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CST Cert Exam > Practice Test 2 > Flashcards

Practice Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What can be said to be in common between

liver, spleen, and pancreas?

A

All three are solid organs and very vascular

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2
Q

Which gas is not used intraocularly?

  1. sulfur hexafluoride
  2. perfluoroethane
  3. nitrous oxide
  4. perfluoropropane
A

c. nitrous oxide

All of the other three are mixed with sterile air to stabilize a detatched retina.

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3
Q

What vitamin is produced by E. coli?

A

Vitamin K

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4
Q

What procedures are done to correct recurrent anterior dislocation of the shoulder?

A
  • Bankart
  • Putti-Platt
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5
Q

Which is NOT associated with inflammation?

  1. swelling
  2. pain
  3. loss of function
  4. increased temperature
  5. pus
A

e. pus

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6
Q

Which ligament associated with the tail of the pancreas must be transected during a splenectomy?

A

Splenorenal ligament

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7
Q

What agent is administered preoperatively to reduce risk of N&V?

A

metoclopramide (Reglan)

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8
Q

What is Exenteration, in the context of the eye?

A

Removal of the entire orbital contents, including periosteum. Indications include malignant neoplasm.

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9
Q

Which is not a cephalosporin, but rather an aminoglycoside?

  1. Ancef
  2. Kefzol
  3. Keflex
  4. Kanamycin
A

d. Kanamycin

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10
Q

A washer/disinfector or sterilizer is effective against what kind of organisms?

A

Vegetative microorganisms only.

It does not kill spores.

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11
Q

What’s the difference between pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics?

A

Pharmacodynamics is how a drug affects the organism

Pharmacokinetics is how the body affects (metabolizes) the drug

  • *dynamic = action** of the drug
  • *kinetic = movement** (change) of the drug
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12
Q

True or False

A Babcock clamp is often used in a tonsillectomy

A

FALSE

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13
Q

What drug could be used to prevent risk of postoperative N&V?

A

metoclopramide (Reglan)

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14
Q

All of the following organs produce hormones in addition ot their major functions except the

  1. Pancreas
  2. Pituitary gland
  3. Kidney
  4. Thymus
A

The answer given in the key is

c. Kidney

HOWEVER,
the thymus produces only T cells;
the Pituitary only produces hormones;
the Pancreas has two major functions, producing both hormones and enzymes

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15
Q

Le Fort II

A

nasal bones, frontal process of maxilla and lacrimal, orbital floor, infraorbital rim, lateral maxillary sinus wall

Le Fort I fractures primarily involve the maxilla.

Le Fort II fractures primarily involve the maxilla, nasal bridge, lacrimal bones, orbital floors, and orbital rims.

Le Fort III fractures involve the nasal bridge, medial orbital walls, lateral orbital walls, maxilla, and zygomatic arch.

Le Fort IV is simply a Le Fort III fracture plus involvement of the frontal bone.

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16
Q

Injecting local anesthetic into subarachnoid space is called ___

A

Spinal anesthesia

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17
Q

The three pairs of extrinsic salivary glands are?

A
  • Parotid
  • Submandibular
  • Sublingual
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18
Q

Which layer of the digestive tract contains nerve plexus, blood vessels, and glands?

A

Submucosa

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19
Q

What is the proper temperature range of the operating room?

A

68 to 73° F

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20
Q

The pars plana layer is the site of incision for what procedure?

A

vitriectomy

21
Q

The Whipple procedure includes removal of

A
  • pancreas head
  • entire duodenum
  • partial jejunum
  • distal third of stomach (partial gastrectomy)
  • lower half of common bile duct
  • all 6 things on the list
22
Q

Which gas is colorless, odorless, tasteless, and used as an analgesic/amnestic?

  1. Sevoflurane
  2. Nigrogen
  3. Nitrous oxide
  4. Oxygen
A

c. Nitrous oxide

23
Q

The NBSTSA still believes that the most proper positioning for hemorrhoidectomy is

A

Kraske/jackknife

24
Q

Which two gases promote rapid induction and recovery, and offer the fastest onset of induction, emergence, and recovery?

A

Nitrous oxide and halothane

25
Q

What is one of the trade names for fentanyl?

