Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

1st line antibiotic prophylaxis for animal/human bites?

A

Co-Amoxiclav

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2
Q

What antibiotics are given as part of ‘quadruple therapy’ for TB ?

A

Rifampicin + Isoniazid + Pyrizinamide + Ethambutol
(RIPE)

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3
Q

What is a significant side effect of ethambutol and what is given to reduce the risk of this?

A

Optic neuropathy / colour blindness. Vitamin B6 is given concurrently to reduce the risk.

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4
Q

True or false - Rifampicin can make bodily secretions orange?

A

True

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5
Q

What is the first line treatment for a case of a first presentation of genital herpes (herpes simplex)?

A

For 1st episode of genital herpes = 1st line is oral aciclovir (or oral valaciclovir or famciclovir) if within 5 days of symptoms beginning OR if new lesions are still forming. Pts with concurrent advanced HIV may need double the dose of the oral antivirals.

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6
Q

What is the optimal management of recurrent / subsequent attacks of genital herpes (herpes simplex)?

A

Repeat attacks of genital herpes tend to become less severe, shorter and less frequent with time. Typically just advise avoiding trigger factors (sunlight, intercourse) and self-care measures. If this fails to control symptoms consider either 1) Episodic management (if they have <6 episodes per year) - with oral antivirals at the onset of symptom OR 2) Prophylaxis if 6 or more episodes per year, causing psychological distress or affecting social life (with oral antiviral for 1 year then stop to see if recurrence)

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7
Q

What bacteria causes lyme disease and how is it transmitted?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

Transmitted through the bite of an infected tick. Highest prevalence in the UK is in Scottish highlands + South of England but can get anywhere.

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8
Q

How should you manage patients that have been recently bitten by a tick but are asymptomatic?

A

Most tick bites don’t transmit Lyme disease - if they are asymptomatic and have promptly removed the tick no investigation or treatment is needed.

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9
Q

Presentation with which rash is diagnostic of lyme disease?

A

Erythema migrans.
= A red rash, normally at the site of the tick bite, that increases in size and sometimes has a central clearing. Can occur anywhere from a few days to a few weeks after the original bite and usually lasts a few weeks. NOT PAINFUL OR ITCHY.

A rash that arises immediately after the bite and recedes within 48 hrs that IS itchy/painful is likely not Lyme disease / erythema migrans but more focal infection with commensal skin bacteria following the bite.

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10
Q

If a patient presents with erythema migrans, do you need to do lab investigations to confirm borrelia burgdorferi?

A

NO!
Erythema migrans is diagnostic and you can start Tx.

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11
Q

How would you investigate patients without erythema migrans but for whom you have a high clinical suspicion of Lyme disease (tick bite and symptomatic - fever, lymphadenopathy, fatigue, brain fog, fluctuating + migratory polyarthropathy, neurological symptoms unexplained facial or other CN palsy, mononeuritis multiplex (peripheral neuropathy in 2 or more different nerve areas), uveitis, keratitis, pericarditis (lyme carditis)

A

Initial test = ELISA test for Lyme disease.

If ELISA positive = then do an immunoblot test.
If ELISA neg = doesn’t exclude lyme disease if high clinical suspicion. Repeat the ELISA in 4-6 weeks if the 1st one was done within 4 wks of the onset of symptoms. If remains neg and clinical suspicion high then do immunoblot.

Can start treatment prior to ELISA results if high clinical suspicion.

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12
Q

What are the 1st line antibiotic treatments for Lyme disease?

A

Adults / >9 yrs: Oral doxycycline for 3-4 weeks (if pregnant or allergic to doxy = oral amoxicillin)
OR IV ceftriaxone if haemodynamically unstable or affecting the CNS.

Children <9: oral amoxicillin OR IV Ceftriaxone if haemodynamically unstable or affecting the CNS.

Can repeat the course if ongoing symptoms / evidence of re-infection but do not routinely offer more than 2x courses of abx for lyme disease.

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13
Q

What is a significant side effect of isoniazid (given as part of quadruple therapy for TB) and what is given alongside to reduce the risk?

A

Peripheral neuropathy

Vit B6 supplementation is given alongside to reduce the risk.

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14
Q

What is a significant side effect of Pyrazinamide (used as part of quadruple therapy for TB)?

A

^ uric acid levels / gout

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15
Q

What is the causative organism behind rubella / german measles?

A

Togavirus.

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16
Q

What is Hutchinson’s sign as it pertains to shingles?

A

Hutchinson’s sign = shingles rash extending to the tip of the nose = high risk of corneal involvement because the nasociliary branch of the trigeminal nerve supplies both the cornea and the tip of the nose.

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17
Q

What are the recommended analgesics for use in post-herpetic neuralgia after shingles?

A

1st line according to NICE = Amitriptyline, Duloxetine, Gabapentin or Pregabalin
If one of those don’t work then try and different one.
Can also try topical capsaicin.

