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CAE > KA350 Oral Exam > Flashcards

KA350 Oral Exam Flashcards

1
Q

1 SPECIFICATIONS

  1. What is the length of the King Air 350?
A

46’8”

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2
Q

1 SPECIFICATIONS

  1. What is the height of the King Air 350?
A

14’4”

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3
Q

1 SPECIFICATIONS

  1. What is the wingspan of the King Air 350?
A

57’11”

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4
Q

1 SPECIFICATIONS

  1. What is the wingspan of the horizontal stabilizer?
A

18’5”

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5
Q

1 SPECIFICATIONS

  1. What is the wing dihedral?
A

6*

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6
Q

1 WEIGHT LIMITATIONS

  1. What is the maximum ramp weight?
A

15,100 lbs

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7
Q

1 WEIGHT LIMITATIONS

  1. What is the maximum takeoff weight?
A

15,000 lbs

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8
Q

1 WEIGHT LIMITATIONS

  1. What three things can limit maximum takeoff weight?
A
  1. Takeoff climb requirements
  2. Maximum tire speed
  3. Takeoff field length
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9
Q

1 WEIGHT LIMITATIONS

  1. What is the maximum landing weight?
A

15,000 lbs

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10
Q

1 WEIGHT LIMITATIONS

  1. What two things can limit maximum landing weight?
A
  1. Waveoff climb requirements

2. Normal landing distance - flaps down

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11
Q

1 WEIGHT LIMITATIONS

  1. What is the maximum zero fuel weight?
A

12,500 lbs

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12
Q

1 WEIGHT LIMITATIONS

  1. What is the maximum weight in the baggage compartment? without vs with jump seat
A

Without - 550 lbs

With - 510 lbs

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13
Q

1 CENTER OF GRAVITY LIMITATIONS

  1. What is the AFT limit?
A

208.0” aft of datum at all times

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14
Q

1 CENTER OF GRAVITY LIMITATIONS

  1. What are the FWD limits?
A

11,800 lbs or less: 191.4” aft of datum

11,800 lbs - 15,000 lbs: 191.4” - 199.4” (straight line variation)

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15
Q

1 CENTER OF GRAVITY LIMITATIONS

  1. What is the datum limit?
A

The reference datum is located 83.5 inches forward of the center of the front jack point .

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16
Q

1 CENTER OF GRAVITY LIMITATIONS

  1. What is the Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC)?
A

The leading edge of the MAC is at F.S. 186.01

The MAC length is 69.43”

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17
Q

1 CENTER OF GRAVITY LIMITATIONS

  1. What maneuvers are prohibited in the King Air 350?
A

Aerobatic maneuvers (including spins) are prohibited.

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18
Q

1 AIRSPEED LIMITATIONS

  1. What is the Maneuvering Speed (VA)?
A

184 KIA

Do not make full or abrupt control movements above this speed

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19
Q

1 AIRSPEED LIMITATIONS

  1. What is the Maximum Flap Extension/Extended Speed (VFE)?
A

Approach: 202 KIAS

Full Down: 158 KIAS

Do not extend flaps or operate with flaps extended above these speeds.

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20
Q

1 AIRSPEED LIMITATIONS

  1. What is Maximum Landing Gear Operating Speed (VLO)?
A

Extension: 184 KIAS

Retraction: 166 KIAS

Do not extend or retract landing gear above these speeds.

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21
Q

1 AIRSPEED LIMITATIONS

  1. What is the Maximum Landing Gear Extended Speed (VLE)?
A

184 KIAS

Do not exceed this speed with landing gear extended.

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22
Q

1 AIRSPEED LIMITATIONS

  1. What is the Air Minimum Control Speed (VMCA) Propeller Feathered?
A

Flaps Up: 94 KIAS

Flaps Approach: 93 KIAS

These are the lowest airspeeds at which the airplane is directionally controllable when one engine suddenly becomes inoperative with autofeather armed and the other engine at takeoff power.

