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GPhC Exam > Random Questions from Practice Papers > Flashcards

Random Questions from Practice Papers Flashcards

1
Q

What drug class of antidepressants are most likely to cause antimuscarinic side effects?

A

Tricyclic antidepressants e.g. dosulepin, clomipramine

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2
Q

What is Von Willebrand disease?

A

A genetic disease in which clotting factors are reduced, leading to a prolonged INR

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3
Q

Which beta blocker can be used for thyrotoxicosis?

A

Propranolol

It reduces symptoms of hyperthyroidism caused by an increase in beta-adrenergic tone e.g. palpitations, anxiety

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4
Q

Which drug class of antidiabetics can cause acute pancreatitis?

A

GLP-1 receptor agonists (-glutide)

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5
Q

What medicines can be used as first-line therapy for lewy-body dementia?

A

Donepezil

Rivastigmine

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6
Q

Which anticoagulant should be taken with food?

A

Rivaroxaban

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7
Q

What type of CCB should not be given to patients with heart failure with reduced EF? Why?

A

Rate-limiting (e.g. verapamil) and short-acting (e.g. nifedipine)
Can cause reduced cardiac contractibility

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8
Q

What is the mechanism of action of loperamide?

A

Inhibits μ-opioid receptors in the gut, reducing peristalsis

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9
Q

What commonly used drug can be used to reduce stoma output?

A

Omeprazole (reduces stomach acid secretion)

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10
Q

What type of insulin is fast-acting?

A

Soluble insulin (15-30 min onset)

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11
Q

What type of insulin should be reserved for medical emergencies (e.g. DKA)?

A

IV soluble insulin

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12
Q

What are examples of rapid-acting insulin?

A

Aspart
Glulisine
Lispro

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13
Q

How should metformin be dosed initially?

A

Titrated up (increase freq. every week) to minimise GI side effects

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14
Q

What can be used to treat hypos?

A

15-20 g of a fast-acting carbohydrate, e.g.:
five glucose or dextrose tablets
five jelly babies
a small glass of a sugary (non-diet) drink
a small carton of pure fruit juice
two tubes of a glucose gel
Followed by a fast-acting carbohydrate

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15
Q

How long should fentanyl patches be worn for?

A

72 hours

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16
Q

What are some red flag symptoms of indigestion?

A 
Unintentional weight loss
Taking treatment for more than 4 weeks
Over 55
Liver disease
Previous gastric surgery
Previous gastric ulcer(s)
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17
Q

How many hours post-UPSI can Levonelle One Step be taken?

A

72 hours

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18
Q

How many hours post-UPSI can EllaOne be taken?

A

120 hours (5 days)

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19
Q

How long does a mother have to wait before breastfeeding after taking EllaOne?

A

7 days

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20
Q

What can be used OTC to treat menorrhagia? What is the age range for supply?

A

Tranexamic acid; 18-45 years old

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21
Q

What antimalarial is contraindicated in patients with a history of depression? Why?

A

Mefloquine; it is associated with neuropsychiatric adverse reactions

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22
Q

What are some symptoms of scarlet fever?

A

Rough, red rash on trunk, which can spread to rest of body
Strawberry tongue
Flu-like symptoms (fever, headache, etc)

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23
Q

What is first-line antibiotic therapy for scarlet fever?

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin QDS for 10 days

Azithromycin OD for 5 days if pen allergic

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24
Q

What are symptoms of slapped cheek syndrome?

A

Red rash on one/both cheeks, followed by rash on chest/arms/legs a few days later
Flu-like symptoms

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25
Q

What are some symptoms of shingles?

A

Itchy, painful rash on ONE side of body

Flu-like symptoms

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26
Q

What medicines can omeprazole interact with?

A

Clopidogrel - omeprazole can decrease its efficacy
Citalopram - omeprazole can increase its exposure
Methotrexate - omeprazole can decrease its clearance

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27
Q

What does of atorvastatin is first-line for secondary prevention of CVD?

A

80 mg OD (high-intensity)

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28
Q

Which DDP-4 inhibitor can be given to patients with renal impairment?

A

Linagliptin

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29
Q

Which DDP-4 inhibitors can be given to patients with hepatic impairment?

A

Linagliptin and sitagliptin

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30
Q

When can sodium valproate be used in pregnancy?

A

If it’s a last resort for treatment of epilepsy (not suitable if indicated for bipolar)

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31
Q

What colour can rifampicin turn urine?

A

Reddish-brown

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32
Q

What colour can nitrofurantoin turn urine?

A

Dark yellow/brown

33
Q

What are the monitoring requirements for lithium?

A

BMI
Renal function
U&Es
Thyroid function

All should be done every 6 months

34
Q

What should happen if a patient on azathioprine experiences unexplained bruising?

A

They should immediately report it to their GP, as it is a sign of bone marrow suppression

35
Q

What patients are at higher risk of conceiving a child with neural defects, and will therefore need a higher dose of folic acid during their first trimester?

A 
Patients with:
Diabetes
Sickle-cell anaemia
Epilepsy
A history of conceiving a child with neural defects
36
Q

What doses of folic acid are typically given to women in their first trimester?

A

5 mg OD if high-risk of conceiveing a child with neural defects (POM)
otherwise, 400 mcg OD (OTC)

37
Q

What are the four principle categories of child abuse?

A

Emotional abuse
Physical abuse
Sexual abuse
Neglect

38
Q

The risk of ________ is decreased in patients taking HRT.

A

osteoporosis

39
Q

What is the first-line treatment option for leg ulcer infections?

A

Flucloxacillin QDS for 7 days
Doxycycline OD or clarithromycin BD for 7 days if pen allergic
Erythromycin QDS if pregnant

40
Q

What is the HAS-BLED score used for? What criteria is included?

A

To estimate the risk of bleeding in patients with AF being offered anticoagulation

Criteria:
HTN, renal and liver disease, Hx of stroke, Hx of/predisposition to major bleed, Hx of high INR, age (>65), medication that can cause bleeding, alcohol

41
Q

What is the Wells score used for?

A

To determine the probability of a patient getting a DVT

42
Q

Why should long-acting sulfonylureas be avoided in elderly patients?

A

Higher risk of prolonged hypoglycaemia

43
Q

What are some symptoms of Stevens-Johnson syndrome?

A

Flu-like symptoms

Followed by a purple/red rash

44
Q

What symptoms are associated with neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Altered mental state
HYPERthermia (≠ fever)
Muscular rigidity
Tachycardia

45
Q

What is the target INR for patients who have AF, or are being treated for DVT/PE?

A

2.5 (2-3)

46
Q

What medication should be given to patients ASAP after a stroke?

A

Aspirin 300 mg STAT

47
Q

What antihypertensive should be used as first-line therapy for HTN in patients with T2DM?

A

ACEi/ARB, irrespective of age/ethnicity

48
Q

What are some symptoms of cauda equina?

A

Neurological deficit in lower limbs
Bladder/bowel dysfunction
Genital/perianal/perineal sensory loss
Severe lower back pain

49
Q

What are some GI symptoms that might trigger a cancer pathway referral? (over 40)

A

Age >40 with unexplained weight loss or abdominal pain
Age >50 with unexplained rectal bleeding
Aged >60 with iron-deficiency anaemia or changes in bowel habits

50
Q

What are some GI symptoms that might trigger a cancer pathway referral? (under 50)

A 
Rectal bleeding AND one of the following:
Abdominal pain
Change in bowel habit
Weight loss
Iron-deficiency anaemia
51
Q

What is a cohort study?

A

A study where a group of people are identified and observed over a period of time

52
Q

What is a randomised controlled trial?

A

A study where participants are randomly chosen to receive (or not receive) a clinical intervention

53
Q

What is a systematic review?

A

A study looking at several other studies/research about a particular topic

54
Q

What is a double-blind randomised controlled trial?

A

A study where neither the participants nor the researchers know what the participants will receive

55
Q

What is a cross-sectional study?

A

An epidemiological study that describes a population at a single point in time

56
Q

What route should vinca alkaloids be administered?

A

Intravenous only

57
Q

What are some clinical features of bullous impetigo?

A

Itchy, fluid-filled blisters lasting 2-3 days
Usually on flexures, face, trunk or limbs
Flu-like symptoms

58
Q

What are some clinical features of non-bullous impetigo?

A

Red, itchy sores which burst quite quickly

Usually around nose/mouth

59
Q

How is impetigo treated?

A

Localised non-bullous - hydrogen peroxide 1% cream (avoid if infection is around eyes)
Widespread non-bullous - topical OR oral antibiotic
Severe non-bullous/bullous - oral antibiotic

60
Q

Which antibiotics can cause C. difficile infection?

A

Cephalosporins
Clindamycin
Broad-spectrum antibiotics
Quinolones

61
Q

What is the weekly maximum recommended amount of alcohol?

A

14 units

62
Q

What is the weekly minimum recommended amount of exercise?

A 
150 mins (moderate intensity)
or
75 mins (vigorous intensity)
63
Q

What antiemetic should be avoided in patients with Parkinson’s?

A

Metoclopramide - can induce extrapyramidal side-effects

64
Q

What drugs have a high risk of agranulocytosis, and therefore should not be taken concomitantly?

A

Methotrexate

2nd-gen antipsychotics e.g. clozapine

65
Q

What is the minimum age for supply of mometasone 0.05% nasal spray?

A

18 years

66
Q

What foods can increase the risk of gout?

A

Purine-rich food, e.g. red meat, seafood

67
Q

What can trigger/worsen rosacea?

A 
Stress
Exercise
Smoking
Spicy food
Hot food/drinks
68
Q

Who is at high-risk of contracting typhoid?

A

Travellers to endemic areas where frequent/extended exposure to poor sanitation/food hygiene is likely

69
Q

What are some activities that can put a patient at high-risk of contracting hepatitis B?

A

UPSI
Exposure to blood
Exposure to contaminated needles
Contact sports

70
Q

What are some examples of mild topical corticosteroids?

A

Hydrocortisone (all strengths, but not hydrocortisone butyrate)

71
Q

What warning labels are needed on beta-blockers?

A

Warning: Do not stop taking this medicine unless your doctor tells you to.
(Sudden cessation can cause rebound worsening of MI/angina)

72
Q

What dose of adrenaline is given to 0-5 year olds for anaphylactic shock?

A

0.15 mL of 1 in 1000 solution (150 micrograms)

73
Q

What dose of adrenaline is given to 6-11 year olds for anaphylactic shock?

A

0.3 mL of 1 in 1000 solution (300 micrograms)

74
Q

What dose of adrenaline is given to 12+ year olds and adults for anaphylactic shock?

A

0.5 mL of 1 in 1000 solution (500 micrograms)

75
Q

What needs to be monitored in children using inhaled and systemic corticosteroids? How often?

A

Height and weight; annually

76
Q

What needs to be monitored in children using intranasal corticosteroids?

A

Height

77
Q

Who should be considered for gradual withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids?

A

Patients who are unlikely to relapse and have [taken]:
> 40 mg of prednisolone OD for more than 1 week;
repeated doses in the evening;
more than 3 weeks of treatment;
recently received repeated courses;
taken a short course within 1 year of stopping long-term treatment;
other possible causes of adrenal suppression

78
Q

What are three important cautions for all PPIs?

A

Osteoporosis - patients at risk should maintain vit D and calcium intake
Gastric cancer - look out for ‘alarm features’
Elderly - STOPP criteria: high dosage for ≥ 8 weeks if taking for ulcers or oesophagitis

79
Q

What are symptoms of agranulocytosis?

A

Fever/chills
Bruising
Malaise
Sore throat

GPhC Exam (10 decks)

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