Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 5 (Alex) > Obs > Flashcards

Obs Flashcards

1
Q

Preconception lifetstyle changes

A
  • Reduce alcohol consumption
  • Reduce/ maintain BMI (<30)
  • Reduce/stop smoking
  • Medication r/v if chronic condition
  • Stop teratogenic meds
    • High dose vit A
    • Warfarin
    • Lithium
    • Sodium valproate
    • Isotetrinoin (acne drug)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Preconception supplementation

A

Folic acid 400mcg until end of 1st trimester

5mg if

  • BMI >30
  • FHx neural tube defect
  • Prev preg - neural tube defect
  • Diabetic
  • Epileptic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Diagnosis of pregnancy

A

HCG - human gonadotrophic hormone

detectable from around day 7-9 in blood and day 8-12 in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Booking appointment

  1. When should it occur by?
  2. What is done during appt?
A
  1. 10 weeks

Comprehensive histories

  • Medical
  • Psychiatric
  • Surgical
  • O&G
  • Social

Basics

  • BMI
  • BP

Bloods

  • FBC
  • G&S
  • HIV
  • Hep B
    • Surface antigen
  • Syphilis

Other Ix

  • USS

Give info

  • how the baby develops during pregnancy
  • nutrition and diet
  • exercise and pelvic floor exercises
  • antenatal screening tests
  • your antenatal care
  • breastfeeding, including workshops
  • antenatal education
  • maternity benefits
  • your options for where to have your baby
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is checked for Hep B blood test?

A

Surface antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Antenatal care timeline

A

8643, 5322

If pt has low risk/normal preg, will have midwife led care throughout.

8 to 12 weeks: booking appointment

8 to 14 weeks: dating scan

16 weeks: whooping cough

18 to 20 weeks: (20-week) scan for physical development of your baby

25 weeks*: Fundal height + BP + Proteinuria

28 weeks: Fundal height + BP + Proteinuria Fundal height + BP + Proteinuria
+ offer your first anti-D if rhesus negative + consider iron supplement if anaemic

31 weeks*: Fundal height + BP + Proteinuria

34 weeks: Fundal height + BP + Proteinuria + 2nd anti-D if rhesus neg
+ prep for labour & birth plan

36 weeks: Fundal height + BP + Proteinuria + foetal lie -> ECV offered if breech + Vit K and screening tests for newborn
+ prep for breastfeeding & newborn care incl bbblues+PND

38 weeks: Fundal height + BP + Proteinuria
+ discuss choices if preg >41 weeks

40 weeks*: Fundal height + BP + Proteinuria

41 weeks: Fundal height + BP + Proteinuria
+ offer membrane sweep + discuss induction of labour options

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How many antenatal appts?

A

If you’re expecting your first child, you’ll have up to 10 antenatal appointments.

If you have had a baby before, you’ll have around 7 appointments, but sometimes you may have more – for example, if you develop a medical condition.

Early in your pregnancy, your midwife or doctor will give you written information about how many appointments you’re likely to have and when they’ll happen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which vaccines are routinely offered in pregnancy and when?

A

Whooping cough from 16 weeks + Influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Combined screening test

1) When?
2) For which syndromes?
3) How?

A

1) Between 10 and 14 weeks (first trimester)
2) Down’s, Patau’s, Edward’s
3) Combined test: obtaining nuchal translucency, serum B-HCG, PAPP-A (Pregnancy Associated Plasma Protein-A)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When is combined screening test not possible/doesnt work? And what is done alternatively?

A

Quadruple test, between 14 to 20 weeks pregnant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What screening test is performed if combined/quadruple test result is higher chance?

A

Non-Invasive Prenatal Testing (NIPT)

examines small fragments of DNA (cell free DNA (cfDNA) which are released from the placenta - can be done from 10weeks onwards; more sensitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Renal changes in pregnancy

A

cefalexin first line for UTI trx but check local guideline but used often bc safe throughout the trimesters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

GI changes in pregnancy

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Haem changes in pregnancy

A

Prophylactic clexane from 28 weeks when u do a screen of VTE risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Haemodynamic changes in pregnancy

A

increased blood volume is v diluted so u get associated NORMAl anaemia. Pregnant ppl usually have lower - normal BP than they usually do.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Normal B-hCG blood levels

A

hCG levels usually consistently rise until around week 10–12 of your pregnancy, when the levels plateau or even decrease. This is the reason why pregnancy symptoms can be greater in the first trimester and ease off after this time for many women.

In early pregnancy, hCG levels usually double every two to three days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Causes of low B-hCG blood levels

A
  • Gestational age miscalculation
  • Miscarriage
  • Ectopic pregnancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Malpresentation - breech

A

ECV - 36 weeks for first time mothers, 37 otherwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Malpresentation transverse

RF, Main risk, Mx

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Stages of labour

A

First stage (8-12h)

Latent phase

  • Cervical effacement
  • 0-3cm
  • Start of regular, painful contractions

Active phase

  • 4- 10cm (full dilation)
  • Contractions are stronger and more frequent

Second stage (<3h)

  • Baby moves down from uterus to vagina
  • Baby is delivered

Third stage (1-60min)

  • Delivery of placenta
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Causes of prolonged labour (by stage)

A

First stage

  • Dysfunctional uterine activity
    • Contractions aren’t strong enough
  • Cephalopelvic disproportion
    • Size of baby v size of pelvis
  • Malpresentation
    • Presenting in a diff way:(

Second stage

  • Dysfunctional uterine activity
  • Pelvic shape
  • Resistant perineum
    • not loosening for head delivery

Third stage

  • Uterine atony
  • Placenta abnormalities
    • e.g., placenta accreta
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is classed as prolonged labour for each stage?