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23
Q

1 AIRSPEED LIMITATIONS

  1. What is the Maximum Operating Speed (VLO) from Sea Level to 21,000’?
A

263 KIAS

This speed may not be deliberately exceeded in any flight regime.

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24
Q

1 AIRSPEED LIMITATIONS

  1. What is the Maximum Operating Speed (VLO) from 21,000’ to 35,000’?
A

263-194 KIAS (.58 M)

Red Pointer reflects VLO/MMO limits.

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25
Q

1 PERFORMANCE LIMITATIONS

TAKEOFF AND LANDING

  1. What is the maximum ambient temperature to use brake deice?
A

15*C

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26
Q

1 PERFORMANCE LIMITATIONS

TAKEOFF AND LANDING

  1. What is the maximum outside air temperature limiting)?
A

Sea Level to 25,000’ pressure altitude: ISA +37*C

Above 25,000’ pressure altitude: ISA +31*C

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27
Q

1 PERFORMANCE LIMITATIONS

TAKEOFF AND LANDING

  1. What is the maximum tailwind component (limiting)?
A

10 kts

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28
Q

1 PERFORMANCE LIMITATIONS

TAKEOFF AND LANDING

  1. What is the demonstrated crosswind component?
A

20 kts

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29
Q

1 PERFORMANCE LIMITATIONS

ENROUTE

  1. What is the maximum operating altitude?
A

35,000’

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30
Q

1 PERFORMANCE LIMITATIONS

ENROUTE

  1. What are the enroute temperature limits?
A

Sea level to FL250: ISA +37*C

Above FL250: ISA +31*C

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31
Q

1 PERFORMANCE LIMITATIONS

ENROUTE

  1. What are the maximum generator load limits in flight?
A

Sea level to 34,000’: 100%

Above 34,000’: 95%

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32
Q

1 PERFORMANCE LIMITATIONS

PROLONGED GROUND OPERATION

  1. What are the maximum generator load limits on the ground?
A

Below 70% N1: 75%

Above 70% N1: 100%

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33
Q

1 ELECTRICAL LIMITATIONS

  1. The Starter/Generator produces how many volts and amps?
A

28 volts/300 amps

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34
Q

1 ELECTRICAL LIMITATIONS

  1. What are the starter time limits?
A

30 sec on / 5 min off
30 sec on / 5 min off
30 sec on / 30 min off

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35
Q

1 ELECTRICAL LIMITATIONS

  1. What is the normal system voltage?
A

28.25 volts +/-.25

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36
Q

1 ELECTRICAL LIMITATIONS

  1. What should the GPU be set to for engine start?
A

1000 amp surge

300 amp continuous

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37
Q

1 ELECTRICAL LIMITATIONS

  1. What is the minimum recommended battery volts prior to applying External Power?
A

23 VDC

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38
Q

1 ELECTRICAL LIMITATIONS

  1. What is the absolute minimum battery volts prior to applying External Power?
A

20 VDC

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39
Q

1 ENGINE LIMITATIONS

  1. What are the maximum N1 limits?
A

Idle - 62%
T/O - 104 %
Max Cont. - 104%
Transient - 104%

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40
Q

1 ENGINE LIMITATIONS

  1. What are the ITT limits?
A 
Start- 1000* (5 sec)
Idle - 750*
T/O - 820*
Cruise Climb - 785*
Max Cont/Cruise - 820*
Max Reverse - 760*
Transient - 850* (20 sec)
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41
Q

1 ENGINE LIMITATIONS

  1. What are the Torque limits?
A

T/O & Max Cont. - 100%
Inadvertent - 102% (7 min)
Transient - 156% (20 sec)

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42
Q

1 ENGINE LIMITATIONS

  1. What are the Prop RPM limits?
A 
Idle - 1050
T/O - 1700
Max Cont. 1700
Inadvertent - 1735 (7 min)
Max Reverse - 1650
Transient - 1870 (20 sec)
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43
Q

