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MRCP > Basic Science > Flashcards

Basic Science Flashcards

1
Q

Most comon cause of AKI

A

Acute Tubular Necrosis

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2
Q

Causes of Acute Tubular Necrosis

A

Aminoglycosides (gent etc)
Rhabdo
Radiocontrast
Sepsis

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3
Q

Autosomal Dominant conditions

A

Achondroplasia
Porphyria
Polycystic disease
Ehlors Danlos
Hereditary Telangiectasia/spherocytosis
Huntington’s
Marfans
Noonan
Neurofibromatosis
Peutz-jeghers
tuberous sclerosis
von willibrand
von hippel lindau

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4
Q

Autosomal Recessive conditions

A

Albinism
Ataxic Talengiectasia
cystic fibrosis
cystinuria
fanconi anemia
freidrich atacxia
gilberts
homocystinuria
haemochromotosis
sickle cell
thalassemia
wilsons

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5
Q

selection bias

A

Error in assigning individuals to groups leading to differences which may influence the outcome

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6
Q

Recall bias

A

Difference in the accuracy of the recollections retrieved by study participants

CASE CONTROL

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7
Q

Publication bias

A

failure to publish

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8
Q

Work-up bias (verification bias)

A

Sometimes clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive, as the gold standard test may be invasive (e.g. tissue biopsy).

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9
Q

Expectation bias (Pygmalion effect)

A

Only a problem in non-blinded trials. Observers may subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favours the expected study outcome.

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10
Q

Hawthorne effect

A

Describes a group changing it’s behaviour due to the knowledge that it is being studied

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11
Q

Lead-time bias

A

Occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, the new test diagnoses the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease

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12
Q

Drugs that can be given in breastfeeding

A

The following drugs can be given to mothers who are breastfeeding:
antibiotics: penicillins, cephalosporins, trimethoprim
endocrine: glucocorticoids (avoid high doses), levothyroxine*
epilepsy: sodium valproate, carbamazepine
asthma: salbutamol, theophyllines
psychiatric drugs: tricyclic antidepressants, antipsychotics**
hypertension: beta-blockers, hydralazine
anticoagulants: warfarin, heparin
digoxin

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13
Q

Drugs that can’t be given in breastfeeding

A

The following drugs should be avoided:
antibiotics: ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, chloramphenicol, sulphonamides
psychiatric drugs: lithium, benzodiazepines
aspirin
carbimazole
methotrexate
sulfonylureas
cytotoxic drugs
amiodarone

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14
Q

Rapid depolarisation of cardiac tissue casued by

A

rapid sodium influx

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15
Q

early replarisation of cardiac tissue caused by

A

efflux of potassium

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16
Q

plateua phase of cardiac tissue depolarisation caused by

A

slow influx of calcium

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17
Q

resting potential of cardiac depolarisation is caused by

A

NA/k ATPase

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18
Q

Cell cycle: G0

A

‘resting’ phase

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19
Q

Cell cycle: G1

A

Gap 1, cells increase in size
determines length of cell cycle
under influence of p53

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20
Q

Cell cycle: S

A

Synthesis of DNA, RNA and histone
centrosome duplication

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21
Q

Cell cycle: G2

A

Gap 2, cells continue to increase in siz

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22
Q

Cell cycle: M

A

Mitosis - cell division
the shortest phase of the cell cycle

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23
Q

Palsy results in
ptosis
‘down and out’ eye
dilated, fixed pupil

A

CN3

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24
Q

Palsy results in defective downward gaze → vertical diplopia

A

CN4

25
Q

Lesions may cause:
trigeminal neuralgia
loss of corneal reflex (afferent)
loss of facial sensation
paralysis of mastication muscles
deviation of jaw to weak side

A

CN5

26
Q

Palsy results in defective abduction → horizontal diplopia

A

CN6

27
Q

Lesions may result in:
flaccid paralysis of upper + lower face
loss of corneal reflex (efferent)
loss of taste
hyperacusis

A

CN7

28
Q

Lesions may result in;
hypersensitive carotid sinus reflex
loss of gag reflex (afferent)

A

CN9

29
Q

Lesions may result in;
uvula deviates away from site of lesion
loss of gag reflex (efferent)

A

cnX

30
Q

Lesions may result in;
weakness turning head to contralateral side

A

cn xI

31
Q

Type I - Anaphylactic

A

IgE
mAST CELLS

Anaphylaxis
Atopy

32
Q

Type II - Cell bound

A

IgG or IgM
ITP
Goodpastures
hemolytic transfusion reaction

33
Q

Type III - Immune complex

A

Free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine

  • Serum sickness
  • Systemic lupus erythematosus
  • Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
  • Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (especially acute phase)
34
Q

Type IV - Delayed hypersensitivity

A

T-cell mediated

Tuberculosis / tuberculin skin reaction
* Graft versus host disease
* Allergic contact dermatitis
* Scabies
* Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (especially chronic phase)
* Multiple sclerosis
* Guillain-Barre syndrome

35
Q

Features
precocious puberty
cafe-au-lait spots
polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
short stature

A

McCune-Albright syndrome

36
Q

Metabolic alkalosis: causes?

A

Causes
vomiting / aspiration
(e.g. peptic ulcer leading to pyloric stenos, nasogastric suction)
vomiting may also lead to hypokalaemia
diuretics
liquorice, carbenoxolone
hypokalaemia
primary hyperaldosteronism
Cushing’s syndrome
Bartter’s syndrome

Mechanism of metabolic alkalosis
activation of renin-angiotensin II-aldosterone (RAA) system is a key factor
aldosterone causes reabsorption of Na+ in exchange for H+ in the distal convoluted tubule

37
Q

Numbers needed to treat (NNT)

A

It is calculated by 1/(Absolute risk reduction)

38
Q

Oncogenes: cMYC

A

Burkitts

39
Q

Oncogenes: ABL

A

CML

40
Q

Oncogenes: n-MYC

A

neuroblastoma

41
Q

oncogenes: BCL-2

A

Follicular

42
Q

oncogenes: RET

A

MEN

43
Q

Oncogene: RAS

A

Pancreatic

44
Q

Oncogenes erb/HER2

A

Breast and ovarian

45
Q

High PTH
High Calcium
Low phosphate

A

Primary hyerparathyroidism

46
Q

PTH high
Ca low/normal
Phosphate elevated

A

Secondary hyperparathyroid

47
Q

Ca Normal
PTH high
Phosphte low/normal
VIt D normal /low

A

tertiary hyperparathyroidsism

48
Q

Type 1 pneumocytes

A

Very thin squamous cells which cover around 97% of the alveolar surface

49
Q

Type 2 pneumocytes

A

Cuboidal cells

Secrete surfactant

50
Q

Relative risk

A

Relative risk (RR) is the ratio of risk in the experimental group (experimental event rate, EER) to risk in the control group (control event rate, CER).

51
Q

Sensitivity

A

TP / (TP + FN ) Proportion of patients with the condition who have a positive test result

52
Q

Specificity

A

TN / (TN + FP) Proportion of patients without the condition who have a negative test result

53
Q

Positive predictive value

A

TP / (TP + FP) The chance that the patient has the condition if the diagnostic test is positive

54
Q

Negative predictive value

A

TN / (TN + FN) The chance that the patient does not have the condition if the diagnostic test is negative

55
Q

compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data

A

Mann-Whitney U test

56
Q

compares two sets of observations on a single sample, e.g. a ‘before’ and ‘after’ test on the same population following an intervention

A

Wilcoxon signed-rank test

57
Q

used to compare proportions or percentages e.g. compares the percentage of patients who improved following two different interventions

A

chi-squared test

58
Q

Cohort study

A

Observational and prospective. Two (or more) are selected according to their exposure to a particular agent (e.g. medicine, toxin) and followed up to see how many develop a disease or other outcome.

The usual outcome measure is the relative risk.

59
Q

Case-control study

A

Observational and retrospective. Patients with a particular condition (cases) are identified and matched with controls. Data is then collected on past exposure to a possible causal agent for the condition.

The usual outcome measure is the odds ratio.

MRCP (7 decks)

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