A
  • First stage: <1cm every 2h
  • Second stage: >3h if nulliparous, >2h if parous
  • Third stage: >30 mins if active, >60 mins if passive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Induction of labour indications

A
  • Post term (>42 weeks) -> Placental insufficiency
  • Prelabour rupture of membranes
  • T1/T2DM
  • Gestational diabetes
  • PET
  • Obstetric cholestasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Induction and augmentation of labour methods

A
  • Membrane sweep (antenatal clinic visits 39/40 onwards)
    • Insert finger into vagina and through to cervix - sweep round to try detach membranes from inner wall of uterus and cervix -> cause release of hormones to progress labour

Bishop score 6 or less

  • Balloon catheter
  • Prostaglandin pessary (e.g., misoprostol)

Bishop score > 6

  • Aritifical rupture of membranes (using amniohook)
  • IV Syntocinon
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Bishop score

A

assessment of ‘cervical ripeness’ - assessed prior to and during induction.

Score of ≥ 7 – cervix is ripe or ‘favourable’ – high chance of a response to interventions to induce labour (i.e. induction of labour is possible).

Score of <4 – labour unlikely to progress naturally and prostaglandin tablet/gel/pessary required

Failure of cervix to ripen despite use of prostaglandins may result in need for caesarean section.

Modifiers

+1 for e/:

Existence of pre-eclampsia

Each previous delivery

  • 1 for e/:

Postdate/post-term pregnancy

Nulliparity

PPROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What methods are used to assess foetal wellbeing in labour?

A
  • CTG
  • Intermittent auscultation (low risk women)
  • Foetal blood sampling (used for assessing foetal hypoxia in presence of abnormal CTG)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Primary dysfunctional labour

A

Slow progress of labour from beginning, i.e. <2cm increase cervical dilation in 4h.

Often caused by ineffective uterine action and deflexion of foetal head.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Secondary arrest of labour

A

Failure to progress when there was adequate/expected progress to begin with.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. What are CTG accelerations?
  2. What are CTG decelerations?
  3. What are early decelrations?
  4. What are late decelerations?
A
  1. Accelerations = 15bpm > baseline lasting >15s
  2. Decelerations = 15bpm < baseline lasting > 15s
  3. Early deceleration = Deceleration starts when uterine contraction begins and ends when contraction finishes
  4. Late deceleration = Deceleration starts at peak of uterine contraction and recovers after contraction ends
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What can early decelerations indicate?

A

Foeta head compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What can late decelerations indicate?

A

Foetal hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What can variable decelerations indicate?

A

Cord compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Abnormal CTG Mx

A

Conservative

  • Turn woman onto left lateral position (relieves aorto-caval compression)
  • Turn off or down oxytocin infusion (ensure the uterus is not being hyperstimulated)
  • Start IV fluids (ensure pt and foetus well hydrated)

If abnormal CTG persists, perform foetal blood sampling.

  • If pH >7.25:* Restart syntocinon and continue w labour
  • If pH <7.2:* Deliver immediately
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Perineal tear classification

A

I: Vaginal mucosa and/or perineal skin injury

II: Perineal muscle torn

III: Perineal tear involving anal spincter complex

IIIa: <50% external anal sphincter torn

IIIb: >50& external anal sphincter torn

IIIc: both external and internal anal sphincter torn

IV: Injury to perineum involving anal sphincter complex and anal mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Perineal tear RFs

A
  • Forceps delivery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Perineal tear repair

A

3rd & 4th degree

  • Repair in theatre
  • Abx given in theatre
  • Epidural, spinal or GA

Post-op care

  • Analgesia
  • Laxatives
  • F/u w/ physio
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Future method of deliveyr after a 3rd or 4th degree tear

A

If completely healed, able to opt for vaginal delivery

Suggested if 3rd/4th deg tear, future preg 7-10% having similar tear. RFs which incr likelihood: macrosomic baby, forceps delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

VBAC

  1. Success rate?
  2. Risk of uterine scar rupture?
  3. Interventions recommended as part of birth plan?
A
  1. 72-75%
  2. 0.5% / 1 in 200
  3. Continuous CTG monitoring and IV access
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

VBAC risk of uterine scar rupture

A

0.5% / 1 in 200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Small for gestational age RFs and Mx

A

IOL bc we are worried placenta not working as well as it should

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Large for gestational age

A

IOL bc worried fialure to progress bc baby tooo big to descend, or shoulder dystocia, or perineal tears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Reduced foetal movement Ix

A

AFI= amniotic fluid index (how much fluid is around bb)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Preterm labour

A

Regular contractions resulting in cervical dilation after week 20 and before week 37 of pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Preterm labour presentation

A

>20 and < 37/40

  • Painful uterine contractions
  • Cervical dilation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Preterm labour RFs

A
  • Previous preterm labour
  • Multiple pregnancy
  • Polyhydramnios
  • Antepartum haemorrhage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Preterm labour Ix

A
  • CTG
    • assess fetal wellbeing and to monitor uterine activity
  • Foetal USS
    • growth scan of the fetus will give an estimate of the fetal weight which is useful for the neonataologists to know
  • FBC + CRP
    • indicate if there is any subclinical infection causing the preterm labour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Preterm labour Mx

A
  • Tocolysis
    • relaxation of pregnant uterus
    • Most common: Nifedipine (CCB) and Atosiban (oxytocin R antagonist)
  • Steroid administration
    • reduce incidence of respiratory distress syndrome by 50%
    • considered between 24 and 36 weeks gestation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

External Cephalic Version

A

Offered when babies are breech

  • 36 weeks if nuliparous
  • 37 weeks if multiparous

Approx 50% success rate

One of our specialist doctors encourages the baby to turn so that it’s head down (‘cephalic presentation’), by pushing on the mother’s tummy whilst guided by ultrasound, which makes the baby do a forward or backward roll. Your baby’s heartbeat will be monitoried using a heart rate monitor (a ‘CTG’). You will be given some medicine (Terbutaline) by a small injection into your arm to relax the womb a little. This is safe for your baby and makes the ECV more likely to work.