1 ENGINE LIMITATIONS

  1. What is the maximum torque limit below 1000 RPM propeller?
A

62%

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44
Q

1 ENGINE LIMITATIONS

  1. What are the normal oil pressure readings?
A

90 - 135 psi (N1 above 72%)

Below 90 psi are undesirable

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45
Q

1 ENGINE LIMITATIONS

  1. What procedure should be followed if oil pressure falls to 60 psi?
A

Under Emergency conditions, to complete a flight, a lower pressure limit of 60 psi is permissible at a reduced power level not to exceed 62% torque.

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46
Q

1 ENGINE LIMITATIONS

  1. What procedure should be followed if the oil pressure falls below 60 psi?
A

Oil pressure below 60 psi are unsafe and require that either the engine be shut down or a landing be made at the nearest suitable airport, using the minimum power required to sustain flight.

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47
Q

1 ENGINE LIMITATIONS

  1. During extremely cold temperatures, oil pressure may reach what value during start?
A

200 psi

48
Q

1 ENGINE LIMITATIONS

  1. What is the minimum oil temperature recommended for fuel heater operation?
A

55*C at T/O power

49
Q

1 ENGINE LIMITATIONS

  1. What are the oil temperature limits?
A

-40C to +110C

Temps from 99C to 110C limited to a maximum of 10 mins

50
Q

1 ENGINE LIMITATIONS

  1. How are high ITT temperatures corrected on the ground?
A

reduce accessory load and/or increase N1 RPM

51
Q

1 ENGINE LIMITATIONS

  1. What are the approved engine oils?
A

Only those engine oils listed in P&WC Service Bulletin 13001 are to be used in the PT6A-60A engines.

Do not mix oils

52
Q

1 FUEL LIMITATIONS

  1. What are the approved engine fuels?
A
  1. Jet A, A-1, B

2. JP-4, 5, 8

53
Q

1 FUEL LIMITATIONS

  1. What are the approved emergency fuels?
A 
Commercial Aviation Gasoline Grades:
80 Red
91/96
100 Green
100LL Blue
115/145 Purple
54
Q

1 FUEL LIMITATIONS

  1. How long can the engine be operated on aviation gasoline?
A

Operation is limited to 150 hrs between engine overhauls.

Operation is prohibited if either standby fuel pump is inoperative.

Crossfeed capability is required for flights above 20,000 feet pressure altitude.

55
Q

1 APPROVED FUEL ADDITIVES

  1. What anti-icing additives are approved for use?
A

Anti-icing additives conforming to MIL-I-27686 or MIL-I-85470 may be used.

56
Q

1 FUEL BIOCIDE ADDITIVES

  1. What concentration of biocide can be used in the fuel?
A

Fuel biocide-fungicide “BIOBOR JF” in concentrations of 135 ppm or 270 ppm may be used in the fuel.

57
Q

1 FUEL QUANTITY

  1. What is the total usable fuel quantity?
A

3611 lbs (539 gal)

58
Q

1 FUEL QUANTITY

  1. How much fuel does each main tank hold?
A

1273 lbs (190 gal)

both 2546 lbs

59
Q

1 FUEL QUANTITY

  1. How much fuel does each auxiliary tank hold?
A

533 lbs (79.5 gal)

both 1065 lbs

60
Q

1 FUEL IMBALANCE

  1. What is the maximum fuel imbalance?
A

300 lbs

61
Q

1 FUEL CROSSFEED

  1. When is fuel crossfeed operation authorized?
A

only when one engine is inoperative

62
Q

1 FUEL CROSSFEED

  1. How many standby fuel pumps are required for takeoff?
A

One operative fuel pump is required for takeoff when using approved engine fuels, but in such a case, crossfeed of fuel will not be available from the side of the inoperative standby fuel pump.