A

Sublimaze

26
Q

Where is bile produced?

A

Hepatocytes

27
Q

List the stages of anesthesia and major characteristics

A
  1. Analgesia
    (without amnesia)
  2. Excitement
    (N&V, hyperactivity, irregular respiration)
  3. Surgical Anesthesia
    (sleep, normal respiration and BP)
  4. medullary depression
    (vasomotor and respiratory depression, coma and death)
28
Q

What instruments are used for dilation of the (male) urethra?

A

Van Buren sounds

29
Q

The esophagus lies in what direction from the trachea?

A

Posterior

30
Q

Which is a mydriatic?

  1. phenylephrine
  2. Naloxone
  3. hyaluronidase
  4. lidocaine
A

a. phenylephrine

PDR.net: “Used orally and intranasally as decongestant, ophthalmically to produce mydriasis for examination or procedures, and parenterally as a vasopressor”

31
Q

Your mask must be removed and disposed of when leaving which areas?

A

Restricted or semirestricted areas

The assumption in the question is that by “leaving” an area you are entering a less restricted zone.

32
Q

What are the four disease agents listed by the CDC as being the most likely to be used in a bioterrorist attack?

A
  • Smallpox
  • Plague
  • Botulism
  • Tularemia
33
Q

True or False:

Certification is a permission to do something that is otherwise forbidden

A

FALSE

34
Q

Amylase begins the digestion of

A

Carbohydrates

35
Q

The opening separating the uterus from the vagina is called what?

A

Cervix

It can also be said that this is “Between the uterus and vagina” by people who don’t think in three (four) dimensions

36
Q

What are the symptoms of a ketamine overdose?

A

hallucinations and respiratory depression

37
Q

Which mode of transmission is not common in the hospital setting?

  1. contaminated food
  2. dirty hands
  3. sneezing
  4. air
A

c. sneezing

Because sneezing is not a mode of transmission, it’s a means of exit that may or may not connect with a victim. The same can be said for any of the other options, but if you think of it as means of contracting rather than ‘mode of transmission’ then the question is not as moronic.

38
Q

List the degrees of burn and major characteristics

A

1st: superficial, epidermis
2nd: partial dermis - superficial or deep partial thickness
3rd: entire dermis
4th: subcutaneous, muscle, bone can be affected

39
Q

A laryngeal mask airway manages the airway during which phase of anesthesia?

A

The book’s answer is:

Induction

(However, it can also be used during maintenance)

40
Q

Where is the respiratory center located?

A

Both the medulla oblongata and pons

The pontine respiratory group includes the pneumotaxic center and apneustic center, which limit inhalation (pneumotaxic) and controls the intensity of breathing (apneustic)

The medulla holds the dorsal respiratory group and the ventral respiratory group, which control the muscular contractions for both inspiration and expiration. The ventral group is only active during forceful breathing. The dorsal group is the primary controller of the rate of respiration.

41
Q

Systole = ?

Diastole = ?

A

Ventricular Contraction

Ventricular Relaxation

42
Q

Describe the location of the gallbladder in terms of surface features

A

Within the angle between the Linea semilunaris and Right costal margin

43
Q

Describe the TRAM flap

A

pedicle-based

Transverse Rectus Abdominis Mycutaneous

Used in breast reconstruction

44
Q

Pressure to the cricoid - the Sellick maneuver - does what?

A

prevents regurgitation/aspiration;

allows better visualization of the vocal cords for the anesthesia provider during intubation

45
Q

Who maintains the safety and operating conditions of many operating room devices?

A

Biomedical personnel

46
Q

What are the 4 main ligaments of the spleen?

A

Gastrosplenic

Colicosplenic

Phrenocolic

Splenorenal (Phrenosplenic)

47
Q

For an instrument to be disinfected by glutaraldehyde, it must be dry for how long before being soaked, at room temperature?

A

20 minutes

48
Q

With a fast turnover time between cases of, say, 35 minutes, how can a laparoscopic set be made ready, if you only have one set?

A
  • *Autoclave** instruments on a prevacuum cycle;
  • *soak** the light cable, camera, and lens in gultaraldehyde for 10 minutes

CST Cert Exam (3 decks)

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