This part only lasts a few minutes and you may experience some discomfort or pain whilst pressing on your tummy. You will be given the option to use gas and air (pain relief you breath in and out) to help with this but if you become too uncomfortable the doctor will stop.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Cord prolapse

A

Obstetric emergency - descent of umbilical cord through the cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Cord prolapse presentation

A
  • Foetal bradycardia/deceleration
  • Fullness in vagina
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Cord prolapse RFs

A
  • Breech
  • Unstable lie
    • position changes (consider admission if >37 weeks)
  • ARM (/recent SROM)
  • Polyhydramnios
  • Prematurity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Cord prolapse Mx

A
  • Call for help + senior input
  • Preparations made for immediate birth in theatre - immediate delivery EMCS
  • To prevent vasospasm, minimal handling of loops of cord lying outside vagina
  • To prevent cord compression, presenting part elevated either manually or by filling the urinary bladder (catheter if in situ filled w saline)
  • Further prevent compression - left lateral position/knee chest position
  • ±Tocolysis whilst awaiting theatre
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Shoulder dystocia

A

Birth complication caused by one or both of the baby’s shoulders getting stuck during delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Shoulder dystocia RFs

A
  • Previous dystocia
  • Macrosomia
  • GDM/pre-existing diabetes
  • Obesity (BMI>30)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Shoulder dystocia Mx

A
  1. STOP pushing + senior input
  2. Flatten the bed
  3. McRober’s manouvre
    • Moving to end of bed, lying on back, and hyperflexing legs towards abdomen
  4. Suprapubic pressure
  5. Episiotomy
  6. Posterior arm delivery
  7. Corkscrew manouvre
  8. All fours position
  9. Symphisotomy (divide pubic symphysis) / cleidotomy (forcibly breaking baby clavicle) / Zavanelli (push baby back into uterus and go for CS)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Shoulder dystocia Complx

A

Maternal

  • Perineal trauma
  • PPH
  • Mental trauma from birth

Foetal

  • Brachial plexus injury
    • Erb’s palsy
      • Asymmetric moro reflex
  • Fractured clavicle
  • Hypoxic brian injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

3 Placental abnormalities

A

Placenta praevia

Placenta accreta, increta & percreta

Vasa praevia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Placental abnormalities shared presentation

A

Painless PV bleeding

May trigger preterm labour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Low lying placenta

A

Edge of placenta <2cm from internal cervical os

(at 20 week scan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Mx of low-lying placenta

A

Rescan at 32 weeks

-> If <2cm from cervical os

Rescan at 36 weeks

-> If <2cm from cervical os

Elective C-section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Placenta praevia

A

Placenta is overlying or enroaching on internal cervical os

(at 20 week scan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Placenta praevia presentation

A
  • Painless PV bleeding
  • PCB
  • Transverse lie of foetus (lower uterine segment occupied by placenta)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Placenta praevia RFs

A
  • Multiple pregnancy
  • Previous placenta praevia
  • Multiparity
  • Previous uterine surgery
  • Smoking
  • Older mothers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Placenta praevia Ix

A
  • TV USS
    • If painless bleeding post 13 weeks
    • Further USS @ 37/40
      • Assess location of placenta and determine delivery method
  • Kleihauer test
    • If RhD neg
    • Determines how much foetal and maternal blood has mixed -> how much anti-D antibodies need to be given
  • CTG
  • Growth scan & umbilical artery dopplers
    • Every 2 weeks

!Vaginal exam contradinidicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Placenta praevia Mx

A

Bleeding with known placenta praevia:

  • Admit
  • ABC approach (G&S, X match), resuscitation and stabilisation.
    • If stabilisation is not achieved/foetal compromise, send for emergency Caesarean Section.
  • Corticosteroids should be considered if between 24-34 weeks gestation and there is risk of preterm labour

Placenta Praevia with no bleeding and not in labour:

  • Monitor with USS
  • Give advice about pelvic rest (no penetrative sexual intercourse) and advise to go to hospital if there is significant vaginal bleeding
  • For CS delivery 34-37weeks

NO VAGINAL EXAM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Placenta praevia Complx

A
  • DIC
  • Renal failure (due to hypovolaemia)
  • PPH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Placenta accreta, increta and percreta

A

Acreta - placenta attaches to deeply into endometrium

Increta - placenta attaches into myometrium

Percreta - placenta attachment goes completely through uterine wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Placenta accreta labour issues

A

Prolonged 3rd stage as placenta fixed onto myometrium

Placental material can be left in uterus -> PPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Placenta acreta/increta/percreta Ix

A
  • Fetoprotein
    • Raised circulating levels
  • B-hCG
    • Raised
  • USS
    • Diagnostic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Vasa praevia