63
Q

1 FUEL CROSSFEED

  1. How many fuel pumps must be operational when operating on avgas?
A

Two operative standby fuel pumps are required for takeoff when operating on emergency engine fuels.

64
Q

1 FUEL GAGES IN THE YELLOW ARC

  1. What does the yellow arc represent?
A

Do not take off if fuel quantity gages indicate in yellow arc or indicate less than 265 pounds (120kg) of fuel in each wing system.

65
Q

1 AUXILIARY FUEL

  1. When can you fill the auxiliary tanks?
A

Do not put any fuel in the auxiliary tanks unless the main tanks are full.

66
Q

1 OPERATING WITH LOW FUEL PRESSURE

  1. What is the time limit for operating with the low fuel pressure annunciator light illuminated?
A

The high pressure engine driven fuel pump can be operated for 10 hrs before overhaul or replacement.

67
Q

1 PROPELLER LIMITATIONS

  1. What are the propeller limits?
A

Minimum idle spd - 1050rpm
Reverse - 1650rpm
Transient - 1870rpm (20sec)
All other conditions - 1700rpm

68
Q

1 PROPELLER LIMITATIONS

  1. What does a sustained propeller RPM over 1700 indicate?
A

A failure of the Primary Governor.

69
Q

1 PROPELLER LIMITATIONS

  1. May flight be continued with a propeller overspeed?
A

Flight may be continued at propeller overspeeds up to 1768rpm, provided torque is limited to 96%. Sustained propeller overspeeds faster than 1768rpm indicate failure of both the primary governor and the the secondary governor, and such overspeeds are not approved.

70
Q

1 PROPELLER AUTOFEATHER

  1. When should the propeller autofeather system be armed?
A

Should be operable for all flights and should be armed for takeoff, climb, approach and landing.

71
Q

2 ELECTRICAL SYSTEM

  1. Describe the electrical system?
A

A 28 volt DC, single-loop, triple-fed system with a negative ground.

72
Q

2 ELECTRICAL SYSTEM

  1. What supplies normal DC power?
A

During normal operation, two 28 volt, 300 ampere starter/generators and a 24 volt nickel-cadmium battery, or a 24 volt lead-acid battery, supply all of the airplane’s electrical needs.

73
Q

2 ELECTRICAL SYSTEM

  1. Where is the battery located?
A

A battery is installed in the RH wing center section between the RH nacelle and the fuselage.

74
Q

2 ELECTRICAL SYSTEM

  1. Battery power is connected to which buses?
A

Battery power is connected to the battery bus, the center bus and the triple-fed bus.

75
Q

2 ELECTRICAL SYSTEM

  1. What protects the 5 electrical buses?
A

The 5 buses are individually protected by current sensors, limiters, diodes and relays. Load-shedding is accomplished by isolating a faulty bus from those that are still functional, thereby preventing a failure of the entire electrical system.

76
Q

2 ELECTRICAL SYSTEM

  1. Which relays close when the Battery Switch is placed to on?
A

Battery Relay

Battery Bus Tie Relay

77
Q

2 ELECTRICAL SYSTEM

  1. Describe Automatic Load-Shedding?
A

Automatically sheds the generator busses as necessary to reduce excess loads.

78
Q

2 ELECTRICAL SYSTEM

  1. What is the Dual Fed Bus?
A

Left Engine Fire Ext.

Right Engine Fire Ext.

Cabin Entry Lights

79
Q

2 ELECTRICAL SYSTEM

  1. Explain the functions of the Generator Control Unit?
A
  1. Voltage Regulation
  2. Over-Voltage/Over-Excitation Protection
  3. Paralleling/Load Sharing (within 10%)
  4. Reverse Current Protection
  5. Cross-Gen Start Current Limiting
  6. Isolates Failed/Off Gen from it’s bus
80
Q

2 ELECTRICAL SYSTEM

  1. Describe the AC electrical system?
A

A 115 VAC and 26 VAC, single phase, 400 Hz system. It operates on 28 VDC and provides AC power to certain avionics and electrical equipment. The system consists of 2 static inverters, 2 bus-transfer relays, an AC power monitor circuit card and associated switches, circuit breakers and annunciators.

