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Phase 2A revision > public health COPY > Flashcards

public health COPY Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 7 main duties of a doctor?

A
  1. Make the care of your patient your first concern
  2. Keep your professional knowledge and skills up to date
  3. Treat your patient politely and considerately
  4. Respect your patient’s right to confidentiality
  5. Protect and promote the health of patients and the
    public.
  6. Treat patients as individuals and respect their dignity.
  7. Recognise and work within the limits of your
    competence.
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2
Q

what are the psychosocial factors that increase CHD risk?

A
  1. Type A personality (hostile, competitive, impatient)
  2. Depression/anxiety
  3. Psychosocial work characteristics
    - Long work hours (more than 11hrs/day)
    - High demand, low control
  4. Lack of social support
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3
Q

what can doctors do for those with CHD risk?

A 
Identify depression/anxiety
Ask about occupation
Liaise with social support services
Vascular screening
Risk reduction through promoting healthier lifestyles
QRISK2 score
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4
Q

what is the Bradford Hill criteria?

A

A group of minimal conditions necessary to provide adequate evidence of a causal relationship

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5
Q

Give 6 of the Bradford Hill criteria that provide evidence for causation

A 
Strength of association 
Consistency in association
Exposure- response relationship
Specificity
Temporal relationship
Coherence of evidence 
Biologically plausible
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6
Q

what are the benefits of alcohol consumption?

A
  1. Mildly euphoriant for many
  2. Socialization
  3. Cardioprotective in low doses
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7
Q

what are the psychosocial effects of excessive alcohol consumption?

A 
1. Interpersonal relationship problems (violence, rape,
depression or anxiety)
2. Criminality/violence
3. Problems at work/unemployment
4. Social disintegration (poverty)
5. Driving offences
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8
Q

what are the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?

A
  1. Tremulouness: ‘the shakes’
  2. Activation syndrome: tremulouness, agitation, rapid
    heart beat, high bp
  3. Seizures
  4. Hallucinations
  5. Delirium tremens
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9
Q

What is the maximum units of alcohol that men and women can consume within a week?

A

14 units

Spread over >3 days

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10
Q

Write an equation that can be used to work out the number of units in a drink

A

Strength of the drink (%abv) X amount of drink (ml) / 1000

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11
Q

How would you define binge drinking?

A

Drinking >6 units of alcohol in one go

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12
Q

Give 4 signs of foetal alcohol syndrome

A
  1. Pre and post natal growth retardation
  2. Mental retardation
  3. Craniofacial abnormalities
  4. congenital defects (e.g. eyes, ear, mouth)
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13
Q

How long does alcohol withdrawal last?

A

Occurs 6-24 hours after last drink and can last up to a week

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14
Q

What is delirium tremens?

A

Most sever form of alcohol withdrawal
Occurs 24-72 hours after stopping
Hyper-adrenergic state, disorientation, tremors, diaphoresis, impaired attention, hallucinations

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15
Q

Name 3 public health campaigns associate with reducing alcohol intake

A
  1. ‘Know your limits’ - binge drinking
  2. Drinkaware - alcohol labelling
  3. THINK! - drink drive campaign
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16
Q

what are the secondary preventions of alcoholism?

A

Ask about it routinely using screening questions/tools

Detect problem drinking (including laboratory tests)

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17
Q

what can doctors do for alcoholics?

A

-Screening: CAGE and Alcohol Use Disorders
Identification Test (AUDIT)
-Brief interventions: FRAMES - motivational interviews
-Referral to specialist
-Help set goals, agree on plan, provide educational
materials

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18
Q

What are the 4 questions that make up CAGE?

A
  1. Have you ever felt that you should cut down?
  2. Have you ever felt annoyed by people telling you to cut down?
  3. Do you feel guilty about how much you drink?
  4. Eye opener - ever had a drink first thing in the morning?
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19
Q

What questions might you ask to determine whether someone has alcohol dependence?

A

3 or more in the last 12 months

  1. Withdrawal symptoms
  2. Tolerance
  3. Keep drinking despite problems
  4. Cannot keep within drinking limits
  5. Spend a lot of time drinking/recovering from drinking
  6. Spend less time on other impt matters
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20
Q

what are the signs of alcohol abuse?

A
  1. Role failure
  2. Relationship problems
  3. Run-ins with law
  4. Risk of bodily harm
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21
Q

how could the FRAMES motivational interviewing be used with alcoholism?

A
  1. Feedback - risk of personal harm or impairment
  2. Stress personal Responsibility for making change
  3. Advice - cut down/ stop drinking
  4. Provide a Menu of alternative strategies for changing
    drinking patterns
  5. Empathetic interviewing style
  6. Self-efficacy: leaves patient enhanced in feeling able to
    cope with goals they have agreed
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22
Q

Define at risk drinking

A

A pattern of drinking which brings about the risk of harm

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23
Q

Define alcohol abuse

A

A pattern of drinking which is likely to cause harm

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24
Q

Define alcohol dependence

A

A set of behavioural, cognitive and physiological responses the can develop after repeated substance abuse

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25
Q

what are the treatments for alcoholism?

A
  1. Naltrexone: competitive antagonist for opioid receptors,
    rapid detox
  2. Disulfiram: produces sensitivity to alcohol - worst
    hangover
  3. Acamprosate: stabilises chemical balance
  4. Behavioural therapy
  5. Social support - Alcoholics Anonymous
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26
Q

why do people smoke?

A 
Fear of weight gain on cessation
Coping with stress
Socialising
Nicotine addiction
Habit/behavioural
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27
Q

what are the stages of stopping smoking?

A
  1. Ready: mentally prep yourself, understand process
  2. Steady: throw away ashtray, lighter, set quit date
  3. Stop: reward yourself for not smoking, avoid triggers
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28
Q

what can doctors do for smokers?

A 
Nicotine replacement therapy: patches, gum, nasal spray
Ask (are you a smoker), 
advise (smoking is bad), 
assist
(refer to NHS Stop Smoking service)
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29
Q

what are the stages of change model for smoking?

A
  1. Precontemplation: smoker, not thinking about quitting
  2. Contemplation: smoker, thinking about quitting but not
    ready yet
  3. Preparation: smoker, thinking about quitting and taking
    steps to prepare for quitting
  4. Action: ex-smoker, quit for <6months
  5. Maintenance: non-smoker, quit for > 6 months
  6. Relapse: quit smoking then had a lapse (1cig) that led to
    smoking being resumed
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30
Q

what are the different types of stress?

A

Eustress (good) vs. distress (bad)
Behavioural – increased alcohol, poor sleep, absenteeism
(not going to lectures)
Cognitive – poor concentration, negative thoughts
Physiological – headaches
Emotional – mood swings, feeling tearful, irritable
Biochemical – endorphin levels altered

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31
Q

give 4 examples of NHS screening programmes

A

Breast screening - 50-70 every 3 years, mammo

Bowel cancer screening - 60-74 every 2 years, faecal
occult blood

Cervical screening - 25’s< 3 years, 50-64 every 5 years,
cervical smear liquid based cytology

AAA - 65

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32
Q

What are the Wilson and juggler screening criteria?

A
  1. important problem
  2. acceptable treatment
  3. recognised early stage
  4. diagnosis/treatment are available
  5. suitable test
  6. acceptable to the population
  7. natural history known
  8. Case finding should be a continuous process
  9. Early treatment should make a difference to prognosis
  10. low cost
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33
Q

what is sensitivity?

A

measure of how well a test picks up those with the disease

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34
Q

what is specificity?

A

measure of how well a test recognises those without the disease

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35
Q

what is prevalence?

A

measure of how common a disease or condition is in a defined population at a particular point in
time

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36
Q

what questions are used for occupational screening?

A
  1. What type of work do you do?
  2. Do you think your health problems might be related to
    your work?
  3. Are your symptoms different at work and at home?
  4. Exposed to chemicals, dusts, mentals, radiation, noise or
    repetitive work? In the past?
  5. Are any of your co-workers experiencing similar
    symptoms?
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37
Q

What are Marmot’s 10 key components of ‘good work’?

A
  1. Precariousness – stable, risk of loss, safe
  2. Individual control – part of decision making
  3. Work demands – quality and quantity
  4. Fair employment – earnings and security from employer
  5. Opportunities – training, promotion, health, growth
  6. Prevents social isolation, discrimination & violence
  7. Share information – participate in decision-making
  8. Work/life balance
  9. Reintegrates sick or disabled whenever possible
  10. Promotes health and wellbeing – psychological needs
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38
Q

What is the primary prevention population approaches to occupational health?

A

Monitor risk
Control hazards
Promotion

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39
Q

What is the secondary prevention population approaches to occupational health?

A

Screening
Early detection
Tast modification

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40
Q

What is the tertiary prevention population approaches to occupational health?

A

Rehabilitation

Support

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41
Q

What is a GPs role in occupational health?

A
  • Sickness certificate

- Will the patient benefit from a phased return or altered hours

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42
Q

Name 3 occupational diseases

A
  1. Asbestosis
  2. Silicosis
  3. Coalminers pneumoconiosis
  4. Mesothelioma
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43
Q

What are the most common work related ill health disorders?

A
  1. Occupational stress
  2. work related MSK disorders
  3. Occupational lung disease
  4. Occupational cancer
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44
Q

Define substance use

A

Ingestion of a substance affecting the CNS which leads to behavioural and psychological changes

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45
Q

How do new psychoactive substances act?

A

Mimic the effects of other substances but less predictably

E.g. Synthetic cannabinoids, stimulant-type drugs

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46
Q

What is the prevention theory?

A

Prevent substance abuse by reducing risk factors and increasing protective factors throughout life

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47
Q

Give 3 ways to prevent substance misuse

A
  1. Good family attachment
  2. Academic achievement
  3. Opportunities to develop self confidence, self worth and resilience
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48
Q

Give 4 risk factors for substance misuse

A
  1. Family history of substance misuse
  2. Family management problems e.g. poor parenting
  3. Family conflict e.g. domestic abuse
  4. Low academic attainment at school
  5. Availability of drugs in the community
  6. Peer pressure
  7. Experience of trauma e.g. abuse, loss, poor parenting
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49
Q

what is addiction?

A

Physical + Psychological dependence

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50
Q

what is the diagnostic criteria for substanc emisuse?

A

Acute intoxication, harmful use, dependence

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51
Q

what are the different tiers for UK drug treatment?

A

Tier 1: non-specialist, generic
-substitution treatment: wean patient off drug
Tier 2: open-access services
Tier 3: specialist community-based drug services
Tier 4: specialist inpatient services
-detoxification -> Naltrexone (opioid antagonist)
-residential rehabilitation

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52
Q

what is malnutrition?

A

State of nutrition in which deficiency or excess of energy, protein and other nutrients causes measurable adverse effects on tissue/body function and clinical outcome

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53
Q

what are the consequences of malnutrition?

A
  1. Loss of muscle tissue & strength
    -respiratory muscles (chest infection)
    -cardiac function (heart failure)
    -mobility
  2. Reduced immune response/increased infections
  3. Poor wound healing
  4. Loss of mucosal integrity (malabsorption/bacterial
    translocation)
  5. Psychological decline – depression, apathy
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54
Q

what are the 7 steps to end malnutrition in hospitals?

A
  1. Hospital staff must listen to older people, their relatives and carers and act on what they say
  2. All ward staff must become ‘food aware’
  3. Hospital staff must follow their own professional code + guidance from other bodies
  4. Older people must be assessed for signs or danger of malnourishment on admission + at regular intervals during their stay
  5. Introduce ‘protected mealtimes’
  6. Implement a ‘red tray’ system + ensure that it works in practice
  7. Use volunteers where appropriate
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55
Q

what methods can be used to improve or maintain nutritional intake?

A
  1. Oral nutrition support – food, fortified, sip feeds
  2. Enteral tube feeding – delivery of a nutritionally
    complete feed directly into the gut via a tube
  3. Parenteral nutrition – delivery of complete nutrition IV
56
Q

what is the purpose of nutritional screening?

A

To identify malnourished patients by medical & nursing staff.

57
Q

what is the purpose of nutritional assessments?

A

To fully assess, monitor & support malnourished patients by dieticians + nutrition nurses

58
Q

what is the equation for BMI?

A

BMI = Weight (kg) / Height2 (m)

59
Q

what is the normal BMI?

A

18.5-24.9

60
Q

what BMI is classed as overweight?

A

25-29.9

61
Q

what BMI is classed as obese?

A 
30-34.9 = obese class I
35-39.9 = obese class II
40-49.9 = morbidly obese class III
>50 = super obese class IV
62
Q

what is the malnutrition universal assessment tool?

A 
1. Body Mass Index (BMI)
>20 = 0 / 18.5 – 20 = 1 / <18.5 = 2
2. Unexplained Weight Loss in past 3-6months
<5% = 0 / 5-10% = 1 / >10% = 2
3. Assess acute disease & score
If patient is acutely ill + there has been or is likely to be no
nutritional intake for >5days = 2
4. Add scores together
63
Q

what do the malnutrition universal assessment tool scores mean?

A 
0 = Low risk = routine clinical care (repeat screening)
1 = Medium risk = observe (document diet intake)
>2 = High risk = treat (refer to dietician)
64
Q

what questions should you ask patients about malnutrition?

A
  1. Have you unintentionally lost weight recently?
  2. Have you been eating less than normal?
  3. What is your normal weight?
  4. How tall are you?
    All patients should be weighed and have their height measured
65
Q

What is anorexia nervosa?

A

A restriction of energy intake relative to requirement leading to low body weight
Person has an intense fear of gaining weight

66
Q

What BMI indicates that someone might be suffering from anorexia nervosa?

A

BMI < 17.5

67
Q

Name 2 sub types of anorexia nervosa

A
  1. Restricting

2. Binge-eating and purging

68
Q

Give the 2 characteristic features of bulimia nervosa

A
  1. Recurrent episodes of eating large amount in discrete periods of time
  2. Inappropriate compensatory behaviour to prevent weight gain - purging
69
Q

What is binge eating?

A
  1. Rapid eating
  2. Eating until uncomfortably full
  3. Eating large amounts of food when not hungry
  4. Eating alone due to embarrassment
  5. Feeling depressed or guilty afterwards
70
Q

What is important to look out for when assessing someone who you suspect has an eating disorder?

A 
Severe resection of food/fluid 
Electrolyte imbalance - particularly K+ 
Bone deterioration 
Physical damage (blood in vomit) 
Alcohol/drug intake
71
Q

What are the urgent signs when assessing someone who may have an eating disorder?

A 
Muscular weakness
Breathing problems 
Cardiac signs 
Rapid weight loss
Risk behaviours
72
Q

What do the NICE guidelines say is the first line treatment for anorexia nervosa?

A

Family therapy for adolescent cases

CBT

73
Q

What do the NICE guidelines say is the first line treatment for bulimia nervosa and binge eating?

A

CBT

74
Q

what are eating disorders?

A
  • set of beliefs about importance of weight & size as index of personal worth
  • lead to stereotyped behaviours to manipulate food intake & energy expenditure
  • disrupt normal physiology; predictable & profound effects on health & functioning
  • problems maintaining positive self-image, perfectionism, seeking control & ‘ideal’ body, difficulties to early attachment, once established, powerfully addictive
75
Q

what are the psychological principles of eating disorders?

A
  1. Judge self-worth exclusively in terms of shape, weight and their control
  2. Control of eating and shape is socially re-inforced and apparently more controllable than other aspects of life
  3. Individual vulnerability plus challenges of
    adolescence can start the disorder
  4. Thinness= competence, attractiveness, control,
    independence
76
Q

what is the treatment approach for anorexia nervosa?

A
  1. Stabilisation of eating, self-monitoring, weekly
    weighting (not self weighting)
  2. Initial focus on enhancing motivation
  3. Behaviour change: weight re-gain is essential
  4. Cognitive restructuring: testing dysfunctional attitudes on weight pain, loss of control, etc
  5. Relapse prevention
77
Q

what is the treatment approach for bulimia nervosa?

A
  1. Education
  2. Stabilise eating patterns
  3. Strategies to manage urges to binge or purge
  4. Systematic introduction of avoided foods
  5. Problem-solving
  6. Reduction of body checking
  7. Modification of beliefs
78
Q

what is the difficulty in treating eating disorders, particularly anorexia?

A
  • People with anorexia are less likely to want treatment and are unlikely to persevere with efforts to change
  • Higher mortality rate
79
Q

What is the WHO definition of health?

A

State of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmary

80
Q

what is the definition of ethics?

A

system of moral principles and branch of philosophy which defines what is good for individuals and
society

81
Q

What are the 4 principles of medical ethics?

A
  1. Autonomy - respect the patient’s choices
  2. Beneficence - do good
  3. Non-maleficence - do no harm
  4. Justice
82
Q

What is deontology?

A

Features of the act determines worthiness
Teaches that acts are right to wrong, people have a duty to act accordingly
Do unto others as you would be done by

83
Q

What are the challenges of deontology?

A
  1. Consequences aren’t taken into account

2. Duties can conflict

84
Q

What are virtue ethics?

A

Focus on character of the person acting
Combines reason and emotion
An act is only virtuous if the person has the right mind set
Virtues are acquired

85
Q

What are the 5 focal virtues?

A
  1. Discernment - the ability to judge well
  2. Conscientiousness - Being thorough, carful and vigilant
  3. Trustworthiness - be relied on and trusted
  4. Integrity - honest and having good moral principles
  5. Compassion - Showing concern for others
86
Q

What are the challenges of virtue ethics?

A
  1. Culture specific and too broad for practical application

2. No clear guidance for moral dilemmas

87
Q

What are utilitarian ethics?

A

An act is evaluated solely in terms of its consequences

Maximise good, minimise harm

88
Q

What are the challenges of utilitarian ethics?

A

Treats minorities unfairly to promote the happiness of a majority

89
Q

what is consequentialism?

A

concerned with the outcomes or consequences of behaviour; form the basis for any valid moral judgement

90
Q

what is the definition of morality?

A

concern about the distinction between good and evil or right and wrong

91
Q

what is autonomy?

A

self rule or self governance; obligation to respect the decision making capacities of autonomous person, subsumes informed consent before treatment,
confidentiality, honesty (lack of deceit) and good
communication

92
Q

what is beneficence?

A

doing the right thing for patients; provide benefit to others, better off than before, also incorporates empowerment; helping the patient to make appropriate
decisions for themselves

93
Q

what is non-maleficence?

A

do no harm intentionally or

inadvertently where ever possible; means evidence based practice and keeping up to date

94
Q

what is justice?

A

moral obligation to act on the basis of fair adjudication between competing claims; utility, need vs benefit

95
Q

what is distributive justice?

A

fair distribution of scarce resources

96
Q

what is right-based justice?

A

respect for people’s rights

97
Q

what is legal justice?

A

respect for the law

98
Q

what is an autonomous action?

A
  1. Intentional
  2. Done with understanding
  3. Done without controlling influences that determine an individual’s actions.
99
Q

what is the doctrine of dual effect?

A
  1. nature of the act is itself good
  2. agent intends the good effect and not the bad either as a means to the good or as an end itself
  3. good effect outweighs the bad to justify causing the bad effect and the agent exercises due diligence to minimize the harm
100
Q

when does medical ethics conflict with law?

A
  1. Euthanasia Homicide
  2. Gross Negligence Manslaughter
  3. Suicide (pact, assisted)
  4. Abortion (follow Act 1978 to the letter)
  5. Assault
  6. Theft
101
Q

what is the principle of necessity?

A

If a patient is unable to give consent, you can only give the treatment necessary to preserve life and limb in an emergency

102
Q

what are the 8 millennium development goals?

A

Goal 1: Eradicate Extreme Poverty & Hunger
Goal 2: Achieve Universal Primary Education
Goal 3: Promote Gender Equality & Empower Women
Goal 4: Reduce Child Mortality
Goal 5: Improve Maternal Health
Goal 6: Combat HIV/AIDS, Malaria and Other Diseases
Goal 7: Ensure Environmental Sustainability
Goal 8: Develop a Global Partnership for Development

103
Q

what were the findings of the Black report into health inequalities?

A
  1. Material: environmental causes, possibly mediated by behaviour
  2. Artefact: apparent product of how it is measured
  3. Cultural/behavioural: poorer people behave in unhealthy ways
  4. Selection: sick people sink socially and economically
104
Q

what were the recommendations of the black report to reduce inequality?

A
  1. Improve daily living conditions
  2. Tackle the inequitable distribution of power, money and resources: strong public sector needed
  3. Measure and understand the problem and assess the results of action: need to high quality surveillance systems
105
Q

what are the different functional assessments for older people?

A
  1. Activities of Daily Living scale
    - 6 capabilities graded on level of dependence
  2. Instrumental Activities of Daily Living scale
    - 7 capabilities graded on level of independence
  3. The Barthel ADL index
    - Based on 10 items that measure a person’s daily functioning
  4. Mini Mental State Examination
    - measures orientation, registration, short-term memory and language functioning
106
Q

what is the disability paradox?

A

People with profound disability report a high QOL:
1. expectations adjust to current condition – there is a

response shift, challenged health status leads to re-
evaluation of what is important to life quality, lowered

expectations translates to higher satisfaction

107
Q

what is the R number in epidemics?

A

reproduction number
R, defined as the average number of secondary cases
generated by a primary case -> identify the intensity of
interventions required to control an epidemic

108
Q

what public health interventions can prevent the spread to influenza?

A
  1. Hand washing
  2. Respiratory hygiene: ‘Catch it, Bin it, Kill it’
  3. Reduce social contact: not attending large gatherings
109
Q

what wide interventions can help prevent the spread of influenza (and COVID)?

A
  1. Travel restrictions
  2. Restrictions of mass public gatherings
  3. Schools closure
  4. Voluntary home isolation of cases
  5. Voluntary quarantine of contacts of known cases
  6. Screening of people entering UK ports
110
Q

what are the phases of managing infectious threats?

A
  1. Identification of new threat
  2. Containment Phase –few cases
    -handwashing, isolation of cases, antivirals for reducing
    spread, controlling ports, stopping groups etc
  3. Management Phase: many cases, spreading freely in the
    community
    -vaccinate, ensure system able to provide best treatment possible given
111
Q

what is the aim of the containment phase of managing infectious threats?

A

-aim: reduce spread while learning about disease and

developing treatments/vaccine

112
Q

what is the aim of the management phase of managing infectious threats?

A

manage cases, reduce severity and protect those most vulnerable to the infection

113
Q

what is the process for suspecting c.diff infection?

A 
S – Suspect C diff as a cause of diarrhoea
I – Isolate the case
G – Gloves and aprons must be worn
H – Hand washing with soap and water
T – Test stool for toxin
-Control antibiotic usage
-Treat: metronidazole/vancomycin
114
Q

how is c.diff treated?

A
  • Control antibiotic usage

- Treat: metronidazole/vancomycin

115
Q

What prevention techniques are used to prevent diarrhoea?

A
  1. Rotavirus and measles vaccinations
  2. Promote early & exclusive breastfeeding + vitamin A supplementation
  3. Promote hand washing with soap
  4. Improve water supply quantity & quality
  5. Community-wide sanitation promotion
116
Q

What is the treatment for diarrhoeal disease?

A
  1. Fluid replacement

2. Zinc treatment

117
Q

Give 4 control measure to prevent diarrhoea

A
  1. Hand-washing with soap
  2. Ensure availability of safe drinking water
  3. Safe disposal of human waste
  4. Breastfeeding of infants & young children
  5. Safe handling and processing of food
  6. Control of flies/vectors
  7. Case management including exclusion
  8. Vaccination
118
Q

Name 4 at risk groups for diarrhoea

A
  1. Poor hygiene groups
  2. Children attending pre school/nursery
  3. Workers involved in preparing and serving unwrapped/uncooked food
  4. HCW working with vulnerable people
119
Q

Name 4 notifiable infectious disease

A
  1. Malaria
  2. MMR
  3. Meningitis
  4. Cholera
  5. Anthrax
  6. TB
120
Q

Name 3 types of transmission of infection

A
  1. Direct
    - direct
    - face-oral
  2. Indirect
    - vector borne
    - vehicle borne
  3. Airbourne
    - respiratory route
121
Q

Describe the chain of infection

A

Reservoir –> portal of exit –> agent –> mode of transmission –> portal of entry –> host –> person to person spread –> reservoir

122
Q

what is reflection?

A

It is a process of exploration & discovery
It is deliberate, intended & directed to a goal
It is total response to a situation or event
It includes thoughts, feelings & behaviours
It occurs at the time of an event or after it

123
Q

what is prevalence?

A

proportion of a population that have the
disease at a point in time
= incidence x avg. duration

124
Q

what is mortality?

A

incidence of death from a disease

125
Q

what are ecological studies?

A

population based data rather than individual data

126
Q

what are cross sectional studies?

A

prevalence study

127
Q

what is a case-control study?

A

looks at people with a disease and

compares with a control

128
Q

what is a cohort study?

A

incidence study, follow a group of people over a

period of time

129
Q

what is an intervention study?

A

do something and compare to none intervention

130
Q

what are the different types of randomisation in RCTs

A

simple, block, stratified

131
Q

what is blinding?

A

participants, investigators and/or assesssors

unaware of group allocation

132
Q

what is confounding?

A

when the effect of an intervention is distorted

because of the association with other factor that influences the outcome

133
Q

what is bias?

A

systemic disposition of certain trial designs to

produce results consistently better or worse than other trial designs

134
Q

what are the problems with RCTs?

A

ethical issues, cost, attrition.

135
Q

what is the CASP checklist for RCTs?

A
  1. Did the study ask a clearly focussed question?
  2. Was it an RCT, and appropriately so?
  3. Were participants appropriately allocated to control
    and intervention groups?
  4. Were all persons blind to participants study group?
  5. Were all participants accounted for?
  6. Was there consistency between groups?
  7. Did the study have enough participants?
  8. How well are results presented, what is main result?
  9. How precise are the results?
  10. Were all important outcomes considered?

Phase 2A revision (38 decks)

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