A

Placental vessels (which usually travel in umbilical cord) are not protected by the umbilical cord or the placenta tissue, and travel over the internal cervical os/opening of birth canal –> blood vessels are very fragile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Placental abruption

A

Premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Placental abruption presentation

A
  • Abdominal pain
  • Vaginal bleeding (may be concealed bleed - blood pools between placenta and uterus)
  • Hypovolaemic shock which is often disproportionate to the amount of vaginal bleeding visible
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Placental abruption RFs

A
  • HTN
  • Smoking in pregnancy
  • Substance misuse -> cocaine
  • Previous hx of abruption
  • Multiple pregnancy
  • Polyhydramnios
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Placental abruption Ix

A

Abdo exam

  • Tense, rigid abdomen
  • Woody uterus

CTG

  • Abnormal CTG due to reduced foetal movement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Placental abruption Mx

A

If haemodynamically unstable

  • A to E approach
    • 2 large bore cannulae
    • Cross match 4units blood
    • IV Hartmanns
  • Admit to hospital
  • Anti-D if rhesus D -
  • Dexamethasone if <37weeks
  • If maternal and/or foetal compromise & >30weeks*
  • Caesarean section unless spontaneous vaginal delivery is imminent
  • If at term and no maternal or foetal compromise*
  • Induction of labour
    • To avoid further bleeding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

PPH Minor v Major

A

Minor 500-1000ml

Major >1000ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

PPH Causes

A

4Ts

  • Tone (lack of) *
  • Trauma
  • Tissue (retention of placental tissue)
  • Thrombin

*Uterine atony most common cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Management to minimise risk of PPH

A

Prophylactic uterotonics

  • IM Oxytocin, or
    • Low risk -> SVD or CS
  • IM Syntometrine
    • High risk & no HTN
    • Tranexamic acid
      • Adjunct to reduce blood loss
79
Q

PPH Mx

A
  • Obstetric major haemorrhage call
  • Lie pt flat
  • A to E
    • 2 large bore cannulae
    • VBG, FBC, G&S, clotting
    • Oxygen
  • Catheter
  • Transfusion

Definitive

  1. Bimanual compression
    • Fist inserted into vagina and other hand compresses down over abdomen (uterus) to try to tamponade the bleed
  2. IV syntocinon 5 IU
  3. IV or IM ergometrine 0.5mg
  4. Syntocin infusion
  5. IM carboprost 0.25mg
    Surgical
  6. Bakri balloon tamponade
  7. Brace suture
  8. Internal iliac ligation
  9. Hysterectomy
80
Q

Gestational diabetes mellitus

A

Gestational diabetes is high blood sugar (glucose) that develops during pregnancy and usually disappears after giving birth. Usually occurs around 28 weeks.

81
Q

GDM presentation

A
  • Polyuria
  • Dysuria
  • Thirst
82
Q

GDM RFs

A
  • Previous GDM
  • FHx DM
  • High BMI
  • Previous macrosomic baby (>= 4.5kg)
  • Ethnicity (afrocaribean/south east Asian)
  • PCOS (low insulin state)
83
Q

GDM Ix

A

Screening (at booking)

  • Glycosuria
  • Ask about RFs

If prev GDM, do OGTT at booking then if normal, again at 24-28/40

If glycosuria/other RF at booking, further testing between 24-28/40)

  • Fasting plasma glucose
    • 5.6 or above suggestive of GDM
  • Oral glucose tolerance test
    • 7.8 or above suggestive of GDM
  • HbA1c
    • Points towards pre-existing diabetes being more likely
  • Urinary ketones
    • Rule out possibility new presentation of T1DM and is v insulin deficient
84
Q

GDM USS Ix indication

A
  1. Exclude congenital abnormality - likelihood increased if patient had elevated plasma glucose concentrations earlier in pregnancy (pre-existing, even if undiagnosed Type 1 or Type 2 diabetes)
  2. Establish fetal growth to assess growth rate from now on. Maternal hyperglycaemia is detected by foetus as glucose crosses the placenta. Foetus responds by increasing insulin secretion, as it does not have diabetes, and insulin can cause increased fetal growth which may make for obstetric difficulties.
  3. Assessing liquor volume, as diabetes is common cause for polyhydramnios.
85
Q

GDM Mx

A

Fasting plasma glucose less than 7.0mmol/L

Monitor glucose levels!

Lifestyle changes

  • Diet
    • Calorie-restricted
    • Small, frequent meals
    • Complex carbs (e.g., bread, rice, pasta, potatoes)
    • Minimal simple sugars (e.g., sugar, sweets, jam, juice, cake, etc.)
  • Exercise

If blood glucose targets not met in 1-2 weeks

  • Metformin

Fasting plasma gluocse 7.0mmol/L or above:

  • Insulin
  • +/- Metformin

Stop medication post delivery.

  • +*
  • Joint endo + obstetrics care*
  • Serial growth scans at 28, 32 and 36 weeks*
  • Home testing*
  • Induction of labour*
  • Yearly HbA1C with GP*
86
Q

GDM complx

A

Maternal

  • Risk future T2DM and CVD
  • Risk hypertensive disease in preg
  • Increased risk of IOL/CS/intervention

Foetal

  • Macrosomia
    • Due to increase rate of foetal growth (from increased insulin)
    • May make delivery more difficult -> incr risk shoulder dystocia
  • Neonatal hypoglycaemia
  • Stillbirth
87
Q

If a patient has GDM, what is their risk of developing T2DM further down the line?