81
Q

2 ELECTRICAL SYSTEM

  1. What will cause the Red AC Bus annunciator light to illuminate?
A

Fault in the AC bus or Loss of AC Power

82
Q

2 ELECTRICAL SYSTEM

  1. Where are the AC Bus circuit breakers located?
A

On the Fuel Panel CB panel.

83
Q

2 INVERTERS (IF INSTALLED)

  1. Where are the inverters located?
A

2 static inverters are located in the left and right wing center section, outboard of each nacelle.

84
Q

2 INVERTERS (IF INSTALLED)

  1. What is the purpose of the inverters?
A

Convert 28 VDC input to single phase 400 HZ AC at 115 VAC and 26 VAC. Voltage and frequency regulation are accomplished internally. Voltage regulation is +5% to -7% and frequency is 400 +/-1%.

85
Q

2 INVERTERS (IF INSTALLED)

  1. What is the power source for the inverters?
A

1 Inverter: Center Bus

86
Q

2 INVERTERS (IF INSTALLED)

  1. How many inverters are there on a King Air 350?
A

2 with 750 volt-amp output and 400 H, 115 & 26 VAC outputs

87
Q

2 INVERTERS (IF INSTALLED)

  1. Do both inverters have to be on during normal A/C operations?
A

Yes, the A/C system is designed to operate on 2 inverters.

88
Q

2 DC STARTER/GENERATOR

  1. Describe the Starter/Generators.
A

Dual purpose, 28 volt, 300 ampere units which produce torque for engine starts or generate electrical current to meet the airplane electrical needs.

89
Q

2 DC STARTER/GENERATOR

  1. How are the Starter/Generators cooled on the ground?
A

An internal shaft driven fan draws outside air through the Starter/Generator to provide ground cooling.

90
Q

2 VOLTAGE REGULATION

  1. What does the Generator Control Unit do?
A
  1. Monitors Starter/Generator output voltage
  2. Controls the shunt field excitation to maintain a constant voltage under varying conditions such as speed, load and temperature.
91
Q

2 VOLTAGE REGULATION

  1. How do you reset the Generator?
A

The switch must be placed in the GEN RESET position to excite the field, increase starter/generator output and bring it back on the line.

92
Q

2 STARTER/GENERATOR PARALLELING

  1. Describe Generator Paralleling.
A

The generator control panels incorporate circuitry to maintain the starter/generator electrical loads within 10% of each for their entire operating range.

93
Q

2 OVEREXCITATION PROTECTION

  1. What is Overexcitation?
A

When a failure occurs causing excessive field excitation, the affected starter/generator will attempt to carry all of the airplane’s electrical load. During parallel operation, this is sensed at the generator control unit by comparing voltages of the starter/generators.

94
Q

2 OVEREXCITATION PROTECTION

  1. What Overexcitation is available?
A

The starter/generator will be de-energized if generator bus voltage is greater than 28.25 VDC and the output current differential between starter/generators is greater than 15% for 5 sec.

95
Q

2 REVERSE CURRENT AND POLARITY PROTECTION

  1. What is reverse current?
A

When the generator field becomes underexcited for any reason, or when the starter/generator slows down to a point where it can no longer maintain a positive load, it will begin to draw current from the center bus.

96
Q

2 OVERVOLTAGE PROTECTION

  1. What is the starter/generator overvoltage limit?
A

If the affected starter/generator output voltage rises above 32.5 VDC, it will be removed from the bus and the unaffected starter/generator will automatically be reconnected.

97
Q

2 CROSS-START OVERLOAD CURRENT LIMITING

  1. Explain the cross-starting protection system?
A

The generator control panels have a feature that limits the on-line starter/generator output current during engine cross-starts. This circuit prevents the on-line starter/generator from providing excess current to the starter/generator being used as a starter.

98
Q

2 GEN BUS-TIE & BUS-SENSE SWITCHES

  1. What is the function of the generator Bus-Tie Switch?
A

The MAN CLOSED position manually closes the gen bus-tie relays through the bus-tie control PCB, which also illuminates the green MAN TIES CLOSED annunciator. The NORM position allows the bus-tie PCB to analyze bus voltages and automatically close the gen bus-tie relays when no fault exists.

99
Q

2 GEN BUS-TIE & BUS-SENSE SWITCHES

  1. What is the function of the Bus-Sense Switch?
A

Controls the over-current sensing function of the Bus-Tie System.

100
Q

2 BATTERY

  1. What type of battery is installed in the airplane?
A

Either a 24 volt, 36 ampere-hour, nickel-cadmium battery or a 24 volt, 42 ampere-hour Capacity Rate, valve-regulated sealed lead-acid battery.

101
Q

2 BATTERY

  1. What is the purpose of the battery charge current monitor?
A

It is installed to provide a visual indication of abnormal battery charge current. The system provides an indication when the conditions exist for a thermal runaway of the nickel-cadmium battery.

102
Q

2 BATTERY

  1. When will the battery charge annunciator illuminate?
A

Following an engine start, the BATTERY CHARGE annunciator illuminates and remains on for about 5 mins until the charge current decreases to the current detector reset level as the battery approaches full charge.

103
Q

2 BATTERY

  1. Where is the battery located?
A

The right wing box, between the nacelle and the fuselage.

104
Q

2 BATTERY

  1. How is the battery cooled?
A

Air cooled

105
Q

2 BATTERY

  1. What does the BAT BUS switch on the left subpanel do?
A

The EMERG OFF disconnects the Battery from the Battery Bus.

106
Q

2 BATTERY

  1. What equipment is located on the Battery Bus?
A

Avionics

Battery Switch/Relay

Ground Comm

Dual Fed Bus

107
Q

2 BATTERY

  1. What will trigger the yellow Battery Change annunciator light?
A

A charge into the battery of more than 7 amperes for 6 or more seconds. Normal charge rate is 1 to 4 amps.

108
Q

2 BATTERY

  1. What should be done if the aircraft battery is less than 20 volts?
A

It must be charged or replaced before connecting the GPU to the airplane.

109
Q

2 EXTERNAL POWER

  1. Where is the External Power receptacle located?
A

Underneath the right wing, outboard of the engine nacelle.

110
Q

2 EXTERNAL POWER

  1. Does the ground power unit need to be operating to illuminate the external power annunciator light?
A

No

111
Q

2 EXTERNAL POWER

  1. What bus is powered by External Power?
A

Power is routed through the external power relay to the Center Bus.

112
Q

2 EXTERNAL POWER

  1. What does a flashing EXT PWR light mean?
A

External power is plugged in but not producing 28 volts.

113
Q

2 EXTERNAL POWER

  1. What does a steady EXT PWR light mean?
A

External power is on, sufficient and applied.

114
Q

2 EXTERNAL POWER

  1. When will GPU power be locked out?
A

If voltage exceeds 31 volts +/-.5

115
Q

2 AVIONICS POWER DISTRIBUTION

  1. How does the Avionics Power Switch work?
A

When the switch is placed to ON, voltage is removed from each coil and the contacts are closed to supply power to the avionics power circuit breakers.

116
Q

2 AVIONICS POWER DISTRIBUTION

  1. Why would you pull the Avionics Master CB?
A

To bypass the Avionics Master Switch and provide avionics power if that switch has failed.

117
Q

3 ANTI-COLLISION LIGHTS

  1. What is the standard lighting installation?
A

Upper anti-collision light: mounted in the upper empennage

Lower anti-collision light: mounted on the bottom of the fuselage

CAE (5 