CNAF 3710 Definitions Flashcards

1
Q

Actual Instrument Approach Definition

A

When actual instrument conditions are encountered below 1,000 feet above the airport/flight deck elevation during an instrument approach.

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2
Q

Actual Instrument Conditions Definition

A

Conditions external to the aircraft in flight that do not permit visual reference to the horizon.

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3
Q

Crew Resource Management Definition

A

The use of specifically defined behavioral skills as an integral part of every flight to improve mission effectiveness by minimizing crew preventable errors, maximizing crew coordination, and optimizing risk management.

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4
Q

Cross Country Flight Definition

A

A flight that either does not remain in the local flying area or remains in the local flying area and terminates at a facility other than an active military facility.

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5
Q

Flight Definition

A
  1. For operational purposes, a flight is one or more aircraft proceeding on a common mission.
  2. For helicopters, a flight begins when the aircraft lifts from a rest point or commences ground taxi and ends after airborne flight when the rotors are disengaged or the aircraft has been stationary for 5 minutes with rotors engaged.

Note: flight time on repetitive evolutions such as FDLP, passenger/cargo stops, and carrier qualifications shall be logged from the time the aircraft takes off until the aircraft has been on the surface for 5 minute after each evolution flown.

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6
Q

Formation Flight Definition

A

A flight of more than one aircraft operating by prior arrangement as a single aircraft with regard to altitude, navigation, and position reporting, and where separation between aircraft within the flight rests with the pilots in that flight.

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7
Q

Hazard Definition

A

A condition with the potential to cause personal injury or death, property damage, or mission degradation.

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8
Q

Insturment Meteorological Conditions

A

Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from clouds, and ceiling less than the minimums specified for visual meteorological conditions.

IMC conditions exist anytime a visible horizon is not distinguishable.

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9
Q

Instrument Time Definition

A

The portion of pilot time in either day or night under actual or simulated instrument conditions.

  1. Actual instrument time will be logged by both pilots in a dual/multipiloted aircraft during flight in actual instrument conditions.
  2. Simulated instrument time shall be logged only by the pilot actually manipulating the controls.
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10
Q

Multipiloted Aircraft Definition

A

Any aircraft having two sets of flight controls and instruments and operated by two pilots, both of who met the requirements of the NATOPS manual for the model aircraft.

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11
Q

Night Time Definition

A

The portion of pilot time during darkness (ie. between the official time of sunset and sunrise, regardless of whether visual or instrument conditions exist)

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12
Q

Oceanic Definition

A

A situation where an aircraft has no radio communication and is greater than 250 nm from the nearest navaid.

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13
Q

Operation Necessity Definition

A

A mission associated with war or peacetime operation in which the consequences of an action justify accepting the risk of loss of aircraft and crew.

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14
Q

Operation Risk Management Definition

A

The process of dealing with the risk associated with military operations, which include risk assessment, risk decision making, and implementation of effective risk controls.

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15
Q

Pilot in Command Definition

A

The pilot assigned responsibility for safe and orderly conduct of the flight.

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16
Q

Precautionary Landing Definition

A

A premeditated landing, on or off an airport, when further flight is possible but inadvisable.

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17
Q

Risk Definition

A

An expression of possible loss in terms of severity and probability.

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18
Q

Risk Assessment Definition

A

The process of detecting hazards and assessing associated risks.

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19
Q

Warning Definition

A

Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc, that may result in injury, death, or loss of aircraft if not carefully observed or followed.

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20
Q

Caution Definition

A

Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc, that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed.

21
Q

Note Definition

A

Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition, that must be emphasized.

22
Q

Shall Definition

A

“Shall” is used only when application of a procedure is mandatory.

23
Q

Should Definition

A

“Should” is used only when application of a procedure is recommended.

24
Q

May Definition

A

“May” and “need not” are used only when application of a procedure is optional.

25
Q

Will Definition

A

“Will” indicates futurity and never indicates any degree of requirement for application of a procedure.

26
Q

Land Immediately Definition

A

Execute a landing without delay.

27
Q

Land as Soon as Possible Definition

A

Land at the first site at which a safe landing can be made.

28
Q

Land as Soon as Practicable Definition

A

Extended flight is not recommended. The landing site and duration of flight are at the discretion of the pilot in command.