A

50%

88
Q

Group B Streptococcus + Mx

A
  • Intrapartum abx
    • Benzylpenicillin
    • Vancomycin if penicillin allergy
89
Q

Vomiting Ddx

A
  • Hyperemesis gravidarum (less than 20 weeks)
  • PET
  • Molar pregnancy
  • Infection
  • GI problem
  • Metabolic conditions
    • Diabetic ketoacidosis, thyrotoxicosis
  • Drug toxicity
90
Q

Hyperemesis Gravidarum

A

Severe vomiting with onset before 20 weeks of gestation

+

  • >5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, or
  • Dehydration, or
  • Electrolyte imbalance
91
Q

Hyperemesis gravidarum presentation

A
  • Vomiting
  • Nausea
  • Weakness
  • Reduced urine output
92
Q

Hyperemesis gravidarum Ix

A

Bedside

  • Obs (BP may be low)
  • CRT (can be low)
  • Mucous membranes (may be dry)
  • Body weight
  • PUQE score
    • Risk stratisfy

Bloods

  • U&Es
  • TFTs
  • HCG
    • t3 and t4 agonist
93
Q

Hyperemesis Gravidarum Mx

A

Admit to hospital/ MAS

Definitive

Antiemetics

  1. Cyclizine/promethazine/chlorpromazine
  2. Metoclopramide
  3. Odansetron/Domperidone
  4. Steroids (refractory)

Supportive

  • IV fluids + KCl
    • Excessive vom may cause hypoK
  • IV Pabrinex
    • Thiamine deficiency, caused by vomiting, can cause Wernicke’s encephalopathy and result in foetal death
  • VTE prophylaxis
    • LMWH + TED (thromboembolytic) stockings
      • Increased risk of VTE due to combination of pregnancy, immobility and dehydration

Alternative Mx

  • Ginger
  • P6 acupressure
94
Q

What are the 2 biliary disease of pregnancy?

A

Obstetric cholestasis and acute fatty liver of pregnancy

95
Q

Pruritis of palms and soles Ddx

A
  • Obstetric cholestasis / intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
  • Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
  • Autoimmune hepatitis
  • Drug-induced hepatitis
  • Viral hepatitis
  • Extrahepatic obstruction from gallstones
96
Q

Obstetric cholestasis presentation

A
  • 3rd trimester
  • Generalised itching/ pruritus - worst on palms and soles
    • More severe w advancing gestation
    • Can be so bad it prevents sleep - insomnia + malaise
  • Relieved within 48h of delivery

+/-

  • Anorexia
  • Abdo discomfort
  • Pale stools + dark urine
  • Steatorrhoea

(Diagnosis of exclusion)

97
Q

Obstetric cholestasis RFs

A
  • Previous obstetric cholestasis
  • Genetic traits
  • Asian origin
  • Pruritus on the COCP
98
Q

Obstetric cholestasis Ix

A

Rule out other causes as OC is diagnosis of exclusion

  • FBC
  • Clotting profile
    • Increased PTT (liver dysfunction reduces prothrombin production)
  • U&Es
  • LFTs (done weekly)
    • Moderate rise transaminase
    • Increased serum total bile acid concentration
    • ALP may be raised beyond normal preg levels
    • Mild/ no significant elevation of bilirubin
  • Hepatitis serology
  • Autoimmune antibodies
  • Bile acids
  • Liver USS
99
Q

Obstetric cholestasis Mx

A
  • Ursodeoxycholic acid
  • Aim for delivery at 37-38weeks
    • Allows adequate time for foetal development w/o unneccessarily prolonging risk of spontaneous death
  • Antihistamine, e.g., chlorphenamine
    • Reduce itch
100
Q

Obstetric cholestasis complx

A
  • Preterm birth
  • Severe liver impairment
  • Foetal macrosomia
  • PPH
  • Intrauterine death
101
Q

Acute fatty liver of pregnancy presentation

A

Usually 3rd trimester

  • Nausea/vomiting
  • Abdominal pain
  • Jaundice
102
Q

Acute fatty liver of pregnancy Ix

A
  • FBC
    • Platelets low
  • Kidney function
    • eGFR low
  • LFTs
    • PT & APTT raised
    • Bilirubin raised
    • ALT & AST raised
103
Q

Acute fatty liver of pregnancy Mx

A

ITU input

Blood products

Foetal monitoring

Prompt delivery

104
Q

Acute fatty liver of pregnancy complx

A

DIC

Death

105
Q

Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

A

Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome is a complication of iatrogenic induction of ovulation.

The FSH used in IVF leads to many follicles maturing and enlarging. Once ovulation occurs from these follicles, each then becomes a corpus luteum. As a result there is an excessive production of oestrogen, progesterone, and local cytokines (e.g. vascular endothelial growth factor).

106
Q

OHSS presentation

A
  • Bloating/ distended abdomen + abdo discomfort
    • Ovaries may enlarge to such an extent that they put pressure on surrounding structures –> bloating + abdo discomf
  • N+V
    • Due to high [oestrogen]
  • Weight gain
    • Vascular endothelial growth factor causes blood vessels to leak –> fluid retention
  • Pt undergoing IVF
107
Q

HTN in pregnancy 3 categories

A
  • Essential/chronic HTN ( r a r e - pre existing HTN)
  • Pregnancy induced HTN / gestational HTN
  • Pre eclampsia

All require obstetric input

108
Q

Pregnancy induced HTN / gestational HTN

A
  • Occurs after 20/40 (anything before is essential HTN)
  • BP >140/90
  • HTN w/o any end organ dysfunction
109
Q

What should you check when taking BP?

A

Correct cuff size is used

110
Q

Pregnancy induced HTN Mx

A
  • Antihypertensives
  • Offer induction of labour
111
Q

Pre-eclampsia

A

High blood pressure and signs of damage to 1 or more organ system, commonly presenting as proteinuria. Can only be diagnosed from 20/40.

112
Q

Pre-eclampsia presentation

A

Early syx

  • High blood pressure
  • Proteinuria

Further syx

  • severe headaches
  • visual disturbances, such as blurring or seeing flashing lights
  • Oedema of the face and hands
  • vomiting
  • hyperreflexia, clonus

In baby/foetus

  • Intrauterine growth restriction
    • Caused by poor blood supply through placenta to baby –> less oxygen and fewer nutrients received –> affect development
113
Q

Pre-eclampsia RFs

A

High

  • Previous pre-eclampsia
  • Chronic HTN
  • CKD
  • DM

Moderate

  • Nulliparity
  • Age >40
  • BMI>35 at booking
  • FH pre-eclampsia
  • Multiple pregnancy
114
Q

Pre-eclampsia Ix

A

Ix

Bedside

  • Obs - BP
  • Dipstick
    • Send sample to lab if + protein for PCR (protein creatinine ratio >30 is significant) or ACR (albumin creatinine ratio >8 is significant)
  • CTG

Bloods

  • FBC
  • U&E
  • LFT
    • ALT often abnormal
  • Clotting/G&S

Imaging

  • Abdo USS
    • If earlier in preg
115
Q

Pre-eclampsia Mx

A
  • Admit if BP>160/110

Monitoring in hospital

  • BP
    • Every 15- 30 mins
  • Urine dip
  • Bloods
    • LFTs
      • ALT rise
    • Creatinine rise
    • Platelets
      • Look for drop (HELLP syndrome)
  • USS
    • Assess growth
    • Assess amount of amniotic fluid
    • Serial growth scans: 28, 32 and 36 weeks gestation
  • CTG

Definitive

  • Antihypertensives
    • Labetalol (first line - NOT for asthmatics)
      • Usually oral first line then IV if uncontrolled
      • Can start with IV if very high BP
    • Nifedipine (second line)
    • Methyldopa (third line)
      + IV MgSulphate if severe
  • Delivery at 37 or 38/40
    • Consider early delivery if
      • Inability to control BP
      • SaO2 <90%
      • Deterioration in renal/liver function
      • Deterioration in platelet count
      • Placental abruption
116
Q

When does pre-eclampsia tend to resolve by?

A

6 weeks post partum

117
Q

Pre-eclampsia complications

A

Maternal

  • Convulsions (eclampsia)
  • HELLP syndrome (haemolysis elevated liver enzymes low platelets)
    • RUQ pain!
  • Placental abruption

Foetal

  • IUGR
  • Prematurity
  • ARDS
  • Foetal demise
118
Q

Eclampsia Mx

A

Initial

  • Left lateral position
    • Reduce BP and reduce IVC pressure
  • Secure airway

Definitive

  • IV Magnesium Sulphate
119
Q

Why are pregnant women at increased risk of VTEs?

A

Physiological changes in pregnancy make it so that blood loss is minimised when giving birth -> shift towards pro clotting state

120
Q

PE Ix

A
  1. ECG
  2. CXR
  3. If clinical evidence of DVT compression duplex USS

Definitive

CTPA or VQ scan
(risk benefit analysis as radiation dose)

121
Q

DVT Ix

A

Compression duplex USS

122
Q

Mx of DVT and PE

A

1. Low molecular weight heparin, e.g. Enoxaparin/clexane

Until end of pregnancy + at least 6 weeks post partum
+ at least 3/12 TOTAL treatment

  1. Routine measurement of peak anti-_Xa_ acitivity whilst on CleXane

Avoid warfarin and DOACs

123
Q

Massive saddle embolus mx

A

Thrombolyse with IV Heparin

124
Q

What is rhesus isoimmunisation?

A

Rhesus isoimmunisation can occur when a rhesus negative (RBCs don’t have rhesus D antigens) mother has a baby which is rhesus positive (RBCs do have rhesus D antigens). If any foetal red blood cells enter the maternal circulation, the mother will form antibodies against them.

The maternal anti-D antibodies can cross the placenta in subsequent pregnancies and cause Rhesus Haemolytic Disease if the future baby is rhesus positive.

125
Q

What type of antibodies are formed in rhesus isoimmunisation?

A

Initially mother forms IgM anti-D antibodies.

By subsequent pregnancies, immune response matures and mother forms IgG anti-D antibodies.

126
Q

Who needs rhesus Anti D and when?

A

Rhesus -ve mothers at 28 weeks and as soon as possible after any sensitisation event. (Anti-D has no effect once sensitation has occurred - only prophylactic)

127
Q

What are sensitisation events in rhesus isoimmunisation?

A

“Sensitisation” events are events which cause foetal blood to cross the placenta into the maternal circulation and thus these are indications for anti-D prophylaxis.

Examples of sensitisation events include:

  • Abdominal trauma
  • Blood transfusion
  • Antepartum haemorrhage
  • Amniocentesis/chorionic villus sampling
  • Ectopic pregnancy (surgical)
  • Termination of pregnancy
  • Miscarriage >12weeks
  • External cephalic version
  • Placental abruption
  • Delivery (of RhD+ve infant)
128
Q

How much rhesus anti D should be given after sensitisation event?

A

First trimester: 250IU

Second trimester: 250IU within 72h + Kleihauer test

Third trimester: 500IU within 72h+ Kleihauer test

(Kleihauer test tells you whether there is foetal blood in maternal circulation)

129
Q

Complications of Rubella (perinatal infx)

A
  • Sensorineural deafness
  • Patent ductus arteriosus
  • Cataracts
130
Q

Rubella Mx

A
  • No longer screened
    • Bc of routine vax programmed
  • If confirmed -> foetal medicine unit for monitoring
  • Offer TOP if <16 weeks
131
Q

Complications of syphilis (perinatal infection)

A
  • Foetal growth restriction
  • Congenital syphilis
  • Preterm birth
  • Stillbirth
132
Q

Syphilis Mx

A

IM Benzathine Penicillin

133
Q

Complications Varicella Zoster Virus (perinatal infection)

A
  • Limb hyperplasia
  • Cutaneous scarring
  • FGR
134
Q

VZV Mx

A
  • Check varicella Ig
    • If non immune -> VZIg
      • Up to 10 days from contact
  • If presenting w rash and >20week
    • Aciclovir
    • Foetal medicine referral
135
Q

Complications of Herpes Simplex Virus (Perinatal infection)

A
  • Skin-eye-mouth disease (SEM)
  • Central nervous system disease
  • Disseminated disease
136
Q

HSV Mx

A

1st/2nd trimester -> Aciclovir from 36/40

3rd trimester -> aciclovir until delivery + CS

137
Q

Complications of HIV (perinatal infection)

A

Vertical transmission

138
Q

HIV Mx

A
  • Check viral load every 2-4 weeks & at 36 weeks
    • If viral load <50copies/mL at 36 weeks, can consider vaginal delivery
    • If >50, CS
  • ART for pt
  • ART for neonate
  • IV Zidovudine if CS
  • Avoid breastfeeding

(Managed by specialists!)

139
Q

HIV bb size

A

SGA

140
Q

Complications of Hep B Infx (Perinatal Infection)

A

Vertical transmission

141
Q

Hep B Mx

A

If mother has chronic infx, newborn to have:

  • Vaccination + Hep B IG within 12h birth
  • Vaccine at 1 month
  • Vaccine at 6 months
  • Test at 12 months
142
Q

What does bacterial vaginosis increase risk of in pregnancy?

A

Preterm delivery and late miscarriage

143
Q

Bipolar disorder in pregnancy

A
  • If unstable even on Lithium (or alt), gradually switch to atypical antipsychotic
144
Q

CI drugs during pregnancy

A

Psych

  • Sodium valproate!
  • Lithium
    • congenital abnormalities, particularly Ebstein’s anomaly, and an increased risk of miscarriage
  • methotrexate
  • warfarin
  • NSAIDs - can impair closing of foramen ovale
145
Q

CI drugs during breastfeeding

A
  • Lithium
146
Q

Contraception after giving birth

A
  • Implant whenever
  • POP whenever
  • IUD or IUS within 48h, or from 4weeks onwards
  • COCP from 6 weeks
    • Avoid if breastfeeding
147
Q

Sepsis 6

A

3 in

  • O2 to keep sats >94% (1)
  • IV abx (3)
  • Fluid challenge (4)

3 out

  • Take blood cultures (2)
  • Measure lactate (5)
  • Measure UO (6)
148
Q

Leading cause of maternal mortality UK

A

Sepsis

149
Q

When would you deliver for twins?

A

37 weeks

150
Q

What is lambda sign on USS indicative of?

A

Dichorionic twins

151
Q

Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome

A

Occurs in monochorionic twins - abnormal vessel connections within placenta resulting in imbalance of blood exchange between twins.

One twin, donor twin, gives away more blood than it receives - risk of malnourishment and organ failure. Therefore, its kidneys don’t have to filter as much fluid from the blood, and as a result, urination decreases. This affects development of the bladder and leads to low levels of amniotic fluid. (Oligohydramnios)

Other twin, receipient twin, receives too much blood and is susceptible to heart failure :( (Polyhydramnios)

152
Q

Proteinuria w/o HTN Mx

A
  • 1+ protein -> MC&S + antibx
  • 2+ protein -> Same-day 2ndry care ref
153
Q

UTI in pregnancy Mx

A

Asymptomatic:

Cefalexin

Symptomatic:

Nitrofurantoin

154
Q

Postpartum endometritis presentation

A
  • Bleeding
  • Foul smelling vaginal d/c
  • Pelvic/lower abdo pain
155
Q

Reason for increased urinary frequency in first trimester?

A

Increased GFR

156
Q

Reason for increased urinary frequency in third trimester?

A

Pressure from uterus pushing on bladder

157
Q

Premature pre-term rupture of membrane

A

Rupturing before 37 weeks

158
Q

PPROM RFs/Causes

A
  • Infection
  • Polyhydramnios
  • Multiple pregnancy
  • Smoking
  • Low BMI
  • Cervical weakness due to previous procedure, e.g., LLETZ (large loop excision of transformation zone)
159
Q

PPROM Ix

A
  • Sterile speculum examination
  • WBC
  • CRP
  • CTG
160
Q

PPROM Mx

A
  • Erythromycin
    • Give for 10 days, or until in established labour (whichever sooner)
  • IM dexamethasone
    • Between 24-33weeks (up to pre-36/40 can be considered)
  • Mag sulphate

Expectant mx until 37+0 weeks

161
Q

Mastitis Mx

A
  • Analgesia
    • NSAID/paracetamol
  • Keep breast feeding (both)

If signs infx/abscess

  • Abx
    • PO Fluclox empirically
      • Breast milk culture
  • Keep breast feeding (both)
162
Q

Lactational amenorrhoea contraception method

A
  • Up to 98% effective for first 6 months
  • Continuous exclusive breast feeding w gaps no more than 4h during day and 6h evening
163
Q

What is gravidity?

