Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SBCP Pathology > GUT: Renal Disease > Flashcards

GUT: Renal Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Congenital structural, non-neoplastic kidney diseases?

A

PKD
Agenesis
Horseshoe kidney
Abnormal ureteric systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

3 causes of obstructive hydronephrosis?

A

Extrinsic (eg lymph node)
Tumour in ureter wall
Stones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What can cause a staghorn calculus?

A

Proteus, or sometimes e coli, infection.

Staghorn calculus is molded by the luminal cavity of the pelvis and calyces over time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Organisms causing acute pyelonephritis

A

May be bloode borne

E COLI MOST COMMON

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Histology of pyelonephritis: Collections of _____ polymorphs. Grossly you can see small, studded ___ right through the renal parenchyma

A

Neutrophil

Abcesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What needs to be present to define pyelonephritis as chronic?

A

POLAR SCARS involving the CALYX

Due to repeated infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Histology of chronic pyelonephritis: Inflammation fibrosis, glom. sclerosis. And _____ of the tubules which contain a pink cast like material.

A

Thyroidisation (the pink casts resemble thyroid follicles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Gross pathology of chronic pyelonephritis: Cystic appearing structures that are actually dilated _____. Renal parenchyma between these show a reduction in tissue.

A

Calyces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What percent of the population are born with one kidney?

A

1%, agenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Symptoms of PKD

A

Presents in 3rd decade

HTN
Renal masses
Chronic renal impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Complications of PKD

A

Cyst rupture or bleeding

10% develop cystic clear cell carcinoma

Liver and pancreas cysts

BERRY ANEURYSMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Inheritance pattern of PKD

A

Autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Inheritance pattern of infantile PKD

A

Autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Prognosis of infantile PKD?

A

Very poor, severely impaired kidney function requiring dialysis from birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Is a renal adenoma benign or malignant?

A

Benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Is an oncocytoma benign or malignant?

A

Benign, but larger and very difficult to differentiate from a renal cancer so are often removed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Is a metanephritic adenoma benign or malignant?

A

Benign, rare and often found incidentally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Examples of malignant tumours from the Heidelberg classification (6)

A
  • Clear cell carcinoma
  • Papillary carcinoma
  • Chromophobe carcinoma
  • Collecting duct carcinoma
Renal carcinoma unspecified
Urothelial tumours (TCC)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Name the four most common types of renal cancer

A

Clear cell carcinoma
Papillary carcinoma
Chromophobe carcinoma
Collecting duct carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What percentage of renal cancers are Clear cell?

A

75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Are renal tumours more common in M or F?

A

M>F (2:1)

Associated with smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When do renal tumours present?

A

5th decade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Risk factors for renal tumours?

A

Tuberous sclerosis
Von Hippel-Lindau disease
Renal transplants
DIALYSIS due to scarring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Molecular pathology: Which cancer is linked to 3p del?

A

Clear cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Molecular pathology: Which cancer is linked to trisomy 7 and 17?

A

Papillary carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Triad of renal cancer symptoms

A

Mostly discovered incidentally, the clinical triad is rare

  • Renal mass
  • Haematuria
  • Flank
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

First line investigation for renal cancer?

A

CT scan

28
Q

Clear cell carcinoma histology: Sheets of ___cells. Vacuolated cytoplasm. Pyknotic ___. Cystic in ___.

A

Clear
Nuclei
15

29
Q

Gross appearance of clear cell carcinoma: pale ____ (colour), tumour with areas of haemorrhage and cystic change in ___%

A

Yellow

15

30
Q

In what % of cases is a papillary CA bilateral?

A

10% therefore always check other kidney

31
Q

Histology of chromophobe CA: Very ___cell membrane. Also perinuclear ____

A

Thick

Halos

32
Q

What is prognosis of collecting duct CA?

A

Very poor

Very aggressive tumour, even when small, found in renal medulla

33
Q

Which grading system is used for renal CAs?

A

Fuhrman grading, based on exclusively on NUCLEAR SIZE

From I to IV

34
Q

Stage pt1 of renal cancer

A

Confined to kidney, <7cm diameter

35
Q

Stage pt2 of renal CA

A

Confined to kidney, >7cm

36
Q

Stage pT3 of renal CA

A

Renal vein or vena cava involved

37
Q

Stage pT4 of renal CA

A

Spread to adjacent organs or Gerota’s fascia

38
Q

Treatment options for renal RA

A

Radical nephrectomy
Partial nephrectomy

Radiofrequency ablation for small tumours

Chemotherapy for metastasis (no benefit for renal tumour)

Interferon

39
Q

What is a radical nephrectomy?

A

Removing whole kidney, portion of ureter, adrenal gland, and any higher lymph nodes

40
Q

Prognosis of pT1 renal CA?

A

70% 5 year survival

41
Q

Prognosis of pT4 renal CA?

A

5%

42
Q

How does Transitional cell carcinoma present in the kidney?

A

Cauliflower tumour involving the renal pelvis. More common in bladder/ ureters.

Need to remove ureter in TCCs due to high risk of spread.

43
Q

Another name for Wilms tumour?

A

Nephroblastoma

Can be bilateral

44
Q

Who presents with WIlms tumour? How does it present?

A

2-4 yr olds

Usually abdominal mass rather than other symptoms.

Then it has got a stromal component that sometimes can form muscle and cartilage

prognosis has improved considerably, with improved surgical technique and chemotherapy in these
cases, you would expect a cure, providing there is not a sort of anaplasia within
the tumour.

45
Q

How is glomerulonephritis classified? Clinically or pathologically

A

Mostly classified based on clinical features

46
Q

What is Goodpasture’s?

A

An anti-glomerular basement membrane disease (glomerulonephritis)

47
Q

5 categories of presentation of glomerulonephritis?

A

Nephrotic syndrome (protein loss in urine)

Nephritic syndrome

Acute renal failure

Chronic renal failure

Incidental finding eg on dipstick

48
Q

What level of proteinuria indicates nephrotic syndrome?

A

> 3.5g in 24 hours

49
Q

Classical features of nephrotic syndrome (4)

A

Proteinuria >3.5g in 24 hours
Oedema
Hypercholesterolaemia
Hypoalbuminaeia

50
Q

Main cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults?

A

Membranous glomerulonephritis

51
Q

Clinical features of nephritic syndrome? (4)

A

Haematuria
Renal impairment
Hypertension
ACTIVE URINE SEDIMENT

52
Q

Histological signs of nephritis?

A

Proliferation of cells within glomeruli

53
Q

Most common cause of pimary glomerulonephritis?

A

IgA nephropathy

Presents as chronic renal failure in young men with nephrotic syndrome

Very poor renal prognosis

54
Q

Which primary glomerulonephritis causes nephrotic syndrome in children?

A

Minimal change disease

55
Q

Is post-streptococcal GN a primary or secondary GN?

A

Primary

Rarely biopsied but has good outcome

56
Q

Most common time of year to see Goodpasture’s disease?

A

Spring

57
Q

Which primary glomerulonephritis is caused by lupus nephritis, hep C, cryoglobulinaemia etc?

A

Membranoproliferative GN

58
Q

Gold standard test for diagnosing glomerulonephritis?

A

Renal biopsy under USS guidance

59
Q

Why are 2-3 cores taken during a renal biopsy?

A

One for light microscopy
One for immunofluorescence
One for electron microscopy

60
Q

What tissue is seen with Masson’s trichrome stain in histology?

A

Connective

61
Q

What is silver stain used for in renal histology?

A

To look at basement membrane

62
Q

What is periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain used for?

A

TO detect glycogen deposits eg in hyperglycaemia

63
Q

Which antibodies are applied to frozen tissue in immunofluorescence? (kidney)

A

IgG, A and M

Complement (C3, C4, C1q)

Fibrin

64
Q

What is electron microscopy used for in renal histology?

A

Can identify deposits along the BM.

Can also detect structural problems

65
Q

True/false: In minimal change disease glomerulonephritis fusion of podocyte foot processes is seen at electron microscopy

A

True

SBCP Pathology (24 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions