or decrease] from right to left across a row of the periodic table

A

increase

1085
Q

Atoms of higher electronegativity [more or less] effectively stabilize negative charge and [more or less] readily donate electron density to electrophiles

A

more; less

1086
Q

When does the inductive effect occur?

A

when electron density is donated through sigma bonds

1087
Q

Why are carbocations stabilized by electron donating groups?

A

because they donate electrons to the positively charged carbon

1088
Q

Why are carbocations destabilized by electron withdrawing groups?

A

because they pull electrons away from the carbocation, creating two adjacent positive charges

1089
Q

The extent of a substrate’s ______ _________ can dictate whether Sₙ1 or Sₙ2 is more likely to undergo

A

steric hindrance

1090
Q

Sₙ1 reactions permit [easily accessible or sterically hindered] electrophiles whereas Sₙ2 reactions require [easily accessible or sterically hindered] electrophiles

A

sterically hindered; easily accessible

1091
Q

The Strecker synthesis is used to generate what from an aldehyde using ammonium chloride (NH₄Cl) and potassium cyanide (KCN)?

A

ɑ-amino acids

1092
Q

True or False: Elements within the same group of the periodic table have the same number of valence electrons and exhibit similar chemical properties

A

True, elements within the same group of the periodic table have the same number of valence electrons and exhibit similar chemical properties

1093
Q

The first ionization energy tends to [increase or decrease] across a period and [increase or decrease] moving down a group on the periodic table

A

increase; decrease

1094
Q

Elements with a lower first ionization energy are [easier or harder] to ionize and [more or less] reactive than elements with a higher ionization energy

A

easier; more

1095
Q

Elements can be broadly classified on the periodic table as what?

A

metals, metalloids, and nonmetals

1096
Q

Due to many shared characteristics within each of these categories, the _______ ______ of each element are often useful for qualitative comparisons between elements

A

general traits

1097
Q

What are the representative elements?

A

the elements in Groups 1-2 (1A-2A) and Groups 13-18 (3A-8A) that are contained in the s-block and the p-block, respectively, of the periodic table

1098
Q

What is polarizability?

A

the extent to which an electron cloud of an atom can be distorted by an external charge or by an applied electric field to produce a dipole

1099
Q

What is electronegativity?

A

the tendency of an atom to attract electrons within a bond

1100
Q

Electron affinity assesses what?

A

the tendency of an atom to accept an additional electron by measuring the energy change when an electron is added to an atom

1101
Q

What does ionization energy measure?

A

the energy required to remove an electron from an atom

1102
Q

At standard temperature and pressure (STP), which are 0℃ (273 K) and 1.00 atm, gases occupy a molar volume of what?

A

22.4 L/mol

1103
Q

If a reaction does not occur, it is because ΔH is [greater than, equal to, or less than] TΔS

A

greater than

1104
Q

The pulsed laser radiation interacts with the cornea for a [shorter or longer] time than a continuous laser radiation, thus [less or more] heat is transferred to the cornea

A

shorter; less

1105
Q

The energy of the photon is [directly or inversely] proportional to the wavelength, so the longest wavelength corresponds to the [smallest or largest] photon energy

A

inversely; smallest

1106
Q

NaBH₄ reduces the ketone to what?

A

secondary alcohol

1107
Q

The new ester formed when an alcohol group reacts as a nucleophile with the carbonyl in the ethyl ester is called what?

A

a lactone

1108
Q

The intramolecular transesterification yielding this lactone is called what?

A

lactonization

1109
Q

What is the formula for pH?

A

pH = -log([H₃O⁺])

1110
Q

What is the definition of current?

A

flow of charge per unit time

1111
Q

True or False: Conductors contain both atom-bound electrons and free electrons

A

True, conductors contain both atom-bound electrons and free electrons

1112
Q

How do free electrons arrange themselves?

A

on the surface of conductors

1113
Q

The collective electric field of free electrons produced inside the conductor causes what effect?

A

cancels any external electric field

1114
Q

True or False: Graded potentials occur in the axon

A

False, graded potentials occur in the cell body and dendrites

1115
Q

What happens when threshold is met at the axon hillock?

A

voltage-gated sodium channels open, generating an action potential

1116
Q

What is attenuation?

A

the decrease in the amplitude of a wave due to absorption and scattering

1117
Q

Sound propagates through the vibrations as longitudinal pressure waves, and therefore [can or cannot] exist in a vacuum

A

cannot

1118
Q

Attenuation of sound is greatest in [soft or hard] materials

A

soft

1119
Q

Sound travels most slowly in _____ and most quickly in ______

A

gases; solids

1120
Q

When does the Doppler effect occur?

A

when the observed frequency and wavelength of a sound are shifted from those of the original due to relative motion between the source and the observer

1121
Q

The frequency shift is [positive or negative] when the source velocity is negative

A

positive

1122
Q

The frequency shift is [positive or negative] when the source velocity is positive

A

negative

1123
Q

Sound is propagated in the form of what?

A

pressure waves by the vibrations of the molecules in a medium

1124
Q

How does the rapid expansion and contraction of crystals create pressure waves?

A

by vibrating nearby particles

1125
Q

What is the period of a wave?

A

the amount of time for one cycle to pass through a fixed point

1126
Q

The period of a wave is the reciprocal of what?

A

frequency

1127
Q

Concave mirrors create what kinds of images when the object is placed outside the mirror’s focal length?

A

real images

1128
Q

For spherical mirrors, the radius of curvature is _____ the focal length

A

twice

1129
Q

When does constructive interference occur?

A

when the sum of the amplitudes results in a larger amplitude

1130
Q

When does destructive interference occur?

A

when the sum of the amplitudes results in a smaller amplitude

1131
Q

A wave is combined with a copy of itself that has been flipped across the x-axis would result in what?

A

complete destructive interference

1132
Q

The frequency of a sound is associated with what?

A

its perceived pitch

1133
Q

What is the Doppler effect?

A

when relative motion exists between a sound source and an observer, the observed frequency and wavelength differ from that of the original frequency and wavelength

1134
Q

When the source moves toward the observer, the observed wavelength [increases or decreases] and the observed frequency [increases or decreases]

A

decreases; increases

1135
Q

For a pipe open at both ends, the length is ____ the fundamental frequency wavelength

A

half

1136
Q

Why does the current entering and exiting a resistor remain the same?

A

because electric charge is always conserved

1137
Q

The voltage across a resistor is the product of what?

A

resistance and current

1138
Q

What is the apparent weight of a submerged object?

A

its reduced weight due to an upward buoyant force

1139
Q

The buoyant force is equal to the product of what?

A

the fluid’s density ρ, volume of displaced fluid V, and the gravitational acceleration g

1140
Q

For an object fully immersed in two different fluids, the ratio of the buoyant forces is equal to what?

A

the ratio of the fluid densities

1141
Q

What is hydrostatic pressure?

A

the pressure exerted by the weight of a static fluid

1142
Q

What happens when a mass experiences a net force?

A

the mass will accelerate in the direction of the force

1143
Q

What happens when no net force acts on an object?

A

the object’s velocity remains unchanged

1144
Q

The resistance of an object is [directly or inversely] proportional to its resistivity and length but [directly or inversely] proportional to its cross-sectional area

A

directly; inversely

1145
Q

Resistivity assesses what?

A

the intrinsic resistance within a defined volume of a material

1146
Q

Coulomb’s law may be used to determine what?

A

the electric force generated by two point charges separated by some distance

1147
Q

Electric force is [directly or inversely] proportional to the square of the distance separating the two charges

A

inversely

1148
Q

The fundamental frequency of a wave is directly proportional to what?

A

wave speed

1149
Q

The fundamental frequency of a wave is inversely proportional to what?

A

wavelength

1150
Q

For a string fixed at both ends, the wavelength of each harmonic is _____________ to the string length

A

proportional

1151
Q

What is magnification?

A

the phenomenon in which a lens produces an image that is enlarged or shrunken relative to the original object

1152
Q

Multi-lens systems arranged in series provide what?

A

a combined magnification equal to the product of all individual lens magnifications

1153
Q

Using oxidation state rules, the oxidation number of each atom in a compound formula may be determined on the basis that what?

A

the sum of the oxidation states of each atom must equal the net charge of the compound or ion

1154
Q

What is a disproportionation reaction?

A

a special case of an oxidation-reduction reaction in which both the oxidation and the reduction occur to atoms of the same element

1155
Q

How can a disproportionation reaction be identified?

A

by comparing the oxidation number of a given element in the reactants with the oxidation number of that same element in the products

1156
Q

What is high-performance liquid chromatography?

A

a purification technique that separates compounds based on polarity and consists of a mobile phase, stationary phase, detector, and computer for data acquisition

1157
Q

What is the mobile phase?

A

a solvent or mixture of solvents that are pumped through the system under pressure

1158
Q

What is the stationary phase?

A

a column made of either a polar or nonpolar material

1159
Q

¹HNMR detects what?

A

hydrogen atoms in a molecule as an external magnetic field and radio frequency pulse are applied to the sample

1160
Q

The splitting pattern can be determined by what?

A

the n+1 rule

1161
Q

The pH of a solution is defined as what?

A

pH = -log[H⁺]

1162
Q

[H⁺] and [OH⁻] concentrations are related by what?

A

the self-ionization constant Kw of water

1163
Q

pH is related to [OH⁻] by what relationship?

A

pH + pOH = 14

1164
Q

The pOH scale is defined as what?

A

pOH = -log[OH⁻]

1165
Q

The pH and pOH scales are [directly or inversely] correlated

A

inversely

1166
Q

The pH unit is based on a logarithmic scale defined as what?

A

pH = -log[H₃O⁺]

1167
Q

The magnitude of [H₃O⁺] is given by what expression?

A

Factor Δ[H₃O⁺] = 10⁻^ΔpH

1168
Q

How can a standard solution be made?

A

by diluting a particular amount of a stock solution

1169
Q

Because the number of solute particles stays the same, the ratio of concentrations can be calculated to determine what?

A

how much smaller the concentration of the standard solution is compared to the stock solution

1170
Q

How can the analyte concentration in an unknown sample be determined?

A

by comparing its absorbance to a calibration curve prepared using the measured absorbances of standard solutions with known concentrations

1171
Q

The determined concentration may then be used to calculate the mass of the analyte present in the sample based on what?

A

the solution volume, relevant mole ratios, and the molar mass of the analyte

1172
Q

Of the common representative elements, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, fluorine, chlorine, bromine, and iodine occur naturally as what?

A

covalently bonded diatomic molecules in an elemental state to achieve a full valence shell

1173
Q

Which two elements do not exist as a gas a room temperature?

A

bromine and iodine

1174
Q

Amino acids are important biological molecules that make up what?

A

proteins

1175
Q

Amino acids contain what?

A

amino group, carboxyl group, and a side chain all bonded to an ɑ-carbon

1176
Q

Amino acids can be grouped together based on what?

A

the classification of the side chains and functional group

1177
Q

What are the classifications of amino acids?

A

aromatic, hydrophilic or hydrophobic, acidic or basic, and charged or uncharged

1178
Q

An aldol condensation results in what?

A

a new carbon-carbon bond and an ɑ,β-unsaturated enone

1179
Q

An aldol condensation requires what?

A

two carbonyl groups and occurs by the nucleophilic attack of an enolate on a carbonyl followed by elimination

1180
Q

A diketone substrate will result in what?

A

cyclization and formation of a five- or six-membered ring

1181
Q

Acid ionization in an aqueous solution produces what?

A

hydronium ions and a corresponding conjugate base of the ionized acid

1182
Q

Both the acid and its conjugate base interact with water and establish equilibria that can be described by molar concentration ratios in the form of what?

A

the acid dissociation constant Kₐ and the base dissociation constant Kᵦ

1183
Q

In aqueous solutions, strong acids ionize essentially 100%, giving [small or large] values of Kₐ and [high or low] [H⁺]

A

large; high

1184
Q

Weak acids ionize only to a small extent, giving [small or large] values of Kₐ and [H⁺] that are much [lower or higher] than the concentration of the non-ionized acid

A

small; lower

1185
Q

A water-soluble salt formed from the conjugate base of a weak acid dissociates [partially or fully] in an aqueous solution

A

fully

1186
Q

Because the salt contains the conjugate base of a weak acid, the resulting solution often exhibits a [acidic or basic] pH

A

basic

1187
Q

How does a reducing agent cause a reduction in another compound?

A

by giving electrons to the other compound

1188
Q

Oxidation state accounts for what?

A

electrons gained or lost by a particular atom

1189
Q

The magnitude and direction of the attractive or repulsive forces exerted between electric charges are [directly or inversely] proportional to the charge of each particle but [directly or inversely] proportional to the square of the distance separating the charges

A

directly; inversely

1190
Q

What does Coulomb’s law state?

A

the electrostatic force between two charged objects is directly proportional to the product of charge magnitudes

1191
Q

Increasing the charge on one object [increases or decreases] the electrostatic force on the other object

A

increases

1192
Q

The electric force between two charged objects is [directly or inversely] proportional to the product of the magnitude of charge and [directly or inversely] proportional to the square of their separation distance

A

directly; inversely

1193
Q

The acceleration of an object is always [directly or inversely] proportional to the force acting on that object and [directly or inversely] proportional to the mass of that object

A

directly; inversely

1194
Q

What is the equation for capacitor strength?

A

C = Q/V

1195
Q

The electromotive force quantifies what?

A

the capacity of electrical generators to establish an electric potential energy gradient

1196
Q

Due to internal resistance within the electrical generator, the observed terminal voltage is [less than, equal to, or greater than] the electromotive force

A

less than

1197
Q

Circuits composed of multiple loops contain what?

A

junctions

1198
Q

The current entering any junction must be equal to what?

A

the current exiting the junction

1199
Q

Conductivity is an intensive property that quantifies what?

A

the ease with which current flows through a material acting as an electrical conductor

1200
Q

Conductivity is [directly or inversely] proportional to resistivity

A

inversely

1201
Q

The order of elution will depend on the ________ of the molecule

A

polarity

1202
Q

Silica gel serves as the stationary phase for the experiment, increasing the polarity of the eluting molecule will [increase or decrease] the elution time

A

increase

1203
Q

As the person is attempting to stand, the only support comes from what?

A

the feet on the ground

1204
Q

The person is in equilibrium only when what?

A

the center of mass is directly above their feet

1205
Q

At pH 7.2, the N-terminus will be [positively or negatively] charged and the C-terminus will be [positively or negatively] charged

A

positively; negatively

1206
Q

G–C base pairs form [weaker or stronger] π-stacking interactions than A–T base pairs, thereby creating the [least or most] thermal stability

A

stronger; most

1207
Q

What is a coordinate covalent bond?

A

the Lewis acid–base interaction between a metal cation and an electron pair donor

1208
Q

What happens as guanine and cytosine form base pairs on opposite DNA strands?

A

they will occur in equal amounts within a specific DNA sequence

1209
Q

True or False: Sugar-phosphate backbones form the interior of the double helix

A

False, sugar-phosphate backbones form the exterior of the double helix

1210
Q

What is the formula for work done in terms of x and the elastic constant?

A

W = 1/2kx²

1211
Q

Lenses have a negative focal length means they are [converging or diverging] lenses

A

diverging

1212
Q

Diverging lenses form what?

A

virtual and reduced images of objects

1213
Q

Secondary structure is represented by repeated patterns of hydrogen bonds between what?

A

the backbone amide protons and carbonyl oxygen atoms

1214
Q

Gabriel synthesis is a method that uses what as starting materials to synthesize amino acids?

A

potassium phthalimide and diethyl bromomalonate

1215
Q

The starting reagents of the Gabriel and Strecker syntheses are all what?

A

planar

1216
Q

In a neutral environment, why are amino acids zwitterions?

A

because the N- and C-termini are charged

1217
Q

In a neutral environment, the carboxyl group is [protonated or deprotonated] and in its [conjugate acid or conjugate base] form

A

deprotonated; conjugate base

1218
Q

In a neutral environment, the amine group is [protonated or deprotonated] and in its [conjugate acid or conjugate base] form

A

protonated; conjugate acid

1219
Q

A conjugated system of alternating single and double bonds in a molecule causes what?

A

electron delocalization

1220
Q

Sₙ1 reactions that generate an allylic carbocation lead to the formation of what?

A

multiple substitution products

1221
Q

Atomic hybridization can be determined by what?

A

the number of electron domains

1222
Q

True or False: The number of electron domains may change throughout a reaction process

A

True

1223
Q

What is the rate-limiting step in an Sₙ1 reaction?

A

the formation of the initial carbocation

1224
Q

Tertiary carbocations have the [least or greatest] stability and provide the [lowest or highest] rate of Sₙ1 reactions

A

greatest; highest

1225
Q

First-order (Sₙ1) substitution reactions are ____ order with respect to the nucleophile

A

zero

1226
Q

True or False: The identity of the nucleophile will affect the rate of Sₙ1 product formation

A

False, the identity of the nucleophile will not affect the rate of Sₙ1 product formation

1227
Q

For two depictions of a molecule to be considered the same compound, the atoms must have the same what?

A

relative position and stereochemical orientation

1228
Q

The energy delivered in one pulse is given by what?

A

the product between the power and the pulse duration

1229
Q

What is the thin lens formula in terms of solving for f?

A

f = (dₒ x dᵢ)/(dₒ+dᵢ)

1230
Q

What is the kinetic energy of a photoelectron equal to?

A

hf - work function

1231
Q

In oxidation-reduction (redox) reactions, a chemical conversion causes a change in what?

A

the oxidation state of one or more of the constituent elements

1232
Q

For redox processes expressed as two half-reactions, how is the net reaction found?

A

by adding the two half-reactions together so that the electron terms cancel

1233
Q

What is a Brønsted-Lowry acid?

A

a species that donates an H⁺ ion

1234
Q

What is a Lewis acid?

A

a species that accepts an electron pair

1235
Q

What is a Brønsted-Lowry base?

A

a species that accepts an H⁺ ion

1236
Q

What is a Lewis base?

A

a species that donates an electron pair

1237
Q

Small, highly charged metal cations can form hydrated complexes that are [weakly acidic, weakly basic, strongly acidic, or strongly basic]

A

weakly acidic

1238
Q

The acid dissociation constant Kₐ indicates what?

A

the extent to which a weak acid ionizes in solution

1239
Q

The pH of the solution is determined by what?

A

the equilibrium concentration of the hydronium ion produced by the ionization of the acid

1240
Q

Double replacement reactions involve what?

A

the exchange of the bonding partners of two reactant compounds, forming two new product compounds

1241
Q

Decomposition reactions involve what?

A

a single compound breaking down into two or more new compounds

1242
Q

Multiplying the specific heat capacity by the mass and change in temperature of a sample yields what?

A

the associated amount of heat absorbed or released by the sample

1243
Q

How is the molar enthalpy of a reaction calculated?

A

dividing the heat of the reaction by the moles of the reaction

1244
Q

Under conditions of standard temperature and pressure (STP), 1 mole of a gas occupies a volume of what?

A

22.4 L

1245
Q

Given the mass of a compound sample, the number of moles present in the sample can be determined using what?

A

its molar mass

1246
Q

Relating a known number of moles of a reactant to a balanced reaction equation, what can be applied to determine the stoichiometry of one chemical species relative to another species in a reaction?

A

mole ratios

1247
Q

This compound is called what?

A

phosphatidyl choline

1248
Q

Phosphatidyl choline is a phospholipid member of what group of compounds?

A

phosphatides

1249
Q

Co(II) is a dication and is formed from the atomic element by the loss of ___ __ _________. As a consequence, only _____ __ __________ remain in the valence shell

A

two 4s electrons; seven 3d electrons

1250
Q

Alanine residue is a [hydrophobic or hydrophilic] residue that is also [small or large] in size

A

hydrophobic; small

1251
Q

Mechanical waves such as sound exist only in what?

A

a medium

1252
Q

True or False: Electromagnetic waves can propagate, even in a vacuum

A

True

1253
Q

The energy carried by a mechanical wave depends only on what?

A

its amplitude

1254
Q

Mechanical waves with a higher amplitude carry [greater or less] energy than waves with a lower amplitude

A

greater

1255
Q

The frequency of a sound is directly related to what?

A

wave speed

1256
Q

The frequency of a sound is inversely related to what?

A

wavelength

1257
Q

Sound waves travel faster in [warmer or cooler] air and slower in [warmer or cooler] air

A

warmer; cooler

1258
Q

What are longitudinal waves?

A

waves that displace a medium parallel to the direction of the wave’s propagation

1259
Q

What are ultrasound waves?

A

sound waves of high frequency

1260
Q

True or False: Mechanical waves propagate through a medium

A

True

1261
Q

Wavelength and amplitude are both [independent or dependent] on the type of medium

A

dependent

1262
Q

Frequency is [independent or dependent] of the medium

A

independent

1263
Q

What is wavelength?

A

the distance between successive crests or troughs of a wave

1264
Q

What is the bond that links monosaccharides together in an oligosaccharide is a special type of acetal linkage?

A

glycoside bond

1265
Q

An aldol addition occurs only under what circumstances?

A

if there is no dehydration in an aldol condensation

1266
Q

What is the formula for the energy of a capacitor?

A

Energy of a capacitor = 1/2 x F x V²

1267
Q

What is the formula for power?

A

Power = Force x velocity

1268
Q

A linear graph is represented by one shown as a [curve or straight line]

A

curve

1269
Q

The relative thermodynamic stability of isomers can be determined based on what?

A

the amount of heat produced when the compounds are combusted

1270
Q

The best site for tritium labeling [would or would not] exchange the tritium ions for protons in water

A

would not

1271
Q

The activation energy for a reaction represents what?

A

the minimum energy barrier necessary to be overcome by the reactants on the path to products

1272
Q

What must happen in order to lower the pH of a buffer?

A

the proportion of acidic buffer component must be increased

1273
Q

The formation of a peptide bond is accompanied by what?

A

the formation of water as a by-product

1274
Q

What is the equilibrium constant for DNA unfolding?

A

Keq = [unfolded]/[native]

1275
Q

What is the pK?

A

the pH at which the fraction of folded DNA is 0.5

1276
Q

Cooperativity is measured as what?

A

the slope of the unfolding transition

1277
Q

What property of a wave is not affected by the medium through which it propagates?

A

the frequency of a wave

1278
Q

What is the formula for velocity in terms of the frequency and the wavelength?

A

v = 𝜆f

1279
Q

When does spherical aberration occur?

A

when lenses with perfectly rounded surfaces focus light at multiple focal points

1280
Q

Spherical aberration is most pronounced among light rays entering and exiting the periphery of [converging or diverging] lenses

A

converging

1281
Q

Why do X-rays diffract within molecules?

A

because the space between atoms is comparable to the wavelength of x-rays

1282
Q

X-ray diffraction through a sample of a purified and crystallized material can be used to determine what?

A

its three-dimensional molecular structure and packing

1283
Q

Hyperopia describes what?

A

the refractive error that results in an individual being unable to see nearby objects

1284
Q

Hyperopia is caused by what?

A

the optical power of the eye being insufficient relative to the length of the eye

1285
Q

Hyperopia is corrected by placing a [converging or diverging] lens in front of the eye

A

converging

1286
Q

Thin-film interference describes what?

A

the multicolored array generated when polychromatic light is incident on an interface formed by two semitransparent media

1287
Q

Localized discrepancies within the thickness of a thin film contribute to what?

A

variable interference patterns that produce the colorful array

1288
Q

The photoelectric effect describes what?

A

the ejection of electrons from a substance due to the absorption of electromagnetic radiation with sufficient energy

1289
Q

Because the energy needed to eject an electron is fixed via its work function, increasing the energy of electromagnetic radiation will [increase or decrease] the kinetic energy of ejected electrons

A

increase

1290
Q

Concave mirrors form what kinds of images of objects placed outside of mirror focal length?

A

real, inverted images

1291
Q

What is the focal length of a concave spherical mirror relative to the radius of curvature?

A

half the radius of curvature

1292
Q

The focal length is positioned [in front of or behind] the mirror

A

in front of

1293
Q

The electromagnetic radiation consists of what?

A

radiation types with different wavelengths, frequencies, and energies

1294
Q

Ordering the electromagnetic spectrum in terms of decreasing wavelength is equivalent to ordering the electromagnetic spectrum in terms of [increasing or decreasing] energy

A

increasing

1295
Q

Transverse waves displace a medium [parallel or perpendicular] to the direction of the wave’s propagation

A

perpendicular

1296
Q

Longitudinal waves displace a medium [parallel or perpendicular] to the direction of the wave’s propagation

A

parallel

1297
Q

Water waves in the ocean are an example of what kind of wave?

A

transverse wave

1298
Q

Sound waves are an example of what kind of wave?

A

longitudinal wave

1299
Q

What are conformational isomers?

A

structures that have the same formula and connectivity and can be interconverted by the rotation of σ bonds

1300
Q

Because conformational isomers are identical except for structural bond rotations, they are the [same compound or different compound]

A

same compound

1301
Q

Ketones undergo acid-catalyzed addition of 1° to form what?

A

imines

1302
Q

Aldehydes undergo acid-catalyzed addition of 2° to form what?

A

enamines

1303
Q

Like aldehydes and ketones, imines contain what?

A

a carbon-heteroatom double bond

1304
Q

Enamines are the nitrogen analogue to enols containing what?

A

a carbon-carbon double bond

1305
Q

Ionic bonds involve what?

