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ACVPM 2022 > Public Health Admin > Flashcards

Public Health Admin Flashcards

1
Q

What does NARMS stand for?

A

National Antimicrobial Resistance Monitoring System for Enteric Bacteria

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2
Q

What agencies are involved in NARMS?

A

NARMS is a collaboration among state and local public health departments, CDC, the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA).

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3
Q

Describe the objectives of NARMS.

A

This national public health surveillance system tracks changes in the antimicrobial susceptibility of certain enteric (intestinal) bacteria found in ill people (CDC), retail meats (FDA), and food animals (USDA) in the United States. The NARMS program at CDC helps protect public health by providing information about emerging bacterial resistance, the ways in which resistance is spread, and how resistant infections differ from susceptible infections.

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4
Q

What is the definition of a Schedule I (one) drug?

A

Schedule I drugs, substances, or chemicals are defined as drugs with no currently accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse.

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5
Q

From what sources does NARMS monitor antimicrobial resistance among enteric bacteria?

A

Humans, Retail Meats, Food Animals

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6
Q

What are the four major food borne bacteria currently under surveillance by The National Antimicrobial Resistance Monitoring System for Enteric Bacteria (NARMS)?

A

Campylobacter, Enterococcus, E. coli, Salmonella

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7
Q

Provide 2 examples of Schedule I drugs.

A

Heroine, LSD, Marijuana, Ecstasy, Methaqualone, Peyote

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8
Q

Which Governmental agency regulates controlled substances?

A

Drug Enforcement Agency

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9
Q

Name 2 organisms that goats, sheep and/or cattle may shed during the birthing process that are transmissible to people.

A 
Q fever (coxiella burnetii)
Brucellosis (several species)
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10
Q

What are some steps fairs can take to protect visitors from disease transmission at livestock birthing exhibits?

A

Ensure barriers are sufficient to separate visitors from the exhibit and not allow contact with the animals.
Provide handwashing stations near exhibits.
Locate birthing exhibits away from food stands or eating areas.

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11
Q

Skin contact with animals in public settings such as at a petting zoo, pet store, or circus can result in human skin infections and or infestations. Name two organisms and/or parasites of human concern.

A

Ringworm (fungal)
Orf (viral)
Mange (sarcoptes scabiei)

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12
Q

Skin contact with animals in public settings such as at a petting zoo, pet store, or circus can result in human skin infections and or infestations. Name two steps that can be taken to reduce the risk of exposure.

A

Visual inspection of animals before allowing contact with the public.
Providing handwashing stations.
Discouraging visitors from nuzzling or kissing animals.
Practice good disinfection of animal areas.

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13
Q
  1. The Horse Protection Act is concerned with eliminating which practice?
    a. Administration of performance-enhancing drugs to racehorses
    b. Slaughter and processing of horses for human consumption
    c. Participation of sored horses in shows, exhibits, or sales
    d. Abandonment of unwanted horses
A

c. Participation of sored horses in shows, exhibits, or sales

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14
Q
  1. The OIE was formed in response to an outbreak of which disease?
    a. Classical Swine Fever
    b. Foot-and-Mouth Disease
    c. Rinderpest
    d. Rift Valley Fever
    e. Surra
A

c. Rinderpest

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15
Q

Which agency is responsible for administration and enforcement of the Country of Origin Labeling (COOL) program?

A

b. AMS

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16
Q 
What to the following Acronyms stand for?
APHIS
AMS
ARS
FSIS
A

APHIS-Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service
AMS- Agricultural Marketing Service
ARS- Agricultural Research Service
FSIS- Food Safety and Inspection Service

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17
Q

The CDC regulates the importation of which one or more of the following animals?

a. Horses
b. Dogs
c. Bats
d. Snakes
e. Fish
f. Monkeys
g. Ferrets

A

b. Dogs
c. Bats
f. Monkeys

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18
Q

Which of the following is not part of the command staff within the incident command system structure:

a. Liaison officer
b. Safety officer
c. Planning chief
d. Public information officer

A

c. Planning chief

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19
Q

Of the following, which of the following categories of controls for workplace hazard exposure is considered to be the least effective at protecting employees against a hazard of concern?

a. Engineering control
b. Administrative control
c. Personal protective equipment
d. Employee training

A

c. Personal protective equipment

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20
Q

The best disaster preparedness starts at what level?

a. Personal
b. Local
c. State
d. Federal

A

a. Personal

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21
Q

According to the FDA, which one or more of the following animals is a minor species?

a. Turkey
b. Sheep
c. Pig
d. Goat
e. Pheasant
f. Llama
g. Cat
h. Horse

A

b. Sheep
d. Goat
e. Pheasant
f. Llama

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22
Q

Product “X” is recalled once the FDA determines that there is a high probability that the use of this product will result in serious adverse health effects to the user. Which class of recall did the FDA initiate?

a. Class I recall
b. Class II recall
c. Class III recall
d. Class IV recall

A

Class I recall

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23
Q

What is an FDA Class I recall?

A

A situation in which there is a reasonable probability that the use of or exposure to a violative product will cause serious adverse health consequences or death.

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24
Q

What is an FDA Class II recall?

A

A situation in which use of or exposure to a violative product may cause temporary or medically reversible adverse health consequences or where the probability of serious adverse health consequences is remote.

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25
Q

What is an FDA Class III recall?

A

A situation in which use of or exposure to a violative product is not likely to cause adverse health consequences.

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26
Q

What is an FDA market recall?

A

Occurs when a product has a minor violation that would not be subject to FDA legal action. The firm removes the product from the market or corrects the violation. For example, a product removed from the market due to tampering, without evidence of manufacturing or distribution problems, would be a market withdrawal.

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27
Q

The National Poultry Improvement Plan (NPIP) does not include testing and monitoring for which one or more organisms?

a. Salmonella enteritidis
b. Avian Influenza
c. Newcastle Disease
d. Salmonella typhoid
e. Mycoplasma meleagridis

A

c. Newcastle Disease

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28
Q
  1. Match the organization to the location of its headquarters:
    a. World Organization for Animal Health (OIE)
    b. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
    c. World Health Organization (WHO)
    d. Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO)
    i. Rome, Italy
    ii. Geneva, Switzerland
    iii. Atlanta Georgia
    iv. Paris, France
A

a. World Organization for Animal Health (OIE) Paris
b. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) Atlanta
c. World Health Organization (WHO) Geneva
d. Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) Rome

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29
Q

Which one or more of the following is considered a foreign animal disease in the United States?

a. Aujeszky’s disease
b. Bovine babesiosis
c. Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia
d. Equine viral arteritis
e. Bovine viral diarrhea
f. Epizootic hemorrhagic disease

A

b. Bovine babesiosis

c. Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia

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30
Q

The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) falls under which of the U.S. Federal executive departments?

a. Department of Labor
b. Department of Homeland Security
c. Department of Health and Human Services
d. Department of the Interior

A

b. Department of Homeland Security

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31
Q

Which one or more of the following birds is regulated as livestock by USDA APHIS?

a. Pigeon
b. Macaw
c. Swan
d. Finch
e. Dove
f. Owl

A

a. Pigeon
c. Swan
e. Dove

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32
Q

The Animal Welfare Act regulates the care and treatment of which one or more of the following animals?

a. Rabbit in a research laboratory
b. Privately-owned cat
c. Iguana for sale at the pet store
d. Goat raised for meat
e. Mouse in a research laboratory

A

a. Rabbit in a research laboratory

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33
Q

If everything else remains constant, the positive predictive value (PPV) of a specific diagnostic test will be the greatest in which situation?

a. The disease prevalence in the population is high.
b. The disease prevalence in the population is low.
c. The PPV of a test is specific to the test itself and doesn’t depend on disease prevalence.
d. The test is considered highly sensitive.

A

a. The disease prevalence in the population is high.

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34
Q

Approximately how often is the Agriculture Improvement Act (“Farm Bill”) updated?

a. Yearly
b. Every other year
c. Every five years
d. Every 10 years

A

c. Every five years

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35
Q

Which of the following is not a branch of the USDA?

a. Foreign Agricultural Service
b. Food and Nutrition Service
c. National Institute of Food and Agriculture
d. Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition

A

d. Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition

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36
Q

The FDA’s Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetics Act requires that pet foods meet which one or more of the following standards:

a. Produced under sanitary conditions
b. Be truthfully labeled
c. Do not contain harmful substances
d. Be safe to eat

A

a. Produced under sanitary conditions
b. Be truthfully labeled
c. Do not contain harmful substances
d. Be safe to eat

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37
Q

Which of the following constitute extralabel use of an approved drug (Drug A)?

a. Drug A is given SQ to Daisy the dairy goat and is labeled for use in bovines but not for use in caprines.
b. Drug A is used to treat a bacterial urinary tract infection in Fluffy the cat, but the drug label only states that Drug A is to be used in cats to treat skin infections caused by susceptible strains of Pasteurella multocida.
c. The drug label says to administer Drug A IM every 8 hours, but Bob works 12-hour shifts, so he administers a dose-and-a-half worth of Drug A IM every 12 hours instead.
d. The package insert for Drug A says to give a dog of Buster the dog’s weight one capsule every 12 hours for up to seven days, but Buster doesn’t seem 100% back to normal after seven days, so the veterinarian advises the owner to continue giving Drug A every 12 hours for another five days.
e. All of the above constitute extralabel drug use.

A

e. All of the above constitute extralabel drug use.

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38
Q

Which of the following products are regulated by the FDA? For the choices not regulated by the FDA, which agency regulates them?

a. Smart TVs
b. Pet food
c. Alcohol
d. Human vaccines
e. Heroin
f. Advertisement for regular-strength Tylenol
g. Baby toys

A

a. Smart TVs-FDA
b. Pet food-FDA
c. Alcohol-Bureau of Alcohol, Firearms, Tobacco and Explosives
d. Human vaccines- FDA
e. Heroin-DEA
f. Advertisement for regular-strength Tylenol-Federal Trade Commission
g. Baby toys- Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC)

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39
Q

Which one or more of the following is a Category A bioterrorism agent?

a. Nipah virus
b. Ricin toxin
c. Francisella tularensis
d. Burkholderia pseudomallei
e. Lassa virus

A

c. Francisella tularensis

e. Lassa virus

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40
Q

Of those listed, which control method is most preferred for protecting employees from workplace hazards?

a. Exposure and worker health monitoring
b. Administrative controls
c. Engineering controls
d. Personal protective equipment

A

c. Engineering controls

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41
Q

After being accredited in state A, a veterinarian establishes a practice in state B. To be able to issue health certificates on livestock movements, the veterinarian must:

a. Write the state board in state B
b. Practice in state B for one year
c. Do nothing since his accreditation is accepted in all states
d. be licensed and accredited by state B
e. write the USDA in Washington D.C. and request permission to perform official work in state B

A

d. be licensed and accredited by state B

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42
Q

Which one or more of the following is incorrect?

a. Both an R95 respirator and a P95 respirator are expected to filter at least 95% of airborne particles, but the P95 respirator is expected to be more resistant to oils than the R95 respirator.
b. An N100 respirator is expected to filter at least 99.97% of airborne particles but is not resistant to oils.
c. A P99 respirator has a longer certified service life than an R99 respirator.
d. The agency that regulates N95 respirators falls under another agency that falls within the U.S. Department of Health & Human Services.
e. All choices are correct.

A

a. Both an R95 respirator and a P95 respirator are expected to filter at least 95% of airborne particles, but the P95 respirator is expected to be more resistant to oils than the R95 respirator.

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43
Q

The Easter Bunny wants to get a head start on planning his Easter deliveries. He remembers that the baby chicks he’ll put in his baskets are inspected by __________, the _______ regulates shell eggs, the ________ regulates egg products, and the _______ regulates chocolate candy eggs.

a. USDA, USDA, FDA, FDA
b. USDA, USDA, USDA, FDA
c. FDA, FDA, FDA, FDA, FDA
d. USDA, FDA, USDA, FDA
e. USDA, FDA, FDA, FDA

A

d. USDA, FDA, USDA, FDA

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44
Q

Among all weather-related hazards, which type is responsible for the greatest number of annual human deaths?

a. Wildfire
b. Flooding
c. Avalanche
d. Lightening
e. Extreme heat
f. Extreme cold

A

e. Extreme heat

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45
Q

Who is considered the father of modern epidemiology?

a. Robert Koch
b. John Snow
c. Anthony Fauci
d. Edward Jenner
e. Louis Pasteur

A

b. John Snow

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46
Q

Which one or more of the following organisms should only be studied and worked with within the confines of a BSL-4 laboratory?

a. Nipah virus
b. Coxiella burnetii
c. Yersinia pestis
d. Marburg virus
e. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever
f. West Nile Virus

A

a. Nipah virus
d. Marburg virus
e. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever

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47
Q
  1. The Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) is administered and regulated by which agency?
    a. U.S. Environmental Protection Agency
    b. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
    c. Food and Drug Administration
    d. U.S. Department of Agriculture
A

a. U.S. Environmental Protection Agency

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48
Q

Of its 182 (as of this date) member countries, approximately what percentage are considered FMD free without vaccination by the OIE?

a. 7%
b. 71%
c. 36%
d. 95%
e. 15%

A

c. 36%

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49
Q

Dr. Danelle works in Mosquito City and her veterinary clinic goes through hundreds of in-house, rapid Canine Heartworm antigen test kits every year. Which agency regulates these heartworm tests?

a. FDA CVM
b. USDA AMS
c. USDA CVB
d. FDA FSAN

A

c. USDA CVB

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50
Q

Which one or more of the following is not considered a U.S. foreign animal disease?

a. Equine Infectious Anemia
b. Bovine Babesiosis
c. New World Screwworm
d. Peste des petits ruminants
e. Newcastle Disease
f. Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome

A

a. Equine Infectious Anemia

f. Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndromesis

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51
Q

The first priority of the National Animal Vaccine and Veterinary Countermeasures Bank (NAVVCB) is to increase the U.S. stockpile of which animal vaccine?

a. African Swine Fever
b. Foot and Mouth Disease
c. Exotic Newcastle Disease
d. Avian Influenza

A

b. Foot and Mouth Disease

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52
Q

Which of the following agencies has been delegated the authority and responsibility for controlling the interstate movement of livestock in the United States?

a. Veterinary Service of State Department of Agriculture
b. Packers and Stockyards Administration
c. U.S. Department of Commerce
d. Veterinary Service of the USDA Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service
e. USDA Food Safety & Quality Service

A

d. Veterinary Service of the USDA Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service

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53
Q

Which of the following is/are not among the U.S. Animal Health Program diseases?

a. Chronic Wasting Disease
b. Swine Brucellosis
c. Rabies
d. Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy
e. Equine Infectious Anemia
f. Avian Influenza

A

c. Rabies

f. Avian Influenza

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54
Q

The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service is an agency within the Department of _______, and the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration is an agency within the Department of ____.

a. Interior, Agriculture
b. Interior, Commerce
c. Agriculture, Health and Human Services
d. Agriculture, Commerce
e. Commerce, Agriculture

A

b. Interior, Commerce

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55
Q

Both Nexgard (chewable product) and K9 Advantix II (topical product) are labeled for the control of fleas and ticks in dogs. However, the orally administered product is regulated by ______ while the topically-applied product is regulated by ______.

a. FDA, EPA
b. FDA, USDA
c. EPA, FDA
d. EPA, USDA

A

a. FDA, EPA

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56
Q

Which one or more of the following food animals is not protected under the Humane Methods of Slaughter Act?

a. Pig
b. Cow
c. Turkey
d. Sheep
e. Horse
f. Salmon

A

c. Turkey

f. Salmon

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57
Q
  1. Based on the following 2x2 table for a diagnostic test, write the equation and (brief) definition for each term below:Disease No Disease
    Test Positive a b
    Test Negative c d

a. Sensitivity
b. Specificity
c. Prevalence
d. Positive predictive value
e. Negative predictive value

A

a. Sensitivity: a/(a+c)

The ability of a diagnostic test to identify the true positives (false negatives).

b. Specificity: d/(b+d)

The ability of a diagnostic test to identify true negatives (false positives).

c. Prevalence: (a+c)/(a+b+c+d)

The proportion of a population that have a specific disease at a specific point in time.

d. Positive predictive value: a/(a+b)

A measure of certainty that a positive test result depicts the true disease status of an individual. Increases as disease prevalence increases within a population increases.

e. Negative predictive value: d/(b+d)

A measure of certainty that a negative test result depicts the true disease status of an individual. Increases as disease prevalence decreases within a population.

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58
Q

Define Sensitivity

A

a/(a+c)

The ability of a diagnostic test to identify the true positives (false negatives).

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59
Q

Define Specificity

A

d/(b+d)

The ability of a diagnostic test to identify true negatives (false positives).

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60
Q

Define Prevalence

A

(a+c)/(a+b+c+d)

The proportion of a population that have a specific disease at a specific point in time.

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61
Q

Define PPV

A

d. Positive predictive value: a/(a+b)

A measure of certainty that a positive test result depicts the true disease status of an individual. Increases as disease prevalence increases within a population increases.

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62
Q

Define NPV

A

e. Negative predictive value: d/(d+c)

A measure of certainty that a negative test result depicts the true disease status of an individual. Increases as disease prevalence decreases within a population.

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63
Q
  1. A Chihuahua patient of yours comes in for a routine wellness visit and tests positive on an in-house test for heartworm disease. The owner says this is impossible because she gives the dog its heartworm preventative tablet every month as directed, plus the dog spends very little time outdoors. The package insert for the in-house test reports a sensitivity of 99% and specificity of 95%. The prevalence data for the area indicates 1.5% of the dog population actually has heartworm disease.
  2. Taking these numbers into account, how certain are you that the positive test result is correct? (Hint: what is the PPV of this test result?)
A

Disease No Disease Total
Test + a = 14.85 b = 49.25( 64.1 – 14.85) 64.1(1000-935.9)
Test - c = 0.15 d = 935.75 935.9(0.15+935.75)
15* 985 (1000-15) 1000*

Se = 0.99 = a/(a+c)  =a/15 = 0.99 = a = 15*0.99 = a = 14.85
Sp = 0.95 = d/(b+d) = d/985 = 0.95 = d = 985*0.95 = d = 935.75

PPV = a/(a+b) = 14.85/(14.85+49.25) =14.85/64.1 = 0.22166927 (* 100 = 23.2%)

I am 23.3% certain that Sprinkles’ positive test is a true positive.

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64
Q

A Chihuahua patient of yours comes in for a routine wellness visit and tests positive on an in-house test for heartworm disease. The owner says this is impossible because she gives the dog its heartworm preventative tablet every month as directed, plus the dog spends very little time outdoors. The package insert for the in-house test reports a sensitivity of 99% and specificity of 95%. The prevalence data for the area indicates 1.5% of the dog population actually has heartworm disease.

a. Taking these numbers into account, you are 23.2% certain that the positive test result is correct?
b. Sprinkles’ owner is upset about your conclusion in part A. (“What a waste of money! This is a terrible test!” she complains.) Despite being a little high maintenance, Sprinkles’ owner is a good client and you want her to continue to come back for Sprinkle’s care. Write a response in 2-4 sentences that you might give to Sprinkles’ owner about the above result and your certainty about Sprinkles’ diagnosis, paying particular attention to using layman’s terms to describe what PPV means and its relationship to prevalence.

A

“I know it seems silly that this test result says Sprinkles is positive when we don’t think she is. This is because there are so few cases of heartworm in dogs in this area (because of owners like you that give the monthly preventative medication regularly)! This screening test actually over estimates the number of dogs with heartworm, and so we are actually are less likely to miss a positive, which could be really terrible for that dog’s health, and we can run a simple, easy, inexpensive test to make certain that Sprinkles doesn’t actually have heartworm disease.”

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65
Q

What is the difference between the National Veterinary Services Laboratory (NVSL) and the National Animal Health Laboratory Network (NAHLN) and the location(s) of each?

A

National Veterinary Services Laboratory (NVSL) co-located with the National Animal Disease Center (USDA-ARS) and the Center for Veterinary Biologics to form the National Centers for Animal Health in Ames, IA. Their mission is to safeguard U.S. animal health and contribute to public health by ensuring that timely and accurate laboratory support is provided by their nationwide animal-health diagnostic system. The NVSL serves as the reference laboratory for the National Animal Health Laboratory Network and oversees the annual proficiency testing of these laboratories as part of this approval process.

National Animal Health Laboratory Network is located throughout the country at various State, university, and private animal diagnostic laboratories within the U.S. They are a network of animal disease diagnostic laboratories that works effectively as a team, provides ongoing disease surveillance, responds quickly to disease events, communicates diagnostic outcomes to decision makers in a timely manner, and has the capability and capacity to meet diagnostic needs during animal disease outbreaks. The National Animal Health Laboratory Network (NAHLN) is part of a nationwide strategy that enhances the Nation’s early detection of, response to, and recovery from animal health emergencies. It is a partnership of over 60 Federal, State and university-associated animal health laboratories distributed throughout the U.S., and is capable of testing large numbers of samples for specific disease agents originating from food animals.

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66
Q

Define what is meant by a DIVA vaccine and give an example. What body regulates veterinary vaccines? List the Program, Agency, and U.S. Department that houses this regulatory body.

A

DIVA = Differentiating Infected from Vaccinated Animals

DIVA vaccines were first used for the eradication of Aujeszky disease in pigs, since then they have advanced to cover infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (IBR) of cattle, foot-and-mouth disease (FMD), classical swine fever (CSF), avian influenza infection (H7N1), and more recently Peste des petits ruminants (PPR).

Veterinary vaccines are regulated by the Center for Veterinary Biologics, within the Veterinary Services Program of the Animal and Plan Health Inspection Service (APHIS) of the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA).

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67
Q

Besides the Veterinary Services (VS) what other programs fall under APHIS?

A

The other 5 programs of APHIS are Animal Care, Biotechnology Regulatory Services, International Services and Trade Support Team, Plant Protection and Quarantine, and Wildlife Services.

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68
Q

Briefly describe the PETS act

A

a. PETS Act, Pets Evacuation and Transportation Standards Act (2006):
The PETS Act amends the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act to ensure that State and local emergency preparedness operational plans address the needs of individuals with household pets and service animals following a major disaster or emergency.
The PETS Act authorizes FEMA to provide rescue, care, shelter, and essential needs for individuals with household pets and service animals, and to the household pets and animals themselves following a major disaster or emergency.
For DHS and its agency that oversees emergency response – the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) – to implement the PETS Act effectively, two other documents support FEMA’s activities to ensure optimal preparedness and response associated with companion animals: Post-Katrina Emergency Management Reform Act (PKEMRA) and the
National Response Framework (NRF).

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69
Q

Briefly describe AMDUCA

A

b. AMDUCA, Animal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act of 1994:
The Animal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act of 1994 (AMDUCA) permits veterinarians to prescribe extralabel uses of certain approved new animal drugs and approved human drugs for animals under certain conditions. Extralabel use refers to the use of an approved drug in a manner that is not in accordance with the approved label directions.

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70
Q

Briefly describe CERCLA

A

c. CERCLA, Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (a.k.a. Superfund) (1980):
provides a Federal “Superfund” to clean up uncontrolled or abandoned hazardous-waste sites as well as accidents, spills, and other emergency releases of pollutants and contaminants into the environment. Through CERCLA, EPA was given power to seek out those parties responsible for any release and assure their cooperation in the cleanup.

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71
Q

Briefly Describe FSMA

A

d. FSMA, Food Safety Modernization Act (2011):
Congress enacted FSMA in response to dramatic changes in the global food system and in our understanding of foodborne illness and its consequences, including the realization that preventable foodborne illness is both a significant public health problem and a threat to the economic well-being of the food system. FDA has finalized seven major rules to implement FSMA, recognizing that ensuring the safety of the food supply is a shared responsibility among many different points in the global supply chain for both human and animal food.

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72
Q

Briefly describe RCRA

A

e. RCRA, Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (1976):
The public law that creates the framework for the proper management of hazardous and non-hazardous solid waste. The law describes the waste management program mandated by Congress that gave EPA authority to develop the RCRA program. The term RCRA is often used interchangeably to refer to the law, regulations and EPA policy and guidance.

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73
Q

Which of the acts listed below gives veterinarians the ability to prescribe extra-label drug use?

a. PETS Act
b. AMDUCA
c. CERCLA
d. FSMA
e. RCRA

A

b. AMDUCA

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74
Q

What toxin was responsible for the large pet food recall in 2020-2021 involving Midwestern Pet Foods?

a. Ricin
b. Slaframine
c. Melamine
d. Aflatoxin
e. Fumonisin
f. Deoxynivalenol

A

d. Aflatoxin

75
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the NASPHV’s four Compendiums?

a. Compendium of Exhibition Guidelines for Exotic Species in Zoos and Aquaria
b. Compendium of Animal Rabies Prevention and Control
c. Compendium of Measures to Prevent Disease Associated with Animals in Public Settings
d. Compendium of Measures to Control Chlamydia psittaci Infection Among Humans (Psittacosis) and Pet Birds (Avian Chlamydiosis)
e. Compendium of Veterinary Standard Precautions for Zoonotic Disease Prevention in Veterinary Personnel

A

a. Compendium of Exhibition Guidelines for Exotic Species in Zoos and Aquaria

76
Q

Which one or more of the following diseases are internationally quarantinable?

a. Chicken Pox
b. Cholera
c. Middle East Respiratory Syndrome
d. Diphtheria
e. Measles
f. Yellow Fever
g. Crimean-Congo Hemorrhagic Fever
h. Plague

A

b. Cholera
c. Middle East Respiratory Syndrome
d. Diphtheria

f. Yellow Fever
g. Crimean-Congo Hemorrhagic Fever
h. Plague

77
Q

Which of the antibiotics listed below can legally be used in medicated feed without a VFD? (Choose all that apply.) (Extra credit: why do these medications not require a VFD?)

a. Monensin
b. Sulfonamides
c. Bacitracin
d. Enrofloxacin
e. Tylosin

A

a. Monensin
c. Bacitracin

These are antibiotics, but not medically important for humans.

78
Q

Which of the following are involved in international dog importation into the U.S.?

a. USDA APHIS Veterinary Services
b. CDC
c. USDA FAS
d. US Customs and Border Protection
e. USDA APHIS Animal Care
f. US Department of Transportation
g. USDA FSIS

A

a. USDA APHIS Veterinary Services
b. CDC
d. US Customs and Border Protection
e. USDA APHIS Animal Care

79
Q

________, ________, and _______ viruses are all flaviviruses, while _______ is an alphavirus, but all of these viruses can be transmitted by both____________ and __________ mosquitoes.

a. Dengue, Yellow Fever, Zika, Chikungunya, Aedes aegypti, Aedes albopictus
b. Chikungunya, Western Equine Encephalitis, Eastern Equine Encephalitis, Jamestown Canyon Virus, Anopheles gambiae, Aedes aegypti
c. Lassa, Zika, Powassan, Venezuelan Equine Encephalitis, Culex tarsalis, Aedes albopictus
d. Japanese Equine Encephalitis Virus, West Nile Virus, Crimean-Congo Haemorrhagic Fever, Dengue, Anopheles gambiae, Culex pipiens

A

a. Dengue, Yellow Fever, Zika, Chikungunya, Aedes aegypti, Aedes albopictus

80
Q

Which of the following are considered adulterants by USDA FSIS? (Choose all that apply and describe on WHICH products they are considered adulterants.)

a. Listeria monocytogenes – cooked and ready-to-eat meat and poultry products
b. Salmonella spp. – ready-to-eat products
c. STEC – raw ground beef and raw beef products intended for non-intact product production
d. Campylobacter jejuni – is not considered an adulterant, but IS considered a hazard in poultry HACCP plans (see fourth reference below)

A

a. Listeria monocytogenes – cooked and ready-to-eat meat and poultry products
b. Salmonella spp. – ready-to-eat products
c. STEC – raw ground beef and raw beef products intended for non-intact product production

81
Q

The FALCPA is the Act that gives the ______ power to require food companies to label products that contain the _____ major types of allergens. In 2021, Congress passed FASTER, which adds _______ to this list of allergen types and will go into effect in 2023.

a. FDA, 5, strawberries
b. USDA, 8, mustard
c. CDC, 7, sunflower seeds
d. FDA, 8, sesame seeds

A

d. FDA, 8, sesame seeds

82
Q

Which one or more of the following is not implemented and enforced by the Food and Drug Administration?

a. Food Safety Modernization Act
b. Egg Products Inspection Act
c. Humane Methods for Slaughter Act
d. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
e. Poultry Products Inspection Act

A

b. Egg Products Inspection Act
c. Humane Methods for Slaughter Act
e. Poultry Products Inspection Act

83
Q

Which of the following is the most common agent in laboratory-acquired infections?

a. Salmonella
b. Brucella
c. Neisseria
d. Coxiella

A

b. Brucella

84
Q

True or False: Infant botulism is caused by the ingestion of Clostridium botulinum spores, and botulism in older children and adults is most commonly caused by the ingestion of food containing the toxins made by Clostridium botulinum.

A

True

85
Q

When a dog bites a person, why is there a 10-day bite hold?

a. That is how long it takes a dog who is infected with rabies to show clinical signs.
b. That is the length of time needed to verify rabies vaccination certificates.
c. That is the longest length of time that a dog who is showing clinical signs of rabies has before death.
d. That is the length of time the person who was bitten will be taking antibiotics to treat the infection.

A

c. That is the longest length of time that a dog who is showing clinical signs of rabies has before death.

86
Q

The Brucella Designated Surveillance Area is located in the_____ due to endemic disease in the ________ and_______ populations.

A

Greater Yellowstone Area, elk, bison

87
Q

The area where active TB surveillance is ongoing is located in ______ and ______ because of endemic disease in the ______ population.

A

Michigan, Minnesota, white-tailed deer

88
Q

Match the essential Public Health service to its corresponding Core Public Health service:

  1. Assessment
  2. Policy Development
  3. Assurance

a. Inform, educate, empower
b. Enforce laws
c. Monitor health
d. Evaluate
e. Link to/Provide care
f. Develop policies
g. Diagnose and investigate
h. Assure competent workforce
i. Mobilize community partnerships

A
  1. Assessment
    c. Monitor health
    g. Diagnose and investigate
  2. Policy Development
    a. Inform, educate, empower
    f. Develop policies
    i. Mobilize community partnerships
  3. Assurance
    b. Enforce laws
    d. Evaluate
    e. Link to/Provide care
    h. Assure competent workforce
89
Q

Revivicor, a company in Virginia, received approval in 2021 from the FDA to start limited production of ________.

a. Milk that has undergone processing to remove lactose.
b. Hypoallergenic catfish
c. Chicken that are resistant to Salmonella infection
d. Pigs genetically modified to not produced alpha gal

A

d. Pigs genetically modified to not produced alpha gal

90
Q

What is NOT one of the general depopulation methods to produce unconsciousness?

a. physical disruption of brain activity (eg, blunt cranial trauma, PCB, gunshot)
b. hypoxia (eg, controlled low atmospheric pressure for poultry, N2, Ar, exsanguination)
c. stress-induced cardiac arrest (eg, extreme physical restraint without sedation)
d. direct depression of neurons necessary for life function (eg, CO2)
e. epileptiform brain activity (eg, electric stunning).

A

c. stress-induced cardiac arrest (eg, extreme physical restraint without sedation)

91
Q

What is alpha gal in pigs?

A

alpha-gal, a sugar molecule, on the surface of pig cells. The sugar is a trigger for a rare allergy, and its removal could provide a new source of drugs, excipients, cosmetics, and meat,

Allergy is induced by tick bites

92
Q 
Which of the following drugs may be used extralabel, in some circumstances, in a
food-producing animal?
a. Clenbuterol
b. Phenylbutazone
c. Vancomycin
d. Diethylstilbestrol
e. Nitrofurazone
A

b. Phenylbutazone

93
Q

Which Federal agency issues standards and regulation regarding the transportation of
infectious agents, flammable gasses, and other hazardous substances?
a. Environmental Protection Agency
b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
c. Department of Defense
d. Department of Transportation

A

d. Department of Transportation

94
Q

In order to permanently identify a heifer vaccinated with RB1, where is the official tattoo
applied?
a. Right ear
b. Left ear
c. Inner lip
d. Tattoo is not required if animal is given an official ear tag

A

a. Right ear

95
Q

Recommendation for the disposition of animal by-products at U.S. Ports of Entry is the
responsibility of:
a. U.S. Customs Service
b. USDA Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service -Veterinary Services
c. USDA Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service - Plant Protection and
Quarantine
d. Foreign Agriculture Service
e. State Department of Agriculture of the state in which the port of entry is located

A

b. USDA Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service -Veterinary Services

96
Q

BSL-4 labs are designed and operated for work with:

a. Agents that cause high individual risk for life-threatening disease
b. Agents that are normally found in the United States but are unknown pathogens
c. Agents that are only transmissible by the aerosol route
d. Well-characterized agents which do not cause disease in healthy humans

A

a. Agents that cause high individual risk for life-threatening disease

97
Q

Parallel testing, as opposed to serial testing, is more likely to be used when which one or
more of the following are true:
a. Optimum specificity of the testing scheme is of utmost importance, even if it comes at the cost
of decreased sensitivity.
b. You want the fewest false negatives possible, even if that means you have more false
positives.
c. The consequences of not identifying a diseased animal would be catastrophic.
d. You want the fewest false positives possible, even if that means you have more false
negatives.
e. You are more concerned about unnecessarily removing a disease-free (but test positive)
animal than allowing a truly diseased animal to evade detection.

A

b. You want the fewest false negatives possible, even if that means you have more false
positives.
c. The consequences of not identifying a diseased animal would be catastrophic.

98
Q 
Which one or more of the following are currently (January 2022) considered by the CDC to be
high-risk countries for importing dog rabies into the United States?
a. Mexico
b. Dominican Republic
c. China
d. Afghanistan
e. Russia
f. Uganda
A

b. Dominican Republic
c. China
d. Afghanistan
e. Russia
f. Uganda

99
Q

The causative agent for which one or more of the following diseases is a flavivirus?

a. Yellow Fever
b. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
c. Dengue Fever
d. Omsk hemorrhagic fever
e. Marburg Hemorrhagic Fever

A

a. Yellow Fever
c. Dengue Fever
d. Omsk hemorrhagic fever

100
Q
  1. What product was/is implicated in the 2021 multistate outbreak of melioidosis?
    a. Soft cheeses
    b. Tattoo ink
    c. Hand Sanitizer
    d. Aromatherapy room spray
    e. Packaged salad greens
A

d. Aromatherapy room spray

101
Q 
Which one or more of the following countries is/are not considered endemic for African
Swine Fever (ASF) but have had one or more ASF detections in 2021-present?
a. Italy (besides Sardinia)
b. United Kingdom
c. Haiti
d. Vietnam
e. Germany
f. Jamaica
A

a. Italy (besides Sardinia)
c. Haiti
d. Vietnam
e. Germany

102
Q

Multiple animal species are susceptible to Foot-and-mouth disease virus (FMDV). However,
individual species susceptibility and clinical signs are likely to differ in an outbreak. Match the
following animals to the role they would play in a widespread outbreak.
a. Cow
b. Horse
c. Sheep
d. Pig

i. Not susceptible
ii. Amplifier host
iii. Indicator host
iv. Maintenance host

A

a. Cow iii. Indicator host
b. Horse i. Not susceptible
c. Sheep iv. Maintenance host
d. Pig ii. Amplifier host

103
Q 
12. As of January 2022, the Asian Longhorned Tick has been found in which one or more of the
following U.S. states:
a. Iowa
b. New Jersey
c. Arkansas
d. Georgia
A

b. New Jersey
c. Arkansas
d. Georgia

104
Q

The FDA’s Center for Veterinary Medicine (CVM) does not regulate which one or more of the
following products:
a. Pet food
b. Bone screws designed for veterinary use
c. Veterinary Vaccines
d. Medicated feed

A

c. Veterinary Vaccines

105
Q

Which of the following raw food items has the highest safe minimum cooking temperature?

a. Ground poultry
b. Ground beef
c. Pork chop
d. Pot roast (beef)
e. Fish filet

A

a. Ground poultry

106
Q 
Chagas Disease is considered to be endemic in parts of which one or more of the following
countries:
a. Brazil
b. Sudan
c. Malaysia
d. Mexico
A

a. Brazil

d. Mexico

107
Q 
Which of the following is the main vector for the organism that causes Lyme Disease in the
United States?
a. Rhipicephalus sanguineus
b. Aedes aegypti
c. Ixodes scapularis
d. Rhipicephalus microplus
e. Culex pipiens
f. Amblyomma maculatum
A

c. Ixodes scapularis

108
Q

The following Influenza A subtypes were each isolated (separately, from different
individuals) from asymptomatic wild birds during routine surveillance. Which one or more of
these subtypes are you concerned could mutate into a highly pathogenic avian influenza virus
(HPAI) strain that wipes out poultry flocks in the area?
a. H1N1
b. H3N2
c. H5N1
d. H7N3
e. H9N2

A

c. H5N1

d. H7N3

109
Q

Sparky, a 5 year old dog that is up-to-date on rabies vaccination, was bitten by a skunk that
wandered into his yard this afternoon. Unfortunately, the skunk scurried away before the owner
could shoot it to submit for testing. In addition to receiving wound care and a booster rabies
vaccination the NASPHV “Compendium of Animal Rabies Prevention and Control, 2016”
advises that Sparky remain under observation and the owner’s control for at least how long?
a. 10 days
b. 45 days
c. 4 months
d. 8 months

A

b. 45 days

110
Q 
Exposure to rabid animals of which species is responsible for the vast majority (99%) of
human rabies deaths worldwide?
a. Bats
b. Skunks
c. Mongoose
d. Dog
A

d. Dog

111
Q

Which one or more of the following are not considered to be among the Environmental
Protection Agency’s (EPA) six criteria air pollutants?
a. Lead
b. Atmospheric ozone
c. Sulfur Dioxide
d. Carbon monoxide
e. Benzene

A

b. Atmospheric ozone (note: Atmospheric ozone = good so we don’t fry, Ground level ozone =
bad, one of the six criteria air pollutants)
e. Benzene

112
Q

Over recent years, USDA APHIS has proposed the phase out of NUES metal ear tags, such as the “bangs tag”, as a form of official identification, specifically as official ID for sexually intact adult cattle and bison sold or moved interstate. As the supply and use of official metal tags is phased out, they would be replaced by radio frequency identification (RFID) tags until eventually only RFID tags would be recognized for USDA use. Not all livestock associations and individual producers have been supportive of an RFID technology requirement. Briefly describe two pros and two cons associated with requiring the use of RFID official ID in U.S. cattle.

A

Pros:

  • can be read from a distance
  • enhanced digital traceability

Cons:

  • cost
  • inability of producers to read tags without equipment
113
Q

Foot-and-Mouth Disease (FMD) is one of the most feared foreign animal diseases for introduction in the United States. FMD vaccines are available and used in livestock in other countries to prevent major outbreaks and clinical disease, and a 4-H student at the local middle school job fair asks you why we don’t vaccinate livestock against FMD in this country. Briefly (paragraph max) explain to her, using education level appropriate language, two reasons why she can’t go down to her local feed supply store and pick up an FMD vaccine for her show steer.

A

FMD vaccines do not provide protection for all forms of the virus so if we gave one vaccine to a steer, it wouldn’t protect it from other versions it might be exposed to. FMD is a very difficult disease to vaccinate for because there are so many different types of the virus that can exist.

The seven major types of FMD are not cross-protective so there would need to be at least seven types of vaccines available. Because there is additional variation in FMD viruses circulating in nature, it is difficult to stock a vaccine at a local feed store. The shelf-life for the emergency FMD vaccines is only 1-2 years and because there are strict regulations related to handling the live virus, these potent emergency vaccines are not manufactured or stockpiled in the US.

114
Q

The NAFMDVB and NAVVCB stockpiles Foot-and-Mouth Disease vaccine antigen concentrate (VAC), which must be formulated by the manufacturer before it is ready to be administered to livestock. Briefly explain two reasons why the vaccine bank stockpiles this “vaccine precursor” and not ready-to-use FMD vaccine.

A

The NAFMDVB and NAVVCB are not able to stockpile the vaccine due to the 1-2 year shelf-life of the vaccine and restrictions around handling the live virus that prevent manufacturing in the US.

A vaccine antigen concentrate (VAC) is stockpiled due to the antigenic diversity of the FMD virus. There are 7 serotypes and 60 subtypes of the virus so storing a precursor is much more cost-effective than storing a ready-to-use vaccine. Another advantage of keeping VAC stockpiled is that they can be stored for much longer than a finished vaccine. This means the stockpile does not need to be replenished or replaced as often compared to a ready-to-use vaccine.

115
Q

Antimicrobial resistance (AMR) is one of the biggest threats to global health and food security of our time. Briefly describe two factors that contribute to the development of AMR and two actions that veterinary professionals and/or food animal producers can take in their own practices to help combat AMR.

A

AMR develops due to a number of factors. One of these is the over-prescription use of antibiotics which may occur if a clinician is trying to treat a symptom without identifying the underlying cause. Another factor that can contribute to the development of AMR are patients discontinuing an antibiotic before the prescribed course has ended. Two actions that can be taken to help counter AMR are to perform diagnostics to ensure that antibiotics are appropriate as opposed to other therapeutics like antifungals or antiparasitics. In the event that a bacterial infection is confirmed on a diagnostic test, selecting for the most likely pathogen or performing a culture and sensitivity test can also help decrease the chance of developing antimicrobial resistance.

The AMR challenge is due to the evolution and spread of antibiotic resistance. Microbial pathogens continue to evolve to evade antibiotics. Associated genes can be transferred across human populations, animals, and the environment. Veterinary professionals can help combat AMR through judicious use of antimicrobials and implementation of mitigation options other than antimicrobials to prevent common diseases. FDA’s judicious use policy includes limiting use in food-animals to when antimicrobials are necessary for animal health and using antimicrobials that include veterinary oversight or consultation. According to AVMA, holistic disease prevention strategies beyond antimicrobials include animal husbandry and hygiene, biosecurity and infection control, nutrition, and vaccination.

116
Q

Mrs. Jones recently inherited Larry, her deceased grandmother’s African Grey parrot. She is committed to keeping and taking great care of this new family member, despite the fact that Larry has already taught the toddler of the house a whole new vocabulary of four-lettered words, but she recently read on the Internet that Larry could “give the family Chlamydia” and wants to know how she can prevent this from happening. In one paragraph or less, describe the basics of Chlamydia psittaci infection in birds and humans and steps the Jones family can take to minimize their risk of acquiring this disease.

A

Parrot fever or psittacosis is a human bacterial infection that results from exposure to infected birds. Healthy psittacines (incl. parrots) can be infected and sick birds have non-specific signs (poor appetite, inflamed eyes, difficulty breathing, diarrhea). There are several actions that pet owners can take to minimize the risk of infection: (1) minimize stress, (2) prevent spread of the bacteria, and (3) isolate new and sick birds. When they are stressed, parrots can shed the bacteria so try to minimize stress (relocation, unnecessary handling, chilling, overheating). To minimize spread of the bacteria to humans, wear personal protective equipment (e.g., mask, gloves) when handling infected birds or cleaning their cages. Cages and bowls should be cleaned daily and the disinfectant (e.g., diluted bleach) should have at least 5-10 minutes of contact time to be effective. Avoid aerosolization by moistening waste material with disinfectant prior to removal and double bag all waste. Test new birds and isolate them for thirty days, monitoring for illness. Bird caretakers with flu-like symptoms should seek medical care and report the bird contact to their health care provider

117
Q

Should a foreign animal disease be suspected or confirmed in this country, appropriate zones and area designations around the infected premises must rapidly be determined to help prevent disease spread, locate additional positives, maintain continuity of business, and return the entire area to disease-free status. Please define the following terms and list (or diagram) the types of premises (infected, contact, at-risk, monitored, free) and/or disease response and surveillance activities likely to occur within that zone/area

a. Infected zone
b. Buffer zone
c. Control area
d. Surveillance zone
e. Free area

A

Infected zone: Zone that immediately surrounds infected premises [infected, contact, at-risk, and monitored premises)
Buffer zone: Zone that immediately surrounds the infected zone or a contact premise [contact, suspect, at-risk and monitored premises)
Control area: Infected zone and buffer zone
Surveillance zone: zone outside and along the border of a control area. Part of the free zone [suspect and free premises]
Free area: area not included in a control area. Includes surveillance zones. [free premises]

Infected Premises: Premises where presumptive or confirmed positive cases exist based on lab results, compatible clinical signs, case definition.

Contact Premises: Premises with susceptible animals that may have been exposed to directly or indirectly to animals, animal products, fomites, or people from infected premises

At-risk premises: Premises with susceptible animals but none have clinical signs; eligible to become monitored premises; may request permit to move animals or products within the control area

Monitored premises: Meet a set of defined criteria to objectively demonstrate these are not infected, contact, or suspect premises.

Free premises: Premises outside control area and not a contact or suspect premises.

118
Q

[Spell out the answers, do not use acronyms]: (a) The federal agency that coordinates administration of disaster relief resources and assistance to states is the _________. (b) The Act that authorizes the delivery of federal technical, logistical and other assistance to states and localities during declared major disasters or emergencies is the _____________. (c) The position authorized to declare a “major disaster” or “emergency” in response to an incident or threatened incident that overwhelms the response capability of state or local governments is the_________. (d) The federal position authorized to declare a Public Health Emergency is the ___________.

A

A) Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)

B) Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act

C) President of the United States

D )Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services

119
Q

Several factors determine the public health effects of a disaster such as a hurricane. Defining the relationship between a disaster and its specific health effects requires broad scientific investigation. Using available and reliable evidence and information, we can classify a disaster’s health effects as either direct or indirect. List: (a) two examples of different types of direct health effects of a hurricane disaster, and (b) two examples of different types of indirect health effects that can be attributed to a hurricane disaster. Please include broad categories of health effects, rather than specific diseases.

A

a) Drowning, trauma from debris

b) inadequate access to health care, PTSD and other mental health issues

120
Q

You are tasked with preparing a power outage fact sheet for your community. Based on United States Department of Agriculture’s food safety guidance, your information should address when to throw out refrigerated and frozen food. Include time/temperature guidance for refrigerated food items and address under what circumstances thawed food may be refrozen.

A

Food is kept safe for up to 4 hours with minimum door opening in the refrigerator

After 4 hours:
Any meat products including thawing meat or poultry should be thrown out

Hard cheese, processed cheese, butter may be kept and re cooled after 4 hours

All eggs and egg products should be thrown out

Fresh cut or cooked fruit or vegetables should be thrown out

Frozen items may be refrozen if they still contain some ice crystals (except for ice cream which should be thrown out). If they are thawed they should be thrown out.

121
Q

The __________ is federal agency responsible for: “enforcing the controlled substances laws and regulations of the United States and bringing to the criminal and civil justice system of the United States, or any other competent jurisdiction, those organizations and principal members of organizations, involved in the growing, manufacture, or distribution of controlled substances appearing in or destined for illicit traffic in the United States; and recommending and supporting non-enforcement programs aimed at reducing the availability of illicit controlled substances on the domestic and international markets. depending upon the drug’s acceptable medical use and the drug’s abuse or dependency potential.”

A

The Drug Enforcement Agency

122
Q

What is the definition of a Schedule 1 Drug?

A

drugs with a high abuse risk. These drugs have NO safe, accepted medical use in the United States

123
Q

Hemp can be used in animal food/feed in the US today. [True or False]

A

The 2018 Farm Bill legalized growing hemp in the U.S. by producers who are licensed by the U.S. Department of Agriculture or state or tribal agencies, but that action did not authorize feeding it to animals.

Information from state agencies indicates some states already allow hemp products in certain animal foods, and others have started the process of allowing uses in anticipation of federal approval.

So…true?

124
Q

Information from state agencies indicates some states already allow hemp products in certain animal foods, and others have started the process of allowing uses in anticipation of federal approval.

A

The 2018 Farm Bill legalized growing hemp in the U.S. by producers who are licensed by the U.S. Department of Agriculture or state or tribal agencies, but that action did not authorize feeding it to animals.

Information from state agencies indicates some states already allow hemp products in certain animal foods, and others have started the process of allowing uses in anticipation of federal approval.

It’s also unclear how much cannabinoids transfer into meat, milk, and eggs of food-producing animals. And any animal feed containing hemp or human food produced by animals fed hemp is subject to federal regulations if it crosses state lines, so those products could be considered adulterated.

125
Q

The Office International des Epizooties (OIE), an intergovernmental organization that coordinates, supports, and promotes animal disease control worldwide, stopped using the historical acronym “OIE” in May 2022. What is its new English-language acronym, and what new name does it stand for?

A

WOAH- World Organization for Animal Health

126
Q

In 2013, the Western Hemisphere experienced its first monkeypox detection when 47 confirmed or probable cases were reported in people from six U.S. states. Each of the affected persons became ill after contact with which type of pet? The virus was brought into the country by asymptomatic rodents from which continent?
a. Monkeys, Africa
b. Prairie dogs, Africa
c. Mice, Asia
d. Porcupines, South America
e. Rats, Australia

A

b. Prairie dogs, Africa

127
Q

As of January 1st, 2023 which U.S. States have not had confirmed detections of Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza (HPAI) in commercial and/or backyard domestic bird flocks?
a. Florida
b. Washington
c. Arizona
d. Iowa
e. Hawaii

A

e. Hawaii

128
Q

Which disease(s) have never been reported in the United States of America?
a. African Swine Fever
b. Classical Swine Fever
c. New World Screwworm
d. Heartwater
e. Foot and Mouth Disease

A

a. African Swine Fever
d. Heartwater

129
Q

Which one or more of the following drugs may be used extralabel, in some circumstances, in a food-producing animal?
A. Clenbuterol
B. Phenylbutazone
C. Vancomycin
D. Diethylstilbestrol
E. Danofloxacin

A

B. Phenylbutazone

130
Q

Which of the following products are regulated by the FDA? For the choices not regulated by the FDA, which agency regulates them?
a. Smart TVs
b. Pet food
c. Alcohol (ATF)
d. Human vaccines
e. Veterinary vaccines (USDA APHIS)
f. Heroin (DEA)
g. Advertisement for regular-strength Tylenol (FTC)
h. Baby toys (CPSC)
i. E-cigarettes
j. Drinking water (EPA)

A

a. Smart TVs
b. Pet food
d. Human vaccines
i. E-cigarettes

c. Alcohol (ATF)
e. Veterinary vaccines (USDA APHIS)
f. Heroin (DEA)
g. Advertisement for regular-strength Tylenol (FTC)
h. Baby toys (CPSC)
j. Drinking water (EPA)

131
Q

Which of the following is not a branch of the USDA?
a. Foreign Agricultural Service
b. Food and Nutrition Service
c. National Institute of Food and Agriculture
d. Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition

A

d. Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition

132
Q

Of those listed, which control method is most preferred for protecting employees from workplace hazards?
a. Exposure and worker health monitoring
b. Administrative controls
c. Engineering controls
d. Personal protective equipment

A

c. Engineering controls

133
Q

In January 2023 the USDA approved the first ever vaccine for honeybees. What disease is this vaccine designed to prevent?
a. European foulbrood
b. Varroatosis
c. American foulbrood
d. Chalkbrood
e. Nosemosis

A

c. American foulbrood

134
Q

If a vaccine is “DIVA” compatible, what does that mean? (one sentence)

A

“DIVA” stands for differentiating infected from vaccinated animals. A DIVA compatible vaccine induces an immune response which is different from that induced by natural infection.

135
Q

Approximately how often is the Agriculture Improvement Act (“Farm Bill”) updated?
a. Yearly
b. Every other year
c. Every five years
d. Every 10 years

A

c. Every five years

136
Q

The National Poultry Improvement Plan was originally implemented to eliminate which organism (down to the biovar) as a source of disease in poultry?
a. Salmonella typhoid
b. Salmonella pullorum
c. Salmonella enteritidis
d. Salmonella typhimurium

A

b. Salmonella pullorum

137
Q

Which one or more of the following food animals is not protected under the Humane Methods of Slaughter Act?
a. Pig
b. Cow
c. Turkey
d. Sheep
e. Horse
f. Salmon

A

c. Turkey
f. Salmon

138
Q

Which one or more of the following is not considered a foreign animal disease?
a. Bluetongue
b. Venezuelan equine encephalomyelitis
c. Akabane
d. Peste des petits ruminants
e. Bovine babesiosis
f. Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome

A

a. Bluetongue
f. Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome

139
Q

The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 created what two U.S. Fed agencies? Which parent department does each fall under?

A

The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 created the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) and the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH).

OSHA falls under the U.S. Department of Labor, and NIOSH falls under the U.S. Department of Health & Human Services

140
Q

Which one or more of the following is an approved primary TB test for bovine tuberculosis in captive cervids?
a. Comparative cervical test (CCT)
b. Single cervical test (SCT)
c. Coggins test
d. Caudal fold test (CFT)

A

b. Single cervical test (SCT)

141
Q

The National Poultry Improvement Plan (NPIP) does not include testing and monitoring for which one or more of the following organisms?
a. Salmonella Gallinarum
b. Avian Influenza
c. Mycoplasma gallisepticum
d. Salmonella Typhi
e. Mycoplasma synoviae

A

d. Salmonella Typhi

142
Q

The FDA’s Center for Veterinary Medicine (CVM) does not regulate which one or more of the following products:
a. Pet food
b. Bone screws designed for veterinary use
c. Veterinary vaccines
d. Medicated feed

A

c. Veterinary vaccines (APHIS Center for Veterinary Biologics (CVB))

143
Q

Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) circulates in approximately what percentage of the global livestock population?
a. 5%
b. 77%
c. 33%
d. 90%
e. 15%

A

b. 77%

144
Q

Mycobacterium bovis is the etiologic agent in approximately what percentage of human tuberculosis cases in the United States today?
a. M. bovis doesn’t cause tuberculosis in people
b. <2%
c. 10%
d. 25%
e. >50%

A

b. <2%

145
Q

Which of these foods should be cooked to the highest temperature (at minimum) before consuming?
a. Ground turkey
b. Ground beef
c. Pork chop
d. Pot roast (beef)
e. Fish filet

A

a. Ground turkey

146
Q

The Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) is administered and regulated by which agency?
a. U.S. Environmental Protection Agency
b. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
c. Food and Drug Administration
d. U.S. Department of Agriculture

A

a. U.S. Environmental Protection Agency

147
Q

Which one or more of the following organisms would you reasonably study and work with in a BSL-3 laboratory?
a. SARS CoV-2
b. Coxiella burnetii
c. Yersinia pestis
d. Marburg virus
e. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever
f. West Nile virus

A

a. SARS CoV-2
b. Coxiella burnetii
c. Yersinia pestis
f. West Nile virus

148
Q

Who is considered the father of modern epidemiology?
a. Anthony Fauci
b. Robert Koch
c. John Snow
d. Edward Jenner
e. Louis Pasteur

A

c. John Snow

149
Q

Amblyomma americanum is a vector for which one or more pathogens:
a. Francisella tularensis
b. Southern tick-associated rash illness (STARI)
c. Heartland virus
d. Borrelia burgdorferi
e. Ehrlichia chaffeensis
f. Anaplasma phagocytophilum

A

a. Francisella tularensis
b. Southern tick-associated rash illness (STARI)
c. Heartland virus
e. Ehrlichia chaffeensis

Note: I don’t think the exam would ask you to pick out each and every pathogen a specific tick species can be a vector for. However, it would probably be a good idea to know that (d) is Lyme Disease and is specifically an Ixodes tick thing. Ambloymma Americanum (Lone Star Tick) is also “famous” for triggering Alpha-Gal syndrome/red meat allergy.

150
Q

Among all weather-related hazards worldwide and in the USA, which type is responsible for the greatest number of annual human deaths?
a. Wildfire
b. Flooding
c. Avalanche
d. Lightening
e. Extreme heat
f. Extreme cold

A

e. Extreme heat

151
Q

What is the most common type of natural disaster in the United States:
a. Flood
b. Hurricane
c. Tornado
d. Nuclear explosion
e. Earthquake

A

a. Flood

152
Q

What is the most common reason why a food item is recalled in the United States?
a. It is contaminated with a foodborne pathogen
b. It contains an undeclared allergen
c. It is contaminated with a foreign object (metal scrapings, pieces of glass, etc.)
d. It’s label lists an incorrect sell-by date

A

b. It contains an undeclared allergen

Note: I was taught undeclared allergen was Reason #1, but some of the recent references seem to suggest foodborne pathogen contamination may have overtaken the top spot. Either way, know that just because a food is recalled doesn’t necessarily mean something is wrong with the food itself (the label may just be incorrect).

153
Q

. Which of the following is the most common agent in laboratory-acquired infections?
a. Salmonella
b. Brucella
c. Neisseria
d. Coxiella

A

b. Brucella

154
Q

True or false: Pet food products must receive pre-market approval by the FDA before being placed on the store shelf.

A

False

155
Q

. Which disease is a person most likely to develop after consuming raw or undercooked bear meat?
a. Tularemia
b. Trichinosis
c. Toxoplasmosis
d. Toxocariasis
e. Taeniasis

A

b. Trichinosis

156
Q

Which of the following tick species follows a one-host lifecycle?
a. Dermacentor andersoni
b. Haemaphysalis longicornis
c. Amblyomma maculatum
d. Rhipicephalus annulatus
e. Ixodes scapularis

A

d. Rhipicephalus annulatus

157
Q

Match the disease with the causative agent:
a. African Swine Fever
b. Peste des petits ruminants
c. Classical Swine Fever
d. Foot and Mouth Disease
e. Heartwater

i. Morbillivirus
ii. Pestivirus
iii. Asfavirus
iv. Ehrlichia ruminantium
v. Picornavirus

A

a. African Swine Fever iii. Asfavirus

b. Peste des petits ruminants i. Morbillivirus (so are human measles, canine distemper, and Rinderpest- in case that helps anyone remember clinical signs/transmission/etc.)

c. Classical Swine Fever ii. Pestivirus

d. Foot and Mouth Disease v. Picornavirus

e. Heartwater iv. Ehrlichia ruminatium

158
Q

Which one or more of the following is not an APHIS operational program unit?
a. Wildlife Services
b. International Services
c. Agricultural Marketing Service
d. Plant Protection and Quarantine
e. Agricultural Research Service
f. Biotechnology Regulatory Services

A

c. Agricultural Marketing Service
e. Agricultural Research Service

159
Q

The best disaster preparedness starts at what level?
a. Personal
b. Local
c. State
d. Federal

A

a. Personal

160
Q

Which of the following microorganisms is most likely to be resistant to commonly used disinfectants?
a. Nonenveloped viruses
b. Mycoplasmas
c. Coccidia
d. Enveloped viruses
e. Bacterial spores

A

e. Bacterial spores

161
Q

Please select the statements that are NOT good advice when counseling a client on how to protect herself from zoonotic disease associated with nontraditional pets?

a. Make sure you obtain your pet turtle when it is still young and under 4” long. That way it is less likely to be a carrier of Salmonella.
b. Rat Bite Fever is only carried by rats that appear ill, so don’t worry about contracting this disease from your healthy rat.
c. Check state, local, and property laws and ordinances before purchasing or adopting a nontraditional pet. Some animals are illegal to own in certain areas, or there might be restrictions on certain species.
d. Purchase or adopt captive-bred animals because they are more accustomed to people and living in captivity than animals that were taken out of the wild.
e. It is safer to feed pet reptiles live feeder rodents than fresh or frozen carcasses.
f. Prevent direct contact between your nontraditional pet and very young children, very old persons, immunocompromised persons, and pregnant persons.

A

a. Make sure you obtain your pet turtle when it is still young and under 4” long. That way it is less likely to be a carrier of Salmonella.

b. Rat Bite Fever is only carried by rats that appear ill, so don’t worry about contracting this disease from your healthy rat.

e. It is safer to feed pet reptiles live feeder rodents than fresh or frozen carcasses.

162
Q

The National Institutes of Health (NIH) falls under the same U.S. Department as which one or more other governmental agencies?
a. USDA
b. FDA
c. CDC
d. OSHA
e. NOAH

A

b. FDA
c. CDC

163
Q

From a public health perspective, which of the following definitions is correct:
a. Isolation is the separation of potentially exposed people from others and quarantine is the separation of sick people from others.
b. Isolation is the separation of sick people from others and quarantine is the separation of potentially exposed people from others.
c. Isolation and quarantine are terms that can be used interchangeably; both mean the separation of sick people from others.
d. Isolation and quarantine are terms that can be used interchangeably; both mean the separation of potentially exposed people from others.

A

b. Isolation is the separation of sick people from others and quarantine is the separation of potentially exposed people from others.

164
Q

Which of the following statements about the mpox virus and animals is true?
a. Animals infected with the mpox virus are not capable of transmitting the virus to other susceptible people and animals.
b. When handling infected animals, people are protected from infection when wearing gloves and a disposable gown.
c. The preferred sample for testing animals for active mpox infection is serum.
d. The mpox virus can infect small rodents, such as squirrels, prairie dogs, and giant-pouched rats.
e. Bedding, food dishes, and other materials that have been in contact with an infected animal are considered non-infectious.

A

d. The mpox virus can infect small rodents, such as squirrels, prairie dogs, and giant-pouched rats.

165
Q

SARS-CoV-2:
a. Can infect wildlife species, but not domestic dogs and cats.
b. Vaccination is recommended for pets in close contact with people.
c. Is commonly spread from companion animals to people after close contact.
d. Does not have a wildlife reservoir that has been identified in the U.S.
e. Can spread from people to animals after close contact.

A

e. Can spread from people to animals after close contact.

166
Q

A dog bites a person. From a rabies perspective, your advice is to:
a. Recommend that the dog be observed for 10 days after the bite
b. Recommend that the dog be vaccinated, confined, and observed for 45 days after the bite
c. Recommend euthanasia
d. Confirm the dog’s rabies vaccination history before making a recommendation
e. No action is needed as rabies in dogs occurs rarely in the U.S.

A

a. Recommend that the dog be observed for 10 days after the bite

167
Q

A person had direct contact with a bat that is unavailable for rabies testing. This person has not previously been vaccinated for rabies and is apparently immunocompetent. What are your recommendations for rabies post-exposure prophylaxis?
a. No HRIG; rabies vaccinations on days 0 and 3
b. HRIG on day 0; rabies vaccinations on days 0 and 3
c. No HRIG; rabies vaccinations on days 0, 3, 7, and 14
d. HRIG on day 0; rabies vaccinations on days 0, 3, 7, and 14
e. HRIG on day 0; rabies vaccinations on days 0, 3, 7, 14, and 28

A

d. HRIG on day 0; rabies vaccinations on days 0, 3, 7, and 14

168
Q

The Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices:
a. Regulates the development and use of human vaccines that can be used in the U.S.
b. Sets U.S. adult and childhood immunization schedules
c. Develops recommendations for the use of vaccines in the U.S. general population
d. Conducts biomedical research to determine the safety and efficacy of developmental vaccine products
e. Advocates against requiring childhood vaccinations due to the risk of autism development

A

c. Develops recommendations for the use of vaccines in the U.S. general population

169
Q

Which of the following definitions below is correct?
a. Vaccine efficacy is how well a vaccine prevents illness in a clinical trial and vaccine effectiveness is how well a vaccine prevents illness with real-world use.
b. Vaccine efficacy is how well a vaccine prevents illness with real-world use and vaccine effectiveness is how well a vaccine prevents illness in a clinical trial.
c. Vaccine efficacy and vaccine effectiveness are interchangeable terms; both speak to how well a vaccine prevents illness in a clinical trial.
d. Vaccine efficacy and vaccine effectiveness are interchangeable terms; both speak to how well a vaccine prevents illness with real world use.

A

a. Vaccine efficacy is how well a vaccine prevents illness in a clinical trial and vaccine effectiveness is how well a vaccine prevents illness with real-world use.

170
Q

People with known exposures to birds infected with or environments contaminated by HPAI have their health monitored for ____ days after their last exposure.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 14
d. 21
e. 30

A

b. 10

171
Q

Due to chronic wasting disease’s zoonotic potential, which of the following is a public health recommendation when consuming hunter-harvested meat?
a. Deer and elk harvested from counties where CWD has not been detected are considered safe for human consumption.
b. Hunter-harvested meat should not be consumed by those less than 5 years of age, those over 65 years of age, and those who are immunosuppressed.
c. Deer and elk looking sick, acting strange, or found dead should not be consumed.
d. Hunter-harvested meat is a valuable protein source which should be widely consumed as CWD poses no zoonotic potential.
e. Deer and elk that test negative for CWD are considered safe for human consumption.

A

c. Deer and elk looking sick, acting strange, or found dead should not be consumed.

172
Q

You are talking with a family who is interested in getting a bearded dragon as a pet. For which groups of people are bearded dragons (or other reptiles) not recommended as pets? (select all that apply)
a. Children under 5 years of age
b. Adults 65 years and older
c. Extreme athletes
d. Immunocompromised persons
e. People consuming anti-inflammatory diets

A

a. Children under 5 years of age

b. Adults 65 years and older

d. Immunocompromised persons

173
Q

In people, avian influenza viruses:
a. Do not cause significant morbidity and mortality.
b. Can infect those who have had unprotected contact with infected birds or contaminated surfaces.
c. Cannot be distinguished from human seasonal influenza viruses with available laboratory tests.
d. Spread easily from person to person.
e. Require chemoprophylaxis after known exposures to prevent infection.

A

b. Can infect those who have had unprotected contact with infected birds or contaminated surfaces.

174
Q

Which of the following constitute extralabel use of an approved drug (Drug A)?
a. Drug A is given SQ to Daisy the dairy goat and is labeled for use in bovines but there is no mention of its use in caprines.
b. Drug A is used to treat a bacterial urinary tract infection in Fluffy the cat, but the drug label only states that Drug A is to be used in cats to treat skin infections caused by susceptible strains of Pasteurella multocida.
c. The drug label says to administer Drug A IM every 8 hours, but Bob works 12-hour shifts, so he administers a dose-and-a-half worth of Drug A IM every 12 hours instead.
d. The package insert for Drug A says to give a dog of Buster the dog’s weight one capsule every 12 hours for up to seven days, but Buster doesn’t seem 100% back to normal after seven days, so the veterinarian advises the owner to continue giving Drug A every 12 hours for another five days.
e. All of the above constitute extralabel drug use

A

e. All of the above constitute extralabel drug use

175
Q

Which of the following is incorrect?
a. Both an R95 respirator and a P95 respirator are expected to filter at least 95% of airborne particles, but the R95 respirator is expected to be more resistant to oils than the P95 respirator.
b. An N100 respirator is expected to filter at least 99.97% of airborne particles but is not resistant to oils.
c. NIOSH is the U.S. Agency that approves respirators.
d. All choices are correct.

A

a. Both an R95 respirator and a P95 respirator are expected to filter at least 95% of airborne particles, but the R95 respirator is expected to be more resistant to oils than the P95 respirator.

176
Q
  1. Parallel testing, as opposed to serial testing, is more likely to be used in which one or more of the following situations.
    a. Optimum specificity of the testing scheme is of utmost importance, even if it comes at the cost of decreased sensitivity.
    b. You want the fewest false negatives possible, even if that means you have more false positives.
    c. The consequences of not identifying a diseased animal would be catastrophic.
    d. You want the fewest false positives possible, even if that means you have more false negatives.
    e. You are more concerned about unnecessarily removing a disease-free (but test positive) animal than allowing a diseased animal to evade detection.
A

b. You want the fewest false negatives possible, even if that means you have more false positives.
c. The consequences of not identifying a diseased animal would be catastrophic.

177
Q
  1. Which Federal agency issues standards and regulation regarding the transportation of hazardous materials?
    a. Environmental Protection Agency
    b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
    c. Department of Defense
    d. Department of Transportation
A

d. Department of Transportation

178
Q
  1. In order to permanently identify a heifer vaccinated with RB1, where is the official tattoo applied?
    a. Right ear
    b. Left ear
    c. Inner lip
    d. Tattoo is not required if animal is given an official ear tag
A

a. Right ear

179
Q
  1. The FDA’s Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetics Act requires that pet foods meet which one or more of the following standards:
    a. Produced under sanitary conditions
    b. Do not contain harmful substances
    c. Be truthfully labeled
    d. Be safe to eat
A

a. Produced under sanitary conditions
b. Do not contain harmful substances
c. Be truthfully labeled
d. Be safe to eat

180
Q
  1. Which one or more of the following is not implemented and enforced by the Food and Drug Administration?
    a. Food Safety Modernization Act
    b. Egg Products Inspection Act
    c. Humane Methods for Slaughter Act
    d. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
    e. Poultry Products Inspection Act
A

d. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act

181
Q
  1. The OIE (now called WOAH) was formed in response to an outbreak of which disease?
    a. Classical Swine Fever
    b. Foot-and-Mouth Disease
    c. Rift Valley Fever
    d. Rinderpest
    e. Surra
A

d. Rinderpest

182
Q
  1. Which agency is responsible for administration and enforcement of the Country of Origin Labeling (COOL) program?
    a. APHIS
    b. AMS
    c. ARS
    d. FSIS
A

b. AMS

183
Q
  1. Which one or more of the following is NOT a principle of Crisis and Emergency Risk Communication (CERC)?
    a. Be first- The first source of information the public receives is often its preferred source, so it is crucial to communicate information quickly.
    b. Be credible- Honesty and truthfulness should not be compromised during a crisis, even if that requires admitting when you don’t have answers
    c. Discourage action- Giving the public actions to take makes response more complicated and chaotic
    d. Express empathy- Addressing what people are feeling, and the challenges they face, builds trust and rapport.
A

c. Discourage action- Giving the public actions to take makes response more complicated and chaotic

184
Q
  1. Chagas disease, or American trypanosomiasis, is caused by the parasite Trypanosoma cruzi. The CDC estimates that over 300,000 people with T. cruzi infection live in the United States. What is the vector for this disease, and where does the CDC believe the majority of those infected and living in the USA were infected?
    a. Hard tick, Asia
    b. Triatomine bug, Latin America
    c. TseTse fly, Africa
    d. Mosquito, within the USA
    e. Culicoides, Europe
A

b. Triatomine bug, Latin America

ACVPM 2022 (5 decks)

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