Block 3: Quizzes Flashcards

1
Q

Lyme disease is caused by:

a. Treponema pallidum.
b. Borrelia recurrentis.
c. Leptospira autumnalis.
d. Borrelia burgdorferi.

A

d. Borrelia burgdorferi.

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2
Q

The Southern blot test is the specific confirmatory test for HIV infection.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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3
Q

A patient presents with a painless genital ulcer. The patient is then diagnosed as having syphilis. In what stage of syphilis is the patient?

a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Latent
d. Tertiary

A

a. Primary

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4
Q

In general, antigen detection assays in bacterial diagnosis have which of the following characteristics?

a. High associated cost
b. Rapid turnaround time
c. Complicated methods
d. Low specificity

A

b. Rapid turnaround time

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5
Q

The advantage of molecular assays in bacterial diagnosis is:

a. many methods approved by the Food and Drug Administration are available.
b. the instrumentation is not expensive.
c. the reagents and disposables are not expensive.
d. the methods are very sensitive.

A

d. the methods are very sensitive.

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6
Q

What is the main reason testing for cold agglutinins is no longer recommended to diagnose infection with Mycoplasma pneumonia?

a. It is difficult to perform.
b. False positives may be caused by certain viruses.
c. Very few people develop anti-I antibodies.
d. It requires expensive instrumentation.

A

b. False positives may be caused by certain viruses.

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7
Q

A laboratory test that is used to confirm syphilis and detects specific treponemal antibodies is:

a. VDRL.
b. TP-PA.
c. RPR.
d. monospot.

A

b. TP-PA.

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8
Q

RPR stands for:

a. reagin plasma reactive.
b. reactive phosphate reagent.
c. rapid plasma reagin.
d. random positive reagin.

A

c. rapid plasma reagin.

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9
Q

A physician wants to know if his patient, who currently has a rash and fever, has an active rubeola virus infection. IgG against rubeola virus is detected. IgM against rubeola virus is not detected. What do these results mean?

a. The patient has a current measles infection.
b. The patient has a current chickenpox infection.
c. The patient has never had either measles or chickenpox.
d. The patient has had a previous exposure to measles, either through natural infection or vaccination.

A

d. The patient has had a previous exposure to measles, either through natural infection or vaccination.

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10
Q

The pathogenesis of poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis involves:

a. deposition of immune complexes in the kidneys.
b. destruction of glomeruli by streptolysin O.
c. bacterial-induced dehydration.
d. invasion of the kidneys by Streptococcus pyogenes.

A

a. deposition of immune complexes in the kidneys.

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11
Q

The causative agent of infectious mononucleosis is:

a. Streptococcus pyogenes.
b. Staphylococcus aureus.
c. Epstein-Barr virus.
d. HIV.

A

c. Epstein-Barr virus.

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12
Q

A patient has a hepatitis B profile performed and is positive for hepatitis B surface antibody only. This patient:

a. was vaccinated against hepatitis B.
b. had a previous hepatitis B infection.
c. is a chronic carrier of hepatitis B.
d. has acute hepatitis B.

A

a. was vaccinated against hepatitis B.

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13
Q

Complement helps in the defense against bacterial invasion by:

a. promoting phagocytosis.
b. neutralizing bacterial toxins.
c. preventing bacteria from penetrating the skin.
d. fusing lysosomal granules to bacterial cell walls.

A

a. promoting phagocytosis.

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14
Q

A patient has detectable levels of IgG and IgM against the viral capsid antigens of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). This patient has:

a. been infected with EBV in the past.
b. an infection with HIV, too.
c. a current infection with EBV.
d. never had EBV.

A

c. a current infection with EBV.

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15
Q

Which of the following peripheral blood measurements is used to determine the stage of HIV infection?

a. The number of CD4 T cells
b. The number of CD8 T cells
c. The number of HIV RNA copies
d. The HIV antibody titer

A

a. The number of CD4 T cells

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16
Q

The fluorescent antinuclear antibody test for lupus is an example of which of the following?

a. Competitive immunoassay
b. Immunofixation
c. Indirect fluorescence testing
d. Direct fluorescence testing

A

c. Indirect fluorescence testing

17
Q

Which of the following is considered a systemic autoimmune disease?

a. Multiple sclerosis
b. Graves disease
c. Myasthenia gravis
d. Systemic lupus erythematosus

A

d. Systemic lupus erythematosus

18
Q

A 10-year-old girl visits her physician’s office because she has been complaining about being thirsty and having to go to the bathroom all the time. She has lost 15 pounds over the past 6 months and has been more irritable than usual, especially after meals. The girl’s fasting blood glucose is 575 mg/dL (reference range, < 100 mg/dL), her C-peptide is 0.5 ng/mL (reference range, 0.8–3.1 ng/mL), and she has autoantibodies against glutamic acid decarboxylase and insulin. On the basis of these findings, a likely diagnosis for this girl is:

a. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.
b. acute glomerulonephritis.
c. type 1 diabetes.
d. progressive systemic sclerosis.

A

c. type 1 diabetes.

19
Q

Reaction to poison ivy is which type of hypersensitivity?

a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV

A

d. IV

20
Q

Type I hypersensitivity involves:

a. IgE binding to mast cells and basophils.
b. phagocytic cell degranulation and proteolytic enzyme activity.
c. a kidney membrane antigen and specific antibody.
d. natural killer cell activation.

A

a. IgE binding to mast cells and basophils.

21
Q

Complement is responsible for tissue damage in which of the following reactions?

a. Immediate hypersensitivity
b. Type III hypersensitivity
c. Delayed hypersensitivity
d. Anaphylaxis

A

b. Type III hypersensitivity

22
Q

A 56-year-old woman presents to her physician complaining of weight gain and joint problems. She is increasingly having difficulty walking up stairs and manipulating her fingers. Fingers in both hands as well as knees on both legs are equally painful and stiff. The symptoms have been getting progressively worse over the past 6 months. Rheumatoid factor is elevated, and antinuclear antibodies are not detected. Complement levels in her joints are decreased. This woman most likely has:

a. systemic lupus erythematosus.
b. Wegener’s granulomatosis.
c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.
d. rheumatoid arthritis.

A

d. rheumatoid arthritis.

23
Q

A direct antiglobulin test is ordered on a patient sample. This test detects:

a. in vivo attachment of antibodies to red blood cells.
b. allergic reaction.
c. passive agglutination.
d. naturally occurring antibodies.

A

a. in vivo attachment of antibodies to red blood cells.

24
Q

Homogeneous staining of the nucleus in an antinuclear antibody test indicates:

a. anti-RNA antibody.
b. antibody to DNA-histone complexes.
c. anticentromere antibody.
d. antibody to extractable nuclear antigens.

A

b. antibody to DNA-histone complexes.

25
Q

An exaggerated reaction directed against an antigen that is harmless is called:

a. atopy.
b. hypersensitivity.
c. immune complex disease.
d. passive cutaneous anaphylaxis.

A

b. hypersensitivity.

26
Q

Systemic lupus erythematosus can be distinguished from rheumatoid arthritis on the basis of which of the following?

a. Joint pain
b. Presence of inflammation
c. Deposition of immune complexes in the kidneys
d. Antibody to acetylcholine receptors

A

c. Deposition of immune complexes in the kidneys

27
Q

In the rheumatoid factor test, what is being detected?

a. antinuclear antibody
b. antithyroglobulin antibody
c. IgM directed against IgG
d. dsDNA

A

c. IgM directed against IgG

28
Q

A speckled nuclear pattern in an antinuclear antibody test indicates:

a. anti-RNA antibody.
b. antibody to DNA-histone complex.
c. anticentromere antibody.
d. antibody to an extractable nuclear antigen.

A

d. antibody to an extractable nuclear antigen.

29
Q

Which of the following occurs in hemolytic disease of the newborn?

a. IgE builds up on the mother’s cells.
b. The Rh– mother is exposed to Rh+ baby cells.
c. The Rh+ mother is exposed to Rh– baby cells.
d. The baby must be Rh–.

A

b. The Rh– mother is exposed to Rh+ baby cells.

30
Q

Systemic lupus erythematosus is characterized by:

a. HLA-DR antigens expressed on thyroid epithelial cells.
b. increase in cells lining the synovial membrane.
c. absence of immune complexes.
d. presence of dsDNA antibodies.

A

d. presence of dsDNA antibodies.