18
Q

What is the underlying viral cause of Karposi’s sarcoma and what condition is it’s presentation strongly associated with?

A

HHV-8 (human herpes virus 8)
STRONGLY associated with HIV (an AIDs defining illness)

19
Q

Which common vaccines are live attenuated and therefore contraindicated in patients with primary or acquired immune deficiency?

A
  • MMR
    *BCG vaccine for TB
    *Oral polio
  • Oral typhoid
  • Yellow fever
  • Shingles
  • Rotavirus
20
Q

What categories of patient should be considered to have primary or acquired immune deficiency and therefore not be given live attenuated vaccines?

A
  • acute/chronic leukaemia or lymphoma
  • severe immunosuppression due to HIV / AIDS
  • cellular immune deficiency eg digeorge syndrome
  • under follow-up for a chronic lymphoproliferative disorder (plasma cell dyscrasia, myeloma, CLL, indolent lymphoma)
21
Q

1st line abx management for gonorrohoea?

A

Dx with NAAT + culture before abx started!
Screen partners (patient-led partner notification) and start treatment while waiting for the results!
1st line Ceftriaxone 1g IM single dose
2nd line (if needle phobic or allergies) Cefixime 400mg single dose PO + Azithromycin 2g PO

22
Q

1st line abx for PID if risk of gonorrhoea infection low?

A

IM Ceftriazone single dose + Metronidazole + Doxycycline

23
Q

What is the organism that causes syphilis?

A

gram NEGATIVE spirochete bacteria -> treponema pallidum

24
Q

What are the 2 methods of syphilis transmission?

A

1) Acquired Syphilis -> transmission via bodily fluids through breaks in the skin during sex or contaminated needles or direct contact of a skin lesion
2) Congenital Syphilis -> either antenatal or intrapartum transmission from mother

25
Q

What are the 3 stages of acquired syphilis?

A

1) Primary Syphilis (early localised) -> PAINLESS chancre at the site of contact (raised edges, hard base) occurs 1-3 wks after initial contact, self-resolve after a few months

2) Secondary Syphilis (disseminated) - the MOST infectious part
occurs in ~ 1/4 of patients with an untreated chancre ->
occurs 6-12 wks after initial infection.
Spirochete dissemination through blood stream and lymph system:
* Generalised lymphadenopathy
* NON-ITCY maculopapular rash (initially on trunk, then limbs, soles and palms)
* Fever / headache / arthropathy

again, if untreated will also self-resolve after a few weeks but can recur.

3) The Latent Phase ->
there is a LONG latent phase between secondary and tertiary
Early latent phase -> ~ 2 yrs -> VERY infectious to sexual partners and to fetus in pregnancy
Late latent phase -> after 2 yrs -> no longer infectious to sexual partners but can still transmit to fetus.

4) Tertiary Syphilis - occurs after decades of the initial infection
in 1/3rd of untreated cases

Neurosyphilis ->
* tabes dorsalis (Arteriole inflammation affecting blood supply to the posterior aspect of the spinal cord = loss of vibration + proprioception)
* anterior spinal cord involvement (general weaknes/paralysis mostly in legs / loss of sensation)
* cerebral involvement -> cognitive impairment, reduced coordination, slurred speech, abnormal behaviour.
Eye involvement -> Argyll-Robertson pupil -> loss of light reflex but accomodation reflex maintained
-> optic atrophy -> tunnel vision

Widespread immune reaction to the treponema -> gumma formation = a solitary painless granuloma lesion with necrotic centre made of immune cells

Cardiovascular syphilis -> endarteritis (inflammation of small arteriorles serving the big vessels) -> aortic aneurysm,

26
Q

What are the signs / symptoms of congenital syphilis ?

A

Early congenital syphilis -> 0-2 years -> stillbirth, maculopapular rash on soles of feet + palms, snuffles, hepatosplenomegaly, optic neuritis

Late congenital syphilis -> > 2 yrs - saddle-nose, saber shins (bent tibia), Hutchinson teeth (notches in the teeth), hearing loss

27
Q

Diagnostic testing for syphilis?

A

Initial idenfitication of chancre = Dark-field microscopy of the chancre-> identifies the spirochetes

Diagnosis confirmation = serological testing -> test for antibodies against the treponema pallidum
Split into;
1) Non-treponemal tests eg RPR + VDRL = test for anti-cardiolipin antibodies aka Reagin - HOWEVER not specific to syphilis
2) Treponemal tests - TPPA + FTA-ABS = detect antibodies specific to treponemal pallidum

28
Q

Treatment for syphilis?

A

Primary, Secondary + Early Latent = stat dose IM benzathine penicillin. Alternative = 2 weeks oral doxycycline

Late latent + gummatous + cardiovascular syphilis = once weekly IM benzathine penicillin for 3 weeks OR a month of oral doxycyline (need to give a course of oral prednisolone started 24 hrs before starting antibiotics for cardiovascular syphilis)

Neurosyphilis or ophthalmic involvement = IV benzylpenicilin every 4 hours for 14 days

29
Q

What are the CENTOR criteria to assess for Group A Strep pharyngitis?

A

Designed for those presenting with acute onset short throat (within 3 days!)

C - cough absent +1
E - exudate (from tonsils)
N - tender/swollen anterior cervical lymph nodes
T - Temperature
OR - age modifier (3-14 = +1, 15 - 44 = 0, >45 = -1)

If 0 or 1 = no Tx needed
If 2 or 3 = throat cultures
If 4 ot 5 = consider rapid strep testing and abx

30
Q

What are the side effects of Rifampicin (used for TB Tx)

A

Common - thrombocytopenia, N+V
Oral discolouration of secretions, hepatitis, flu-like illness, leukopenia

When used IV = bone pain, high bilirubin

31
Q

What is the typical presentation of dengue fever?

A

DIFFUSE body pain + BIPHASIC fever + retro-orbital pain
‘bone breaking fever’
Microorganism transmitted by aedes mosquito

32
Q

In younger babies with a severe ear infection requiring IV abx what is 1st line abx?

A

Neonates / very young babies -> IV cephalosporin
Once a bit older -> IV amoxicillin (as staph and strep most likely causes)

33
Q

Common STIs, their Dx and their treatment?

A

Note - for both chlamydia + gonorrhoea can take 14 days after exposure for it to show on NAAT testing so need to repeat swabs if taken before this window.

Chlamydia ->
Dx - vulvovaginal swab in women, first pass urine in men
Complication -> lymphogranuloma venereum (inguinal lymphadenopathy + fever + proctocolitis +/- erythema nodosum)
Mx -> 1 wk doxycycline or stat azithromycin then 2/7
Test of cure only if <25 years or rectal infection or pregnancy

Gonorrhoea -> gram negative diplococci
vulvovaginal swab / first pass urine
Mx = IM Ceftriaxone stat
(or oral cefixime + azithromycin if can’t have IM)
Should have test of cure after 2 wks

Bacterial vaginosis
= overgrowth of vaginal microbiome including overgrowth of garderella vaginalis (see CLUE CELLS)
= FISHY, THIN DISCHARGE, ALKALINE (pH > 4.5)
Tx = Metronidazole stat

Trichomonas
= protozoal infection with trichomonas vaginalis = VERY ITCHY with thin yellow/green discharge + ALKALINE (ph >4.5)
Tx = Metronidazole stat

Genital warts
-> about 1/3rd spontaneously resolve.
Recurrence of warts is ^ with smoking
Tx = topical immiquimod (MORE EFFECTIVE) or podophyllotoxin
(CANNOT USE EITHER OF ABOVE IN PREGNANCY AS TERATOGENIC -> CRYOPTHERAPY OR EXCISION INSTEAD)

34
Q

Normal vaginal pH?

A

3.5-4.5

35
Q

Which STIs have a raised pH (>4.5) / alkaline

A

Bacterial vaginosis (imbalance of vaginal bacteria including overgrowth of garderella vaginalis, fishy discharge)
Trichomonas (trichomonas vaginalis, VERY ITCHY, yellow/green thin discharge)

36
Q

Types of HSV associated with oral + anogenital herpes

A

HSV1 is now the most common cause of both oral AND anogenital herpes!!!
Anogenital herpes with HSV2 is associated with a much higher rate of recurrence!!

37
Q

Latency period before STIs will show positive on testing?

A

Chlamydia + gonorrhoea = 2 weeks
HIV = 4 weeks
Syphillis + Hep B + C = 12 weeks

38
Q

Mx of small and non-small cell lung cancers?

A

Non-small cell lung cancers -> chemo and radio NOT effective
(Non - Not effective)
Tx = curative surgical resection if possible (can still do if lymph spread)

Small cell lung cancers = combined chemo and radiotherapy

39
Q

Polycythaemia vera management?

A

Polycythaemia vera = genetic disorder leading to ^ Hb and reticulocytosis
Presents w/ POST BATHING ITCHINESS, PURPLE RASH + HIGH BP

Mx:
If asymptomatic = venesection to keep haematocrit < 50% + Aspirin
If symptomatic / organomegaly / thrombocytosis = start immunosupression
Splenectomy is last resort.

40
Q

Primary myelofibrosis?

A

Scarring of the bone marrow
Presents w/ anaemia + splenomegaly
Tx -> immunosupression

41
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes associated with small cell lung cancer?

A

Cushing’s
SIADH
Lambert -Eaton myasthenic syndrome -> proximal muscle weakness + autonomic dysfunction

42
Q

Safe antihypertensives in pregnancy?

A

Hydralazine + Labetalol

Beta blockers + ACEi cannot be used in pregnancy!!
Beta blockers ^ risk of preterm birth + perinatal mortality
ACEi ^ risk of fetal malformation