A

total number of pregnancies, regardless of outcome

164
Q

What is parity?

A

total number of pregnancies carried over the threshold of viability (24+0 in the UK)

165
Q

How to calculate EDD?

A
  1. First, determine the first day of your last menstrual period.
  2. Next, count back 3 calendar months from that date.
  3. Lastly, add 1 year and 7 days to that date.
166
Q

Legal terms for TOP in GB

A
  • Performed by registered dr
  • Agreed on by 2 dr
  • (A)To occur prior to 24weeks if on grounds of risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman or any existing children of her family, OR
  • (B)to prevent grave permanent injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman, OR
  • (C)involve risk to the life of the pregnant woman, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, OR
  • (D)substantial risk that if the child were born it would suffer from such physical or mental abnormalities as to be seriously handicapped
167
Q

Chorionic villus sampling v Amniocentesis

  1. When can each be done?
  2. What does each consist of?
  3. What are the risks?
A
  1. CVS: 11/40 and 14/40; Amniocentesis: 15/40 and 20/4
  2. CVS: removing and testing a small sample of cells from the placenta
    Amniocentesis: removing and testing a small sample of cells from amniotic fluid
  3. CVS: Miscarriage <0.5% (Infection + Rhesus sensitisation)
    Amniocentesis: Miscarriage <0.5% (Infection + Rhesus sensitisation)

*Misc risk for multiple preg is 1%

168
Q

Pregnancy smoking risks

A
  • SGA
  • Miscarriage
  • Stillbirth
  • Heart defects
169
Q

Smoking in preg Mx

A
  • CO test (for all mothers) at booking
  • Referral to smoking cessation specialists

If carry on smoking/2nd hand smoke

  • Serial growth scans
170
Q

What type of headache is common post-partum (24hr ish)?

A

Tension/migraine

(Also post-dural headache if epidural)

171
Q

Best method to predict preterm labour

A

fetal fibronectin testing

determines likelihood of birth within 48 hours if 30/40+

172
Q

Additional antenatal test for pregnant women with history of drug use

A

Hepatitis C

173
Q

What would use of NSAIDs in last trimester lead to?

A

Closure of patent ductus arteriosis (PDA)

174
Q

How soon does period return postpartum?

1) If exclusively breast feeding
2) If partial/ bottle feeding

A

1) Approx 6 months
2) As early as 3 weeks

175
Q

What could echogenic bowel (brighter than usual) on USS be indicative of?

A

Soft marker for trisomy 21

176
Q

What are the 4 categories for CS?

A

Cat 1 (Emergency) - Immediate threat to life of woman/foetus

Cat 2 (Urgent) - Maternal/foetal compromise but not immediately life threatening

Cat 3 (Scheduled) - No maternal/foetal compromise but need early delivery

Cat 4 (Elective) - At a time to suit the woman/service

177
Q

Probability of being permanently paralysed from epidural

A

less than 1 in 20,000

178
Q

What is this presentation?

A

Polymorphic eruption of prgnancy

179
Q

What drug would you give to stop breast milk production?

A

cabergoline

180
Q

Amniotic fluid embolism

A

allergic-like reaction to the amniotic fluid that enters the mother’s bloodstream

181
Q

Amniotic fluid embolism presentation

A
  • Agitated and odd behaviour
  • SOB
  • Sudden collapse
  • Bleed from cannula site
  • Hypotensive, tachy
  • Low O2 sats oddly
182
Q

What pregnancy condition is mum with CF at higher risk of?

A

GDM

183
Q

Post-dural headache presentation

A

Worse on sitting up

184
Q

Cerebral venous sinus thrombosis

A

occurs when a blood clot forms in the brain’s venous sinuses, preventing blood from draining out

185
Q

Cerebral venous thrombosis presentation

A
  • Post partum severe headache
  • Vision blurring
186
Q

Cerebral venous thrombosis Ix

A
  • CT head
    • Rule out haemorrhage/ischaemic stroke
  • MRI
    • gold standard
187
Q

Cerebral venous thrombosis Mx

A
  • IV heparin (first line), then
  • Catheter-guided local throombolysis
  • 3-6/12 anticoag following
188
Q

Insulin during delivery (for diabetics)

A

Sliding sale during labour - maintaining blood glucose between 4-7mmol.

189
Q

What drug is used for active management of third stage of labour?

A

10IU of oxytocin (syntocinon)

190
Q

Candida in pregnancy treatment

A

Topical antifungal preferably pessary - Intravaginal clotrimazole

191
Q

What are absolute CIs to induction of labour

A
  • Cephalopelvic disproportion
  • Major placenta praevia
  • Cord prolapse
  • Transverse lie
  • Active primary genital herpes
  • Previous classical Caesarean section

(Basc same for vaginal delivery)

192
Q

Relative CIs for induction of labour

A
  • Breech presentation
  • Triplet or higher order pregnancy
  • Two or more previous low transverse caesarean sections
193
Q

DVT/PE Ix

A

In A&E: ECG and CXR

If + signs of DVT -> compression Duplex USS (if positive = start tx)

If –ve sx of DVT ->OR V/Q

Year 5 (Alex) (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions