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EPPP > Learning, CBT, Memory > Flashcards

Learning, CBT, Memory Flashcards

1
Q

List the 3 major factors that contribute to the effectiveness of classical conditioning.

(Classical conditioning)

A
  1. Temporal relationship between the CS and US
  2. Number of conditioning trials
  3. Pre-exposure to the CS or US
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2
Q

List the types of temporal relationships in classical conditioning

(Classical conditioning)

A
  1. Delay conditioning
  2. Trace conditioning
  3. Simultaneous conditioning
  4. Backward conditioning
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3
Q

Delay conditioning

Classical conditioning

A

Presenting the CS so it precedes and overlaps (.5s) presentation of US

*most effecient, will establish a strong response

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4
Q

Trace conditioning

classical conditioning

A

Presenting and terminating the CS prior to presenting the US

Produces a weaker CR than delayed conditioning

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5
Q

Simultanous conditioning

Classical conditioning

A

Presenting and withdrawing the CS and US simultaneously together

Produces a weaker CR than both delayed and trace conditioning

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6
Q

Backward conditioning

Classical conditioning

A

Presenting the US prior to the CS

Does not usually produce a CR; essentially ineffective

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7
Q

Number of conditioning trials

Classical conditioning

A

the greater the number of conditioning trials, the stronger and more persistent the CR will be

Regardless of the number of trials, the CR is usually weaker in magnitude and intensity than the UR

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8
Q

Pre-exposure to CS or US

Classical conditioning

A

repeated exposure to the US or intended CS before the CS and US are paired slows down the acquisition of the CR

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9
Q

psychic excretion

classical conditioning

A

AKA conditioned reflex; result of mental activity

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10
Q

classical conditioning

A

explains how certain stimuli automatically elicit a particular response

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11
Q

Pavlov’s signature experiment of classical conditioning

classical conditioning

A

Pairing a US (meat powder) with a CS (tone) to elicit a CR (salivation)

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12
Q

unconditioned stimulus (US)

Classical conditioning

A

stimulus that naturally elicits a certain physiological response

(e.g., meat powder)

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13
Q

unconditioned response (UR)

classical conditioning

A

physiological response that is naturally elicited by the presentation of an unconditioned stimulus

(e.g., salivation)

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14
Q

conditioned stimulus (CS)

Classical conditioning

A

aka neutral stimulus

stimulus that is paired with a US to elicit that same physiological response

(e.g., tone)

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15
Q

conditioned response (CR)

classical conditioning

A

physiological response that is conditioned (trained) to occur after being presented with the pairing of a CS and US

(e.g., salivation)

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16
Q

classical extinction

classical conditioning

A

gradual disappearance of CR due to repeated presentation of the CS alone

(e.g., no more salivation when the tone is presented by itself)

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17
Q

spontaneous recovery

Classical conditioning

A

suppression of the CR vs. being eliminated entirely by extinction trials

-learning is never fully lost, but inhibited

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18
Q

2 important characteristics of classical conditioning:

classical conditioning

A
  1. Following extinction, fewer trials are needed to re-establish the CS-CR relationship than were needed to establish it initially
  2. CR rarely extinguishes all at once (i.e., spontaneous recovery)
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19
Q

stimulus generalization

classical conditioning

A

when the individual produces a CR to not only the CS but to stimuli that are similar to the CS
(e.g., salivating to both a 500 Hz tone (CS) and to 400 Hz and 600 Hz tones)

may not be confined to a single sense modality (e.g., picture of bell or spoken word “bell”)

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20
Q

stimulus discrimination

classical conditioning

A

OPPOSITE of stimulus generalization
ability to discriminate between the CS and similar stimuli AND only respond with a CR to the CS
established through discrimination training

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21
Q

discrimination training

classical conditioning

A

process to extinguish stimulus generalization through selective reinforcement and extinction

(e. g., to eliminate stimulus generalization to a dog conditioned to salivate (CS) at 500 Hz tone (CS)
- - the 500 Hz tone must be consistently followed by presentation of meat powder
- - the 400 Hz and 600 Hz tones must be presented repeatedly without meat powder

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22
Q

experimental neurosis

classical conditioning

A

variety of uncharacteristic behaviors (e.g., restlessness, agitation, unprovoked aggressiveness) exhibited by very difficult discriminations
-may result from conflict between cortical excitation and inhibition

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23
Q

higher order conditioning

classical conditioning

A

-AKA second order conditioning
when a 2nd NS is repeatedly paired with a previously CS, the 2nd NS eventually produces a CR

(e. g., dogs who learned to salivate to a tone were exposed to conditioning where a flashing light was repeatedly present right before the tone
- – tone = US when paired with light
- – after several trials, light alone (CS) elicits salivation (CR)

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24
Q

blocking

classical conditioning

A

occurs after an association is made between the CS (tone) and US (meat powder)
presence of CS (tone) BLOCKS the association between a 2nd NS (electric shock) and US (meat powder) when the CS (tone) and 2nd NS (shock) are presented together PRIOR to the US (meat powder)

(e. g., tone (CS) paired with electric shock (2nd NS)
- - tone alone (CS) will produce a fear reaction (CR)

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24
Q

blocking

classical conditioning

A

occurs after an association is made between the CS (tone) and US (meat powder)
presence of CS (tone) BLOCKS the association between a 2nd NS (electric shock) and US (meat powder) when the CS (tone) and 2nd NS (shock) are presented together PRIOR to the US (meat powder)

(e. g., tone (CS) paired with electric shock (2nd NS)
- - tone alone (CS) will produce a fear reaction (CR)

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25
Q

blocking

classical conditioning

A

occurs after an association is made between the CS (tone) and US (meat powder)
presence of CS BLOCKS the association between a 2nd NS and US when the CS and 2nd NS are presented together PRIOR to the US
- occurs because the CS (tone) already predicts the occurrence of the 2nd NS (shock), so the new stimuli (light) is only providing redundant information

(e. g., tone (CS) paired with electric shock (2nd NS) –> produces a fear reaction (CR)
- - tone alone (CS) will produce a fear reaction (CR)
- -then tone (CS) presented with light (3rd NS) prior to shock (2nd NS)
- -flashing light (3rd NS) alone will NOT produce a fear response (CR)

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26
Q

overshadowing

classical conditioning

A

2 neutral stimuli (vs. a CS with a new NS) are repeated together prior to presentation of a US
the 2 stimuli together produce a CR, but when the 2 are presented separately, only 1 of them produces a CR
1 stimuli is more salient to the subject

(e. g., tone with a flashing light are paired together and then is followed by a shock, which produces a paired fear reaction
- -the tone and light are presented separately, ONLY 1 of those will elicit the fear reaction)

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27
Q

Two primary researchers of classical conditioning

A

Ivan Pavlov

John B. Watson

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28
Q

John B. Watson

Classical conditioning

A

“father of American behaviorism”
believes that you need to study observable, measurable behaviors
used classical conditioning to establish a phobia in 11-month old Little Albert

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29
Q

Little Albert experiment

classical conditioning

A

unexpected loud noise (US) naturally elicited startle response (UR)
exposed Little Albert to conditioning of white rat (CS) prior to the noise
after 1 week, rat alone (CS) elicited a startle response (CR)

experiment of stimulus generalization— fear of all furry white objects

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30
Q

What do interventions based on counterconditioning seek to do?

(classical conditioning)

A

eliminate a maladaptive behavior by pairing a stimulus (CS) associated with that behavior with a stimulus (US) that naturally elicits an incompatible behavior

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31
Q

Reciprocal inhibition

Classical conditioning

A
  • Intervention based on counterconditioning by Wolpe, 1958
  • can be used to weaken and eliminate anxiety reactions
  • **if the response is antagonistic to anxiety it can be made to occur in the presence of anxiety-evoking stimuli so that it is accompanied by a complete or partial suppression of anxiety responses
    • the bond between these stimuli and anxiety response will be weakened
      e. g., relaxation, assertiveness, sexual arousal
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32
Q

What are two of the interventions based on counterconditioning?

(classical conditioning)

A
  1. systematic desensitization

2. Behavior sex therapy

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33
Q

What is systematic desensitization and list the 4 stages?

classical conditioning

A
  • an application of reciprocal inhibition for eliminating anxiety responses
    1. Relaxation training
    2. Construction of anxiety hierarchy
    3. Desensitization in imagination
    4. in-vivo desensitization
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34
Q

Relaxation training

classical conditioning

A

therapist teaches client to use a technique that produces a state of relaxation

e.g., PMR, guided imagery

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35
Q

Construction of anxiety hierarchy

classical conditioning

A

client and therapist construct and anxiety hierarchy which consists of events related to target behaviors and are derived on the basis of anxiety that they provoke
-use Subjective Units of Distress Scale (SUDS) to rate from 0 (no anxiety) to 100 (severe anxiety)

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36
Q

Desensitization in Imagination

classical conditioning

A

pair relaxation with items in the anxiety hierarchy beginning with the least anxiety-provoking item

  • therapist then instructs patient to relax using a technique learned in Stage 1
  • once patient is relaxed, therapist instructs him/her to imagine appropriate anxiety hierarchy item
  • client signals therapist whenever he/she feels anxious, and therapist helps client re-establish a state of relaxation using a relaxation technique
  • when client is able to imagine an item without experiencing anxiety, the next item in the hierarchy is presented
  • this process is repeated until the client can imagine the most anxiety-causing item without experiencing anxiety
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37
Q

In Vivo Desensitization

classical conditioning

A

after the client is desensitized to 75-85% of items in the anxiety hierarchy, then he/she begins to confront anxiety arousing situations in vivo, if feasible to do so
**highly structured, facing “real life” only situations that correspond to hierarchy items that have been successfully desensitized in imagination

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38
Q

Evaluation of systematic desensitization

classical conditioning

A
  • use a dismantling strategy– identify mechanisms responsible for the benefits of systematic desensitization
  • compare the effects of various components of a treatment by administering different components to different groups of participants
  • RESULTS: training in an incompatible response and gradual exposure to anxiety-evoking events are not essential components of systematic desensitization and that extinction or repeated exposure to CS without US – the primary factor responsible for its effects
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39
Q

Behavior Sex Therapy

classical conditioning

A
  • counter-conditioning treatment used to help with sex d/o related performance anxiety
  • pairing situations that evoke performance anxiety with pleasurable physical sensations and relaxation
  • *partners are told to refrain from genital sex and given a series of homework assignments that involve taking turns and giving and receiving pleasure through touch
  • initial HW: non-genital touching
    • then increase to more intimate encounters that eventually include non-demand genital touching
  • EVALUATION: most effective for treatment of premature ejaculation and vaginismus
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40
Q

Name two interventions based on aversive conditioning

classical conditioning

A
  1. In vivo aversion (over sensitization)

2. Covert sensitization

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41
Q

Describe interventions based on aversive conditioning

A

-maladaptive behavior or stimulus associated with it (CS) is paired with a stimulus (US) that naturally evokes pain or other unpleasant response

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42
Q

In vivo aversion therapy

classical conditioning

A
  • most effective for SUD, paraphilias, SIB
  • target bx is paired with an aversive stimulus (e.g., electric shock, noxious odor, emetic- nausea inducing drug)
  • e.g., eliminate a sexual fetish by pairing the fetish object (CS) with an electric shock (US) so that eventually the fetish object is avoided because it produces an unpleasant sensation (CR) vs. sexual arousal
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43
Q

Evaluation (effectiveness) of in vivo aversive therapy

classical conditioning

A

moderately effective initially for some patients and problems (eg., tobacco cessation) but has a HIGH relapse rate

  • *most successful when aversive stimulus or its consequences are similar to target bx
  • e.g., nausea inducing drugs are more effective for alcoholism than an electric shock
  • *more effective when supplemented with “booster sessions” or with other treatments
    e. g., paraphilia: combo aversion with orgasmic reconditioning, relapse prevention
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44
Q

Covert sensitization

classical conditioning

A

imagines engaging in maladaptive behavior and then imagines (vs. confronts) the aversive stimulus

  • e.g., TC- imaging smoking and becoming nauseated by it, throwing up on floor, etc.
  • accompanied by a “relief scene” where something pleasant happens
    e. g., nonsmoking is accompanied by pleasant sensations
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45
Q

Describe the theory most related to classical extinction interventions

(classical conditioning)

A

Mowrer’s 2 Factor Theory

  • says that development of a phobic response is the result of both classical and operant conditioning
  • a person develops an anxiety reaction to a neutral stimulus (CS) when it is paired with a stimulus (US) that naturally elicits anxiety or other aversive responses (classical conditioning)
  • the person then avoids the CS because doing so enables him/her to avoid anxiety (negative reinforcement)
  • repeatedly exposing the client to the CS without the US while inhibiting his/her usual avoidance response in order to extinguish the client’s CR
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46
Q

Name the three types of classical extinction therapies

classical conditioning

A
  1. in vivo exposure with response prevention
  2. implosive therapy
  3. eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR)
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47
Q

in vivo exposure with response prevention

classical conditioning

A
  • client is exposed in “real life” to anxiety- arousing stimuli for a prolonged period of time and is prohibited from making his/her usual avoidance or other anxiety reducing response
    e. g., OCD– exposing client to obsessional cues while prohibiting the client from engaging in usual rituals
  • one technique is called FLOODING
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48
Q

flooding

classical conditioning

A

type of in vivo exposure with response prevention intervention

  • exposure to MOST anxiety or fear-arousing stimuli for a prolonged period of time
  • while graduated exposure (graded) begins with exposure to situations that produced minimal anxiety and then gradually progresses to those that are more anxiety provoking
  • helpful for decreasing fear and avoidance that may be caused by initial exposure to high-anxiety arousing situations
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49
Q

evaluation (effectiveness) of in vivo exposure

classical conditioning

A
  • exposure to distressing stimulus and response prevention are both essential components of treatment
  • prolonged continuous (massed) exposure to anxiety-arousing stimulus is usually more effective than several brief exposures
  • high anxiety provocation during exposure may not be necessary for success
  • e.g., simultaneous use of a tranquilizer (to decrease anxiety) may enhance the effectiveness of the exposure)
  • self-directed exposure can be as effective as therapist-directed
  • group exposure can be as effective and individual treatment
  • partner-assisted exposure is effective for agoraphobia
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50
Q

introceptive exposure

classical conditioning

A

type of in vivo exposure with response prevention

  • effective for decreasing panic attacks associated with panic disorder and other anxiety disorders
  • involves use of strategies designed to evoke the feared bodily cues associated with fear and anxiety reactions (e.g., spinning in a chair, breathing into a paper bag, cardiac exercise)
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51
Q

Implosive therapy

classical conditioning

A

based on the assumption that certain events (conditioned stimuli) are consistently avoided to reduce anxiety and that prolonged exposure to those events without US will produce extinction of anxiety response

  • conducted in imagination
  • involves presenting feared stimulus vividly so as to arouse high levels of anxiety
  • Stampfl (1966)- believed avoidance behaviors are learned during childhood and represent conflicts related to sexual or aggressive impulses
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52
Q

Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR)

classical conditioning

A

initially developed as a PTSD tx, also used for panic attacks, phobias, depression, SUD

  • assumption: exposure to a trauma can block neurophysiological adaptive information-processing mechanisms
  • combines rapid lateral EMs with exposure and other techniques from CBT, psychodynamic
  • **controversy on whether the benefits actually depend on EMs
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53
Q

Operant conditioning

A

identifies the factors responsible for acquisition and maintenance of complex voluntary behaviors

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54
Q

Who are the to primary theorists associated with operant conditioning?

A

Edward Thorndike

B.F. Skinner

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55
Q

Describe Edward Thorndike’s theory of operant conditioning

A

-stated that learning is due to connectionism (relationship between responses and stimuli as a result of instrumental [trial and error learning])
study of learning in lower animals reveals important information about human learning

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56
Q

Describe the animal experiment associated with Thorndike.

operant conditioning

A

“puzzle boxes”- placing a hungry cat in one of these and requiring them to make a certain response (e.g., pull a string loop) in order to escape the box and obtain food

  • during the early trials, cats engage in numerous unproductive activities before making a response that permits escape
  • and the number of trials increases, the cat makes the correct response sooner and sooner
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57
Q

law of effect

operant conditioning

A

with Thorndike’s theory

  • a. any response followed by a “satisfying state of affairs” is likely to be repeated
    b. any response that produces an “annoying state of affairs” is less likely to recur
  • **Thorndike later eliminated part b because he found that consequences tended to have little effect
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58
Q

Describe B.F. Skinner’s theory of operant conditioning

A

added to Pavlov’s model that classical conditioning is effective for explaining acquisition of respondent behaviors automatically elicited by certain stimuli
-BUT ADDED that the most complex behaviors are voluntarily emitted or not emitted as result of way they “operate” in environments

-coined the concepts of reinforcement and punishment

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59
Q

List the primary concepts that are component’s of Skinner’s theory of operant conditioning (there are 9)

A
  1. Reinforcement and punishment
  2. Operant extinction and behavior contrast
  3. Primary and secondary reinforcers
  4. Schedules of reinforcement
  5. Matching Law
  6. Superstitious behavior
  7. Stimulus control
  8. Stimulus and response generalization
  9. Escape and avoidance conditioning
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60
Q

reinforcement and punishment

operant conditioning, Skinner

A

the environment provides positive and negative CONSEQUENCES that cause people to display or withhold behavivors that preceded them

reinforcement- increase the behavior
punishment- to decrease or eliminate the behavior

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61
Q

positive and negative

operant conditioning, Skinner

A 
positive = application of stimulus
negative = withholding or removing a stimulus
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62
Q

positive reinforcement

operant conditioning, Skinner

A

performance of a behavior that increases the results of application of a stimulus (reinforcer) following a behavior

  • associated with REWARD
    e. g., Thorndike’s puzzle boxes– pulling on the string was increased over time because it lead to the reward of food
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63
Q

negative reinforcement

operant conditioning, Skinner

A

performance of a behavior is increased as a result of removing or withdrawing a stimulus (reinforcer) following a behavior

  • associated with RELIEF
    e. g., pulling a lever to STOP (relieve) an electric shock– lever pressing increases because it is being negatively reinforced)
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64
Q

positive punishment

operant conditioning, Skinner

A

application of a stimulus following a response, which then later decreases that response

  • associated with PAIN
  • e.g., slapping a dog with a rolled up newspaper after he chews your favorite shoe in order to stop the chewing behavior
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65
Q

negative punishment

operant conditioning, Skinner

A

removal or termination of a stimulus following the behavior in order to reduce the behavior

  • associated with LOSS
  • e.g., taking away a child’s allowance when she acts aggressively toward her younger sibling to decrease the aggression
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66
Q

Describe Skinner’s famous experimental paradigms for operant conditioning

A

“operant chamber” aka “Skinner box”
examining behaviors of pigeons or rats — either bar pressing or key pecking
trying to measure operant strength

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67
Q

operant strength

operant conditioning, Skinner

A

a. determines the rate of responding during acquisition trials
b. total number of responses made during extinction trials (period without reinforcement)

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68
Q

operant extinction

operant conditioning, Skinner

A

reinforcement is consistently withheld from a previously reinforced behavior to decrease or eliminate that behavior

  • withdrawal of a reinforcer does not usually cause an immediate cessation of the response
    • the response gradually disappears after an initial phase in which responding is more variable and forceful
      e. g., if a rat has been reinforced for bar-pressing, a sudden withdrawal of reinforcement will initially cause the rat to bar-press more than usual before bar pressing begins to decline
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69
Q

extinction burst

operant conditioning, Skinner

A

aka response burst

  • temporary increase in responding during extinction trials
  • behavioral contrast can occur as a result of it
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70
Q

behavioral contrast

operant conditioning, Skinner

A
  • occurs when the subject is reinforced for 2 different behaviors and reinforcement for 1 behavior is withdrawn in order to extinguish it, and other behavior is likely to increase
    e. g., rat is reinforced for pressing a round button and square button. Then reinforcement for round button is stopped. The round button pressing decreases and the square button pressing will increase
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71
Q

primary reinforcer

operant conditioning, Skinner

A

aka UNCONDITIONED reinforcer

  • inherently desirable and DON’T depend on experience to acquire the reinforcing value
    e. g., food, water
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72
Q

secondary reinforcers

operant conditioning, Skinner

A

aka CONDITIONED reinforcers

  • acquire value only through repeated association with primary reinforcers
    e. g., tokens, applause, gold stars
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73
Q

generalized secondary reinforcer

operant conditioning, Skinner

A

occurs when a secondary reinforcer is paired with several different primary reinforcers
e.g., money— can be exchanged for a variety of primary reinforcers

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74
Q

Name the two categories of schedules of reinforcement

operant conditioning, Skinner

A

continuous schedule

intermittent (partial) schedule

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75
Q

continuous schedule

operant conditioning, Skinner

A

when reinforcement is presented after each response

-rate of acquisition of behavior is fastest

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76
Q

intermittent (partial) reinforcement schedule

operant conditioning, Skinner

A

once an operant condition has been acquired, the best way to maintain a behavior is to switch it to 1 of these 4 types

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77
Q

Name the four types of intermittent (partial) reinforcement schedules

(operant conditioning, Skinner)

A
  1. Fixed interval (FI)
  2. Variable interval (VI)
  3. Fixed ratio (FR)
  4. Variable ratio (VR)
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78
Q

Describe a fixed interval (FI) reinforcement schedule

operant conditioning, Skinner

A

reinforcement is delivered after a fixed period of time regardless of number of responses made

e. g., rat of FI-30 receives reinforcement every 30s whether it makes 1 or 50 responses during the 30s period
- tends to produce LOW rates of responding because the number of responses is unrelated to the delivery of the reinforcement
- typically STOP responding after a reinforcer is delivered and then begin responding again toward the end of the reinforcement interval, which produces a “scallop” in cumulative recording of number of responses made
- in the work setting, FI tends to produce MINIMAL levels of work

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79
Q

Describe a variable interval (VI) schedule of reinforcement

operant conditioning, Skinner

A

interval time between delivery of reinforcer varies in an unpredictable manner from interval to interval

  • under VI-30 schedule, rat might be reinforced at 15, 40, 30, 20, or 45 s AS LONG AS they press the level ONCE during each of the intervals
  • produces a steady but relatively LOW rate of responses
  • schedule used when a specific number of “pop” quizzes will be given during a semester, but exact amount of time in between the quizzes varies
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80
Q

Describe a fixed ratio (FR) reinforcement schedule

operant conditioning, Skinner

A

reinforcer is delivered each time the subject makes a specific number of responses
e.g., pigeon on F-6 is reinforced with a food pellet every 6th peck
-there is an EXPLICIT relationship between the reinforcer and the response and therefore it produces a relatively HIGH, STEADY, rate of responding with a brief pause following delivery of the reinforcer
piecework- workers receive payment following completion of a specific number of units

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81
Q

Describe a variable ratio (VR) reinforcement schedule

operant conditioning, Skinner

A

reinforcers after a variable number of responses

e. g., VR-20 schedule, the average number of responses receiving reinforcement will be about 20 but the exact number varies from reinforcer to reinforcer (might be every 20, 15, 25 responses)
- unpredictable relationship between reinforcer and response leads to an INCREASE in rates of responding and responses that are MOST RESISTANT to extinction
e. g., gamblers playing the slot machines

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82
Q

matching law (definition and experimental example)

operant conditioning, Skinner

A

-predicts the correspondence between responding to 2+ alternatives and frequency of reinforcement for responding
concurrent schedules of reinforcement used, which provides 2 or more simultaneous and independent schedules of reinforcement, each for a different response
e.g., rat in a cage with 2 levers– lever 1 delivers reinforcement on a VI-30s schedule and level 2 delivers reinforcement on a VI-60s schedule
***rat will match the relative frequency of lever presses to relative frequency of reinforcement obtained with each lever; so the rat will press VI-30s 2x as often as the VI- 60s

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83
Q

superstitious behavior

operant conditioning, Skinner

A

accidental, noncontingent reinforcement can lead to this
display variety of odd, ritualistic-like behaviors (head bobbing, turning counter-clockwise) right before reinforcement occurs
e.g., if you reinforce pigeons with food every 15s regardless of what they are doing, they may engage in this behavior

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84
Q

stimulus control

operant conditioning, Skinner

A

aka stimulus discrimination

  • occurrence of behavior is affected by the presence of discriminative- stimuli (positive or negative discriminative stimulus)
  • whether or not a response is reinforced may be signaled by cues in the environment
  • example of two factor learning: performance of the behavior is due to operant conditioning because the organism performs the behavior because it is being reinforced to do so
  • e.g., explains why a baby whines in the presence of their father (positive discriminative stimulus, ) who reinforces this behavior by picking the kid up but not the mother (negative discriminative stimulus, stimulus delta)
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85
Q

Describe Skinner experiment for stimulus control

operant conditioning

A

Pigeon might be reinforced for pecking a key when a GREEN light is on but NOT when a RED light is on
-result: pigeon will only peck the key in the presence of the GREEN light

  • GREEN light = positive discriminative stimulus (S^D)
  • RED light = negative discriminative stimulus (S-)
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86
Q

Stimulus generalization

operant conditioning, Skinner

A

occurs when similar stimuli elicit the same response but the stimuli that evoke the response are POSITIVE discriminative stimuli
e.g., if a pigeon learned that pecking a key in presence of GREEN light results in reinforcement, and also peck a key when a BLUE light is on

87
Q

response generalization

operant conditioning, Skinner

A

occurs when the frequency of a certain response occurs due to reinforcement
e.g., child who has been reinforced with attention or praise for calling father “dada” may be more likely to say “baba”, “mama,” and “gaga” in the presence of their father

88
Q

escape and avoidance conditioning are both maintained by ____________________

(operant conditioning, Skinner)

A

negative reinforcement

89
Q

escape conditioning

operant conditioning, Skinner

A

behavior increases because its performance allows an organism to escape an undesirable (Aversive) stimulus

e. g., rat may escape an electric shock being applied via a grid on the floor of its cage by pressing a lever that stops the shock
- shock = undesired stimulus and referred as a negative reinforcer because its termination increased the frequency or likelihood of lever pressing

90
Q

avoidance conditioning

operant conditioning, Skinner

A

onset of negative reinforcer is preceded by a cue (positive discriminative stimulus) that signals that the negative reinforcer is about to be applied
-organism learns that if it performs the target behavior in the presence of a cue, it can avoid negative reinforcer altogether

e. g., rat might learn:
a. that a GREEN light signals the electric shock is about to be delivered (classical conditioning)
b. can AVOID shock by jumping over a hurdle (negative reinforcement)— rat jumps over hurdle as soon as green light turns on and avoids shock

91
Q

Name the four types of intervention strategies of operant conditioning

A
  • Increasing behavior with reinforcement
  • decreasing behavior with punishment
  • decreasing behavior with extinction
  • modifying behavior with contingency contracts, token economies, social skills training, and functional based intervenetions
92
Q

Name the four types of interventions used to increase behavior with reinforcement

(operant conditioning)

A
  1. Shaping
  2. Chaining
  3. Primack Principle
  4. Difficult Reinforcement
93
Q

When using an intervention that involves reinforcement to increase a behavior, there are 6 factors that you need to take into consideration. List these 6:

A
  1. contingency
  2. immediacy
  3. schedule of reinforcement
  4. magnitude
  5. verbal clarification
  6. prompts
94
Q

contingency (as a factor of interventions to increase behavior with reinforcement)

(operant conditioning)

A

there must be a contingent relationship between the target behavior and the positive reinforcer
-the reinforcer should be available ONLY when the target behavior has been performed

95
Q

immediacy ((as a factor of interventions to increase behavior with reinforcement)

(operant conditioning)

A

to maximize benefits of positive reinforcement, the reinforcer should be delivered immediately after the target behavior
-important when reinforcement is used to establish a new behavior

96
Q

schedule of reinforcement (as a factor of interventions to increase behavior with reinforcement)

(operant conditioning)

A

establishment of a new behavior is most rapid when reinforcement is applied on a continuous schedule, while maintenance of behavior (resistant to extinction) is maximized when behavior is reinforced on an intermittent schedule
-BEST procedure is to begin with a continuous schedule of reinforcement and to change to an intermittent schedule once the behavior is well-established

97
Q

thinning

operant conditioning, reinforcement schedule

A

process of reducing the proportion of reinforcements

98
Q

magnitude (as a factor of interventions to increase behavior with reinforcement)

(operant conditioning)

A

the greater the positive reinforcement, the greater its effectiveness
—involves satiation: when the reinforcer has lost it’s reinforcing value
primary reinforcers are more susceptible than secondary
continuous schedule is more susceptible to this than intermittent

99
Q

verbal clarification (as a factor of interventions to increase behavior with reinforcement)

(operant conditioning)

A

effectiveness of reinforcement is enhanced when contingent relationship between a behavior and the reinforcer is verbally clarified

100
Q

prompts (as a factor of interventions to increase behavior with reinforcement)

(operant conditioning)

A

(verbal or physical) facilitate the acquisition of a new behavior

  • when a prompt signals that a behavior will be reinforced, it acts as a discriminant stimulus
    e. g., father reminds child to clean room and always praises child after they have done so, the father’s reminder is a discriminative stimulus that signals praise will follow the behavior

involves FADING, which is the gradual removal of a prompt

101
Q

Shaping (as a type of intervention to increase behavior with reinforcement)

(operant conditioning)

A

when using reinforcement to increase a response, it’s necessary to wait for the response to be emitted in order to reinforce it, but because a target behavior rarely occurs naturally, this technique is used:
-reinforce the successful approximation to desired behavior; providing reinforcement ONLY for behaviors that come closer and closer to the desired one

102
Q

Lovaas’ (1966) shaping technique (as a type of intervention to increase behavior with reinforcement)

(operant conditioning)

A
  • for children with autism or schizophrenia who were mute, teaching them to speak
  • -have child imitate trainer’s voice
    1. child reinforced with good for looking at trainer’s mouth
    2. then trainer models a sound and reinforced child ONLY when they made a vocalization
    3. then, only reinforce when the child imitates a particular sound
    4. once sound is mastered, then the trained introduces a new sound and procedure is continued until the kid can speak words, and then again until they can speak simple sentences
103
Q

Chaining (as a type of intervention to increase behavior with reinforcement)

(operant conditioning)

A

sequence of a discriminate stimulus - behavior- consequence pattern “3 -term contingency”

  • claims it accounts for acquisition of most complex behaviors including behavior “chains” which have a distinct number of responses
    e. g.: make a cake: 1. assemble ingredients 2. measure and mix ingredients 3. pour batter into a pan and put pan in oven 4. frost cake

two types: forward and backward

104
Q

forward chaining (as a type of intervention to increase behavior with reinforcement)

(operant conditioning)

A

begins with first component in chain and gradually works through the entire chain

105
Q

backward chaining (as a type of intervention to increase behavior with reinforcement)

(operant conditioning)

A

components in chain are established in backward order

106
Q

what is the main difference between shaping and chaining?
(as a type of intervention to increase behavior with reinforcement)

(operant conditioning)

A

shaping : FINAL behavior is the only one of interest

chaining: ENTIRE sequence of responses is important

107
Q

Primack Principle (as a type of intervention to increase behavior with reinforcement)

(operant conditioning)

A
  • a high probability behavior is used to reinforce a low probability behavior
    e. g., student likes to watch tv (high probability bx) and you want them to study more (low probability bx)
    - tell the student you can watch TV after you study for an hour— end goal is to increase study time
  • this is useful when it is difficult to identify a stimulus that would act as a reinforcer for a particular individual
108
Q

difficult reinforcement (as a type of intervention to increase behavior with reinforcement)

(operant conditioning)

A

combines positive reinforcement with extinction and involves reinforcing an alternative behavior while ignoring the target behavior
e.g., child who engages in stereotyped hand movements (self-reinforcing) might be reinforced with nickels or tokens for each 2 minute period
-playing with toys is being reinforced while hand movements are being extinguished
Several varieties:
- differential reinforcement of incompatible behaviors (DRI)
- differential reinforcement of alternative behaviors (DRA)
- differential reinforcement of other behaviors (DRO)

109
Q

Name the 6 factors that influences the effectiveness of interventions that use punishment to decrease a behavior

(operant conditioning)

A
  1. immediacy
  2. consistency
  3. intensity
  4. verbal clarification
  5. removal of all positive reinforcement
  6. reinforcement for alternative behaviors
110
Q

immediacy (interventions that use punishment to decrease a behavior)

(operant conditioning)

A

the sooner the punishment administered, the more successful it will be
should be applied at onset of behavior or beginning of behavior chain

111
Q

consistency (interventions that use punishment to decrease a behavior)

(operant conditioning)

A

punishment should be applied on a continuous schedule

112
Q

intensity (interventions that use punishment to decrease a behavior)

(operant conditioning)

A

punishment is most effective when it is initially applied in moderation
when punishment is too strong, it is more likely to produce avoidance, aggression, and other undesirable behaviors
-habituation can occur

113
Q

habituation (interventions that use punishment to decrease a behavior)

(operant conditioning)

A

relates to the intensity of the punishment
occurs when punishment is initially administered in a weak form and then the intensity is gradually increased; punishment then loses its effectiveness

114
Q

verbal clarification (interventions that use punishment to decrease a behavior)

(operant conditioning)

A

effectiveness of punishment is maximized when there is a contingent relationship between the target behavior and punishment is verbally clarified

115
Q

removal of all positive reinforcement (interventions that use punishment to decrease a behavior)

(operant conditioning)

A

works best when all stimuli that previously were reinforced behaviors are identified and are consistently withheld at the same time behavior is being punished

116
Q

reinforcement for alternative behaviors

A

effectiveness is increased when combined with reinforcement for alternative behaviors
**determine if an undesirable behavior is due to inadequate skills and if so, punishment must be preceded or accompany training in these skills

117
Q

Evaluation of interventions that use punishment to decrease a behavior

(operant conditioning)

A

criticized on ethical, legal, and practical grounds

ethical: some say clearly unethical in all cases; some say justified when other treatments have been ineffective and/or target behavior is more harmful than treatment;
legal: in some situations (e.g., institution) it is absolutely illegal
practical: doesn’t actually eliminate a behavior but only suppress it so the effects are usually short-term, inconsistent, and limited to a specific situation in which punishment is applied

negative side effects: fear of punishment agent and increases in aggressiveness, negative emotions, and escape and avoidance behaviors

118
Q

Name the five types of interventions that use punishment (interventions that use punishment to decrease a behavior)

(operant conditioning)

A
  1. Verbal reprimands
  2. Overconnection
  3. Negative Practice
  4. Response Cost
  5. Time-Out from reinforcement
119
Q

verbal reprimands (interventions that use punishment to decrease a behavior)

(operant conditioning)

A

saying “No” or “stop”
used to suppress unwanted behavior in a variety of settings
effects are consistent but can act as positive reinforcers and actually increase a target behavior
effects likely to be temporary if not backed-up or followed by any other consequence

120
Q

overconnection (interventions that use punishment to decrease a behavior)

(operant conditioning)

A

positive punishment
apply a penalty following an undesirable behavior to eliminate it

May involve:

a. restitution
b. positive practice

121
Q

restitution (interventions that use punishment to decrease a behavior)

(operant conditioning)

A

having an individual correct any negative effects of a behavior

122
Q

positive practice (interventions that use punishment to decrease a behavior)

(operant conditioning)

A

having an individual practice more appropriate behavior, usually in an exaggerated fashion
often includes verbalizations and may require constant supervision and/or manually guiding the individual through the corrective behavior (physical guidance), which can be problematic because it may elicit aggressive or avoidance behavior

e.g., Foxx and Azrin (1972)- hospitalized patient who kept through objects and overturning beds. when she engaged in the behavior she was required to straighten her room (restitution) and then practice a more desirable behavior such as making the beds on the entire ward (positive practice)

123
Q

negative practice (interventions that use punishment to decrease a behavior)

(operant conditioning)

A

requiring an individual to deliberately repeat an undesirable behavior to the point that it becomes aversive to the individual or the individual becomes fatigued
-useful for eliminating habits and other behaviors that the person would like to terminate but has bee unable to before (like nail biting, stuttering, smoking)

e.g., motor tic- instruct someone to actually engage in the tic over and over for a specified period of time

124
Q

response cost (interventions that use punishment to decrease a behavior)

(operant conditioning)

A

involves removing a specific reinforcer each time the target behavior is perform

  • i.e., a type of negative punishment
  • *mostly associated with token economies (token fines are imposed when undesirable behavior occurs)
    e. g. parent can use to reduce unwanted behavior by taking away a child’s computer privileges for a specified period of time OR by decreasing the child’s allowance

other eg: traffic violations, late fees

125
Q

time-out from reinforcement (interventions that use punishment to decrease a behavior)

(operant conditioning)

A

removing ALL sources of positive reinforcement for a brief, prespecified time following a behavior in order to decrease it

e. g., teacher using time out to eliminate behavior
* *time out is usually considered negative punishment but it can be considered extinction
- BUT extinction entails continuous removal of a reinforcer from a previously reinforced response
- WHILE time out involves removing ALL sources of reinforcement for a specific period of time

126
Q

evaluation of time-out (interventions that use punishment to decrease a behavior)

(operant conditioning)

A

duration of time out is not critical and short time outs can be as effective as long
MOST effective when it is combined with reinforcement for alternative behaviors
also most effective when it is explained as to why it is being applied

127
Q

4 factors that influence the effectiveness of interventions that use extinction to decrease behaviors

(operant conditioning)

A
  • entails withholding reinforcement from a previously reinforced response in order to eliminate or decrease that response
    1. consistency
    2. schedule of reinforcement
    3. magnitude and duration of reinforcement
    4. reinforcement of other behaviors
128
Q

consistency (interventions that use extinction to decrease behaviors)

(operant conditioning)

A

positive reinforcement must be consistently withheld following the behavior since a single exception can re-establish the behavior and maintain for a considerable length of time
can be a slow, frustrating process because it is difficult to identify and consistently withhold all sources of reinforcement

129
Q

schedule of reinforcement (interventions that use extinction to decrease behaviors)

(operant conditioning)

A

extinction is more rapid when the behavior has been reinforced on a continuous schedule vs. intermittent
but when intermittent is used, most effective is fixed or variable interval

130
Q

magnitude and duration of reinforcement (interventions that use extinction to decrease behaviors)

(operant conditioning)

A

the greater the magnitude and the longer the duration of previous reinforcement, the more resistant the behavior to extinction

131
Q

reinforcement from other behaviors (interventions that use extinction to decrease behaviors)

(operant conditioning)

A

extinction is MOST successful when used in conjunction with reinforcement for alternative behaviors

132
Q

modifying behavior with contingency contracts (interventions of operant conditioning)

(operant conditioning)

A

formal written agreement between 2 or more people (therapist-client, parent-child) that clearly defines the behaviors that are to be modified and rewards and punishments that will follow performance of those behaviors

133
Q

describe Stuart and Lott (1972)’s 5 elements of an effective contingency contract (interventions of operant conditioning)

(operant conditioning)

A
  1. contract must be explicit in defining which party will receive as result of meeting the responsibilities
  2. behaviors in the contract must be capable of being monitored
  3. system of sanctions for failure to meet contract’s terms should be defined
  4. contract should define bonuses for consistent compliance with terms of contract
  5. record-keeping system should be established to provide constant feedback to parties about the frequency of target behaviors and delivery of reinforcers
    * most effective when a person whose behavior is to be modified actively participates in developing the contract*
134
Q

token economy (interventions of operant conditioning)

operant conditioning

A

structured environment in which:

a. DESIRABLE behaviors are increased by reinforcing them with tokens (generalized secondary reinforcers) that can be exchanged for desired items, activities, and other back-up ([primary reinforcers)
b. UNDESIRABLE behaviors are decreased by withholding or removing tokens following those behaviors

135
Q

establishment of a token economy involved 4 components (interventions of operant conditioning)

(operant conditioning)

A
  1. defining the target behavior
  2. selecting the secondary and back-up reinforcers
  3. developing a system for monitoring and assessing the token economy
  4. developing a plan for reducing and eliminating “thinning” the reinforcers
136
Q

advantages of a token economy (interventions of operant conditioning)

(operant conditioning)

A
  1. permit an immediate delivery of reinforcement
  2. can be tailored to meet individual needs by allowing each person to select his/her own back-up reinforcers
  3. tokens can be exchanged for a variety of reinforcers, less susceptible than primary reinforcers to satiation
137
Q

Social Skills Training (SST) (interventions of operant conditioning)

(operant conditioning)

A

used to improve communication, assertiveness, problem-solving, and other socially adaptive skills

  • type of behavior therapy that incorporates techniques from both operant and classical conditioning and social learning theory
  • techniques: modeling, coaching, behavior rehearsal, feedback, reinforcement, homework
138
Q

what is SST effective for? (interventions of operant conditioning)

(operant conditioning)

A

reducing symptoms
reducing relapse risk
increasing social adjustment of people with schizophrenia
increase behavior of children with conduct problems
decrease depression in children, adolescents, and adults when used as a multimodal approach

139
Q

function-based interventions (interventions of operant conditioning)

(operant conditioning)

A
  • function based assessment, function behavioral analysis are used to develop these and are conducted to determine the purpose of an undesirable behavior to identify a more desirable substitute behavior that serves the same purpose
  • incorporates interviews, observations, other sources of data that provide information about characteristics of behavior and its antecedents and consequences
140
Q

goals of function-based interventions

A

-decrease or eliminate the undesirable behavior while increasing the alternative behavior

141
Q

List the 4 cognitive learning theories

A 
Latent learning (Tolman, 1930)
Insight learning (Kohler, 1925)
Observational Learning (Bandura, 1986)
Learned helplessness
142
Q

Describe latent learning theory

cognitive theory

A

Tolman, 1930
-learning often takes place without being manifested in performance improvements
therefore, reinforcement might not be necessary for learning a specific response
Famous experiment: rats separated into 3 groups and ran a maze 1x/day for several weeks:
-Group A rats: found food in the goal box
-Group B rats: never found food
-Group C rats: found no food until Day 11 and subsequent days
RESULTS: Days 1-10 Group A performance was the best. On Day 11, Group C outperformed the other groups

143
Q

Describe insight learning (Kohler, 1925)

cognitive theory

A
  • learning can be the result of insight, an “ah-ha!” moment
  • reflects an internal cognitive restructuring of perceptual field (environment) that enhances an organism’s ability to achieve goals
  • famous study: caged chimp named Sultan who was given 2 sticks that could be put together to make 1 larger stick. Can only reach a banana if the two sticks are joined
    - after several unsuccessful attempts Sultan figured it out
144
Q

Describe observational learning (Bandura, 1986)

cognitive theory

A
  • aka social cognitive theory
  • proposes that the most complex human behaviors are learned by observing another perform these behaviors
  • observational learning is useful for: 1. teaching new bxs 2. enhancing a bx 3. inhibiting existing bxs
  • RESEARCH: Bobo doll experiment
    - if you observe someone engaging in an aggressive bx, more likely to display that agg bx (and same with non-aggressive)
145
Q

What were the three major findings among children who observed aggressive behavior in Bandura’s Bobo doll experiments?

A
  1. boys were more likely to imitate a male model’s behavior; girls were more likely to imitate a female model’s behavior
  2. boys and girls imitated the verbally aggressive behavior of model to a similar degree but boys were more likely than girls to imitate the physically aggressive behavior
  3. providing incentives for imitating aggressive behaviors decreased gender differences in imitation of physically aggressive behavior
146
Q

Name the 5 major components of observational learning theory (social learning) (Bandura).

(cognitive theory)

A
  1. Observational learning processes of cognition
  2. Model characteristics
  3. Guided participation
  4. Self-efficacy
  5. Reciprocal determinism
147
Q

Name the four processes that comprise observational learning processes of cognition (Bandura)

(cognitive theory)

A
  1. Attentional processes
  2. Retention processes
  3. Production processes
  4. Motivational processes
148
Q

attentional processes

A

(observational learning processes)

-attends to and accurately perceives modeled behavior

149
Q

retention processes

A

(observational learning processes)

  • symbolically processes modeled behavior in memory via visual imagery or verbal coding
  • maximized through cognitive rehearsal
150
Q

production processes

A

(observational learning processes)

  • must be able to accurately reproduce and rehearse the modeled behavior
  • enhanced through practice and performance feedback
151
Q

motivational processes

A

(observational learning processes)

  • while learning can occur without reinforcement, performance requires motivation
  • enhanced when learner is reinforced, but reinforcement may be internal (self-reinforcement), vicarious, or external
152
Q

Someone is more likely to imitate a model when:

model characteristics, observational learning theory

A
  1. model is high in status, prestige, and expertise
  2. model is similar to observer, especially in age and gender
  3. model’s behavior is visible, salient, and relevant to observer’s needs and goals
  4. model has been reinforced for engaging in a certain behavior AKA vicarious reinforcement
153
Q

What type of clinical population has vicarious reinforcement been used?

A

phobias
-coping models who initially exhibit apprehension but then overcome fears and perform desired behavior are more effective than mastery models who initially engage in behavior without fear

154
Q

guided participation

observational learning theory

A

when modeling is most effective

  • having learner observe the model perform behavior and then perform behavior himself or herself with assistance form the model
    e. g., snake phobia- live modeling with guided participation was superior to symbolic modeling (observing a filmed model) or systematic desensitization
155
Q

self-efficacy

observational learning theory

A

central concept in Bandura’s theory!!

a person’s beliefs about his/her ability to perform a behavior or task or to achieve certain goals

156
Q

Describe the 4 information sources that impact one’s self-efficacy to perform a behavior

(Bandura’s observational learning theory)

A
  1. enactive attainment- prior success in performing a task
  2. vicarious experience- observing others similar to oneself successfully performing the task
  3. verbal persuasion- encouragement by others
  4. emotional and physiological states (arousal, anxiety, fatigue, etc)
157
Q

reciprocal determinism

observational learning theory

A

predicts there is a reciprocal (interactive and influential) relationship between a person’s:

 a. environment
 b. overt behaviors
 c. cognitive, affective, and personal characteristics example: past experienced in a career-related activity (past bx) ifluences career preferences/choices (personal factors and current bx) and current career chosen by persno (environment) which affects future career-related preferences, decisions, and behaviors
158
Q

learning helplessness

cognitive theory

A

originally applied to depression
tendency to give up any effort to control events in the environment
reformulated version AKA attributional reformulation — depression occurs when a person makes internal, stable, and global attributions for negative events (i.e., attributes cause of negative events to themselves, believes they will always cause negative events to happen to them, and think negatively about all aspects of life

159
Q

Cognitive-Behavioral Interventions- Name the 7 primary ones described

A
  1. Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT)
  2. Beck’s Cognitive Therapy (CT)
  3. Other Cognitive Restructuring Techniques
  4. Coping and Problem-Solving Techniques
  5. Rehm’s Self-Control Therapy
  6. Lewinson’s Behavioral Model
  7. Self-Management Procedure
160
Q

Describe Ellis’s REBT Therapy (with emphasis on ABC ; DE components)

A

-saw emotions and behaviors as a chain of events
a- activating event (it is external) to which the person is exposed to
b- belief that the person has about A
c- emotion or behavior that results from B

d- therapist’s attempt to depute or alter the individual’s irrational beliefs
e- alternative thoughts and beliefs that result from therapist’s educational, confrontative, and persuasive approach

views the cause of neurosis as the continual repetition of certain common irrational beliefs (dogmatic demands, awfulizing, low frustration tolerance, and negative evaluations of self and others

161
Q

Common techniques used in REBT

A
  • modeling
  • behavioral rehearsal
  • problem-solving
  • in-vivo desensitization
  • rational-emotive energy
  • cognitive homework
162
Q

Describe Beck’s Cognitive Therapy (CT)

A

originally developed for depression

primary goal: help clients identify/ alter dysfunction and distorted assumptions

163
Q

List the cognitive targets of Cognitive Therapy

A
  1. Schemas (underlying cognitive structures and rules that consist of core beliefs and determine how individuals codify, categorize, and interpret experiences) that can be functional or dysfunctional
  2. Automatic thoughts (“surface level cognitions” that contribute to dysfunction when they are the result of maladaptive schemas and are frequent, persistent, and not critically examined)
  3. cognitive distortions (systematic errors or biases in information processing and are linked between maladaptive cognitive schemas and negative automatic thoughts
  4. cognitive profile (characterizes each psychological disorder)
164
Q

examples of cognitive distortions

A
  1. arbitrary inference
  2. overgeneralization
  3. selective abstraction
  4. personalization
  5. dichotomous thinking
  6. emotional reasoning
165
Q

arbitrary inference

A
  • cognitive distortion

- drawing conclusions without corroborative evidence

166
Q

overgeneralization

A
  • cognitive distortion

- drawing general conclusions on the basis of 1 event

167
Q

selective abstraction

A
  • cognitive distortion

- attending to detail while ignoring total context

168
Q

personalization

A
  • cognitive distortion

- erroneously attributing external events to onself

169
Q

dichotomous thinking

A
  • cognitive distortion

- thinking is polarized in “either/or” ways

170
Q

emotional reasoning

A
  • cognitive distortion

- believing things are a certain way because they feel that way

171
Q

Describe the 7 characteristics and strategies of Cognitive Therapy (CT).

A
  1. relies on collaborative empiricism (developing collaborative therapist-client relationship and gather evidence to test hypotheses about client’s beliefs/assumptions
  2. time-limited (~15 sessions), structured, and goal-oriented sessions
  3. Session 1 has very specific goals (need to list on additional slide)
  4. historical material may be addressed to clarify core beliefs but is not a primary focus of treatment
  5. assumes relevant cognitions become accessible and modifiable only with affect arousal, imagery, and other techniques that elicit affect
  6. questioning is primary therapeutic tool (e.g., Socratic)
  7. relapse prevention is a focus
172
Q

What are the primary goals of Session 1 in Cognitive Therapy?

A
  1. establish rapport and trust
  2. socialize client to CT
  3. educate client about his/her disorder, cognitive model, and therapy process
  4. normalize client’s difficulties and instilling hope
  5. determining and correcting client’s expectations about therapy
  6. collecting additional information about a client’s problems
  7. developing a goal list
173
Q

List some of the techniques AND cognitive strategies of Cognitive Therapy

A

Techniques: activity scheduling, behavioral rehearsal, social skills training relaxation
Cognitive strategies: downward arrow, questioning the evidence, decatastrophizing, mental imagery, cognitive rehearsal

  • ** for severe depression: start off with behavioral activation
  • ** for mild-moderate depression: start off with cognitive activities
174
Q

Name the three other types of cognitive restructuring techniques

A
  1. Self-Instructional Training
  2. Thought Stopping
  3. Attribution Retraining
175
Q

Describe Self-Instructional Training (SIT, Meichenbaum and Goodman, 1971)

A

originally developed to help hyperactive and impulsive kids perform academic and other tasks more successfully by teaching them to interpolate adaptive, self-controlling thoughts between stimulus situation and their response to that situation

  • proposes that voluntary behavior does NOT occur until there is a shift from external or internal language control
  • also supports Bandura’s work on observational learning
176
Q

Bandura’s work on observational learning (as it relates to the elements used in SIT)

(cognitive restructuring)

A
  1. cognitive modeling (observe model perform task while observe model making self-statements aloud)
  2. cognitive participant modeling (perform task while instructing himself/herself aloud)
  3. fading over self-instruction (client whispers instructions while carrying out task)
  4. covert self-instruction (client performs task while saying instructions covertly)
177
Q

Describe thought-stopping

cognitive restructuring

A

eliminating obsessive ruminations, self-criticism, depressive or anxiety-arousing ideas, other unwanted/unproductive thoughts by using techniques such as “stop stop stop!” or snapping rubber band on wrist whenever unwanted thoughts occur
-often combined with covert assertion (making alternative assertive self-statements following thought-stopping)

178
Q

Describe attribution retraining

cognitive restructuring

A

focuses on altering individual’s perceptions of the causes of his/her prolematic behavior

  • successfully has treated depression, anxiety, alcoholism
  • consistent with assumptions of reformulated learned helplessness model and optimistic explanatory style in Seligman’s learning optimism
179
Q

Name the two Coping and Problem-Solving Techniques

(cognitive therapy

A
  1. Stress innoculation

2. Problem-Solving Therapy (PST)

180
Q

Describe the 3 phases of treatment in Stress Inoculation therapy

A
  1. cognitive prep phase: primarily educational conceptualization and involves helping client understand his/her bx and cognitive responses to stressful situations
  2. skills acquisition and rehearsal phase- client learns and rehearses a variety of coping skills (direct action techniques like relaxation, escape routes, cognitive techniques)
  3. follow through phase- client applies coping skills to imagined, filmed, and in vivo stress producing situations
181
Q

Problem-solving outcomes in Problem-Solving Therapy (PST) involve:

A
  1. problem orientation: relatively stable cognitive schemas that can be positive or negative and that represent a person’s views about problems and his or her ability to successfully solve them
  2. problem-solving style: activities a person engages in when solving problems (rational, impulsive/careless, avoidant)
182
Q

Describe the assumption and three major components to Rehm’s Self-Control Therapy (1977)

A
  • assumption: deficits in 3 aspects of self-control increase a person’s vulnerability to depression and make it difficult to deal effectively with depressive symptoms
    1. self-monitoring (monitor negative self statements and outcomes)– people with depression selectively attend to negative events and immediate consequences of behavior
    2. self-evaluation (set realistic goals and attributions for behavior)- - people who are depressed make inaccurate internal attributions and compare their behavior to rigid perfectionistic standards
    3. Self-reinforcement (positive self-statements) – people with depression engage in lower rates of self-rewards and increased self-punishment
183
Q

Describe Lewinson’s Behavioral Model (1974)

A

attributes depression to lower rate of response-contingent reinforcement due to inadequate reinforcing stimuli in the environment and/or individual’s lack of skill in obtaining reinforcement

  • behaviors are extinguished when they are note reinforced
  • decreases in rate of response-contingent reinforcement also elicits pessimism, decreased self-esteem
  • “reactivate” depression by increasing activity levels and access reinforcing events but also incorporate techniques similar to Beck
184
Q

What are the three major self-management procedures?

CBT interventions

A
  1. self-monitoring
  2. stimulus control
  3. biofeedback
185
Q

self-monitoring technique

A

having client record frequency and conditions surrounding target bx
provide client and therapist with information about magnitude and nature of behavior so that an appropriate treatment strategy can be developed
used as assessment tool to promote behavior change

186
Q

Stimulus Control

A

techniques designed to alter the associations between stimuli and behavior and/or consequences

  1. narrowing: restricting the target behavior to a limited set of stimuli (e.g., eating only during certain times)
  2. cue strengthening: linking behavior to specific environmental conditions (e.g., studying in a certain location at home)
  3. fading: changing stimulus conditions associated with behavior (e.g., replacing fetish object with more appropriate sexual stimuli)
187
Q

Name the three main processes of memory

A
  1. encoding
  2. retrieval
  3. storage
188
Q

Name the two major models of memory

A
  1. Information Processing Model (Multi-store)

2. Levels of Processing Model

189
Q

Name the three components of the information processing model of memory

A
  1. Sensory memory
  2. Short-term memory
  3. Long-term memory
190
Q

sensory memory

A

aka sensory register
brief storage of sensory stimuli
capable of storing a lot of information but it is only retained for a few seconds
may be a separate one for each sense

191
Q

short-term memory (STM)

A

begins and fades in 30s
encoding is thought to be acoustic but also semantic, visual, kinesthetic
-consists of PRIMARY (passive, e.g., chunking) memory and WORKING MEMORY

192
Q

long-term memory (LTM)

A

elaborative (relating new info to existing info) vs. maintenance (simply repeating info)
largely semantic
-includes the serial position effect

193
Q

serial position effect

A

supports notion that STM and LTM are separate
when people are asked to recall a list of items immediately after reading a list, more likely to remember items at the beginning and the end
primary effect- words at the beginning of a list that are rehearsed and stored in LTM
recency effect- items at the end of a list that are rehearsed and stored in LTM

194
Q

Describe the levels of processing model of memory

A

differences in memory are due to differences in depth processing vs. separate memory stores

  • 3 levels:
    1. structural- physical properties
    2. phonemic - sound properties
    3. semantic- meaning properties produces the greatest recall
195
Q

Name the two major types of LTM

A
  1. procedural memory

2. declarative memory

196
Q

procedural memory

A

(LTM)

info on HOW to do things “learning how” and used to acquire, retain, and employ perceptual, cognitive, and motor skills

197
Q

declarative memory

A

(LTM)
memory for facts and other info “learning that or what”
includes:
1. semantic memory- general knowledge independent of any context; responsible for storage of facts, rules, concepts
2. episodic (autobiographical) memory- information about personally experienced events
includes flashbulb memories

198
Q

flashbulb memories

A

vivid, detailed images of what one was doing at time a dramatic event occurred

199
Q

implicit vs. explicit memory

A

implicit memory- automatic (functions of the basal ganglia, cerebellum)
explicit memory- conscious recollection (hippocampus, frontal lobes)

200
Q

prospective memory

A

memory to do things in the future
older adults are worse at this than younger kids BUT are good in more naturalistic settings because they use calendars and cues

201
Q

List the three theories of attention and memory

A
  1. Multi-Component Model of WM
  2. Filter Theory of Selective Attention
  3. Feature-Integration Theory
202
Q

Multi-Component Model of Attention and Memory

A

See Figure on cheat sheet, but basically the main components are:

  • central executive
    • with the visuospatial sketchpad, episodic buffer, and phonological loop
202
Q

Multi-Component Model of Attention and Memory

A

See Figure on cheat sheet, but basically the main components are:
-central executive
-with the visuospatial sketchpad, episodic buffer, and phonological loop
-leads to visual semantics, episodic LTM, language
-tasks that depend on central executive are the MOST adversely affected by increased age
e.g., Forward digit span: relies on phonological loop
Backward digit span: phonological loop and central executive

203
Q

Explain the three major components of Filter’s Theory of Selective Attention

A

a. two sensory stimuli presented at same time maintained for brief period in sensory register
b. filter selects 1 of the stimuli to pass through limited sensory channel based on physical characteristics while other stimulus held in temperature buffer for later processing
c. stimulus that passes through channel for STM is processed for meaning and comes into conscious awareness
purpose of filter: prevent overloading of STM capacity
support: split-span listening (dichotic)- listen to sounds presented to each ear simultaneously; remember R ear then L

204
Q

What are the two stages of initial processing of visual information from Feature Integration Theory

A

a. initial preattentive: basic features of object (size, color, orientation) are perceived in parallel and automatic subconscious level
b. attentive stage: features processed serially to form a coherent whole, binding depends on focal attention

205
Q

describe the two ways in which accuracy of memories are affected

A

a. schemas (cognitive strategies/frameworks that influence how new information is encoded, stored, and retrieved)
distortion in memory- interpreting information through existing schema that may introduce systematic biases
b. construction (combining elements of new information with existing knowledge)
can cause inaccuracies and distortions such as eyewitness testimonies

206
Q

List the three theories of forgetting

A
  1. Trace Decay
  2. Interference Theory
  3. Cue Dependent Forgetting
207
Q

trace decay theory of forgetting

A

learning produces a trace (engram– physiological change in brain that decays over time as a result of disuse)
BUT people forget less when asleep vs. awake, so miht be due to interference vs. decay over time

208
Q

interference theory of forgetting

A

forgetting occurs when ability to recall certain information is affected by information acquired previously or subsequently

  • most likely occurs when: a. old and new material is similar
    b. task involves recall (vs. recognition)
    c. when information to be recalled is unimportant
209
Q

describe the two types of interference

A

a. retroactive – occurs when new material interferes with old material
b. proactive – occurs when old material interferes with new material

210
Q

cue dependent forgetting

A

forgetting due to cues needed to retrieve information from LTM are in sufficient or in complete
e.g., tip of the tongue

211
Q

Describe the four methods for improving/optimizing memory

A
  1. Encoding specificity (state-dependent learning; performance is better on recognition vs/ recall)
  2. elaborative rehearsal (when new information is made meaningful by relating to existing knowledge
  3. Mnemonic devices (formal strategies to improve memory)
  4. Arousal (Yerkes-Dodson law— moderate anxiety maximizes efficiency of learning and is affected by task difficulty. The more difficult the task, the less optimal the level of arousal)
212
Q

Name two types of visual mnemonics

A
  1. method of loci- visually associating items to be remembered with a series of places (loci) already in memory
    e. g., form an image of an item and “walk through” familiar room and place items in it
  2. keyword method- linking 2 words
    e. g., “livre” (french word for book; link leaf on book)
213
Q

name two types of verbal mnemonics

A
  1. acronyms- RAID –> sx’s of acute stress d/o (re-experience, avoid, increased arousal, dissociative)
  2. acrostic- phrase or rhyme constricted from first letter of each word to be memorized

EPPP (3 decks)

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