29
Q

Nonstandard Operations

A

A non-standard operation is defined as when an urgent requirement exists to fly a short-notice mission in support of humanitarian, contingency, TACEVAC, special access or state department requirement.

30
Q

Qualified Observer

A

A qualified observer is an individual who has met all of the minimum aeromedical and survival requirements for indoctrination flights.

31
Q

Local Flights

A

A flight that remains within the local flying area and terminates at either the same facility or another military facility with which the originating station has direct station-to-station communications.

32
Q

Passenger

A

An individual who is not part of the aircrew traveling in an aircraft designed or normally configured for passenger (non-aircrew) carrying capability on a point-to-point flight. (36)

33
Q

Reporting Custodian

A

An organizational unit of the lowest echelon of command accepting responsibility (involving accountability to CNO) for aircraft as designated either by CNO or by the controlling custodian of the aircraft.

34
Q

Controlling Custodian

A

The command exercising administrative control of assignment, employment, and logistic support of aircraft. Controlling custodians are identified in COMNAVAIRFORINST 4790.2A. (33)

35
Q

Advisory Control

A

The tactical control of aircraft by a designated control unit in which the pilot receives directions and recommendations. Aircraft commanders are not relieved of responsibility for their own safety and navigation. (33)

36
Q

Close Control

A

The tactical control of aircraft by a designated control unit, whereby the pilot receives orders affecting aircraft movements. The pilot will not deviate from controller instructions unless given permission or unless unusual circumstances require immediate action for the safety of the flight. In either case, the pilot will inform the controller of the action taken. This type of control requires two-way radio communication and radar contact. The controller is responsible for the safe separation of the aircraft, and the pilot must be informed whenever the aircraft is not held on the radarscope for periods in excess of 1 minute or five sweeps of the radar and, as a result, is being dead reckoned. The ultimate safety of the aircraft is the responsibility of the pilot. (33)

37
Q

Positive Control

A

The tactical control of aircraft by a designated control unit, whereby the pilot receives orders affecting aircraft movements that transfer responsibility for the safe navigation of the aircraft to the unit issuing such orders. The ultimate safety of the aircraft is the responsibility of the pilot. (33)

38
Q

Aerobatic Flight Maneuvers

A

An intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in aircraft attitude, intentionally performed spins, or other maneuvers requiring pitch/dive angles greater than 45°, bank angles greater than 60°, or accelerations greater than 2 gs. A maneuver that conforms to the model NATOPS manual (e.g., break, weapons delivery, autorotations, etc.) is not considered to be aerobatic flight.

39
Q

VIP

A

Defined as flag officers, DOD officials equal to or senior to flag officers, high-profile public figures, elected members of Congress, etc. (38)

40
Q

Orientation Flight

A

A continuous-flight in DOD aircraft performed within the local flying area and terminating at the point of origin intended to further the understanding of particular programs concerning the roles and missions of the Department of Defense. (36)

41
Q

Local Flying Area

A

That area in the vicinity of an air installation in which locally-based aircraft can operate during an average/typical sorties flight time. The local flying area shall not exceed 350 miles from an air installation and be designated as such in the Air Operations Manual by the Commanding Officer. In so far as practicable, local flying areas shall be bounded by prominent terrain features and/or air navigation aid radials/distances. (35)

42
Q

Simulated Instrument Conditions

A

Conditions external to the aircraft in flight are visual meteorological conditions (VMC), but pilot vision is limited primarily to the interior of the aircraft. (37)

43
Q

Simulated Instrument Approach

A

An instrument approach flown under simulated instrument conditions. (37)

44
Q

Aircraft Class

A

A broad classification as to the general mission purpose of an aircraft design (e.g., attack, fighter, helicopter, patrol, transport, vertical takeoff and landing and unmanned aerial vehicles). (33)

45
Q

Aircraft Type

A

The broadest classification of aircraft as to physical characteristics (i.e., fixed-wing, rotary-wing or tilt-rotor). (31)

46
Q

Aircraft Model

A

The basic mission symbol and design number (e.g., P-3, S-3, F/A-18, and H-60). (33)

47
Q

Aircraft Series

A

The specific version of aircraft within the same model (e.g., AV-8B; H-46D or E; F/A-18D or E/F). (33)

48
Q

Officer in Tactical Command

A

The senior officer present eligible to assume command, or the officer to who he has delegated tactical command. (34)