A

complete transfer of electrons from an atom with low electronegativity to an atom with high electronegativity

1306
Q

Covalent bonds are considered polar if the sharing is [equal or unequal]

A

unequal

1307
Q

Covalent bonds are considered nonpolar if the sharing is [equal or unequal]

A

equal

1308
Q

The energy required to break a bond, known as the bond dissociation energy, is related to what?

A

the bond length

1309
Q

Atoms with smaller radii tend to form [shorter or longer] and [weaker or stronger] bonds than atoms with larger radii

A

shorter; stronger

1310
Q

Why are alkali metals very reactive?

A

because of their low ionization energy, large atomic radius, and small electronegativity

1311
Q

What element is considered the most reactive metal?

A

cesium

1312
Q

The acid halides are all strong acids except for what?

A

H-F

1313
Q

Fluorine is the most electronegative atom and has the [smallest or largest] atomic radius of the halides, resulting in [weak or strong] bond formation

A

smallest; strong

1314
Q

What is electron affinity?

A

the measure of energy change when an electron is added to an atom in the gaseous state

1315
Q

Electron-electron repulsions result in an [increased or decreased] electron affinity

A

decreased

1316
Q

Ion-dipole interactions occur between what?

A

the partial charge of a permanent dipole and the full charge of an ion

1317
Q

When do dipole-induced dipole interactions occur?

A

when a permanent dipole induces a weak temporary dipole in a nonpolar bond or atom

1318
Q

Dipole-dipole interactions occur between what?

A

the partial charges of two permanent dipoles

1319
Q

True or False: Soluble ionic compounds act as electrically conductive electrolytes in solution

A

True

1320
Q

True or False: Covalent molecular compounds generally conduct electricity in solution

A

False, covalent molecular compounds generally do not conduct electricity in solution

1321
Q

When a battery is discharging, it behaves as what kind of cell?

A

a galvanic cell

1322
Q

When a battery is charging, it behaves as what kind of cell?

A

electrolytic cell

1323
Q

Where does oxidation always occur?

A

at the anode

1324
Q

Where does reduction always occur?

A

at the cathode

1325
Q

Electrons always flow in what direction?

A

from the anode to the cathode

1326
Q

In an electrolytic cell, the deposition of solids by the reduction of a metal ion onto the cathode surface is known as what?

A

electroplating

1327
Q

When charging a battery, an external [positive or negative] electric potential must be applied to force the spontaneous oxidation reaction in the nonspontaneous direction

A

positive

1328
Q

A lead storage battery is an example of what kind of reaction that occurs in an acidic electrolyte?

A

oxidation-reduction reaction

1329
Q

What is energy density?

A

the amount of energy produced by a battery per unit of mass

1330
Q

Solvent diffusion across the semipermeable membrane during osmosis produces what?

A

an osmotic pressure against the membrane proportional to the osmolarity

1331
Q

Solute concentration and osmolarity are related by what?

A

the van ‘t Hoff factor

1332
Q

Nucleophilic substitution reactions can proceed by what specific mechanisms?

A

Sₙ1 or Sₙ2

1333
Q

Gas chromatography separates compounds primarily by what?

A

boiling point

1334
Q

Molecules with low boiling points elute [before or after] those with high boiling points

A

before

1335
Q

Rank the functional groups from the lowest boiling point to the highest boiling point

A

alkanes → aldehydes and ketones → alcohols → carboxylic acids

1336
Q

Acidity of a functional group is determined by what?

A

the stability of the conjugate base it forms

1337
Q

What factors contribute to acidity?

A

size of the proton-donating atom, electronegativity of the proton-donating atom, and the ability to stabilize the negatively charged atom in the conjugate base by charge distribution or resonance contribute to acidity

1338
Q

What are amides?

A

carboxylic acid derivatives made up of an acyl group bonded to an -NR₂ substituent

1339
Q

Amides form from what?

A

the condensation of any carboxylic acid derivative with a primary or secondary amine

1340
Q

β-lactams are a class of cyclic amides that exhibit significant ring strain due to what?

A

their small ring size, making the carbonyl carbon more reactive than noncyclic amides

1341
Q

Carboxylic acid derivatives can undergo what?

A

nucleophilic acyl substitution

1342
Q

Anhydrides are cleaved in a nucleophilic acyl substitution reaction into what?

A

a carboxylic acid and an ester or an amide

1343
Q

Cyclic anhydrides are converted into a single hydrocarbon chain with what?

A

a carboxylic acid on one end and an ester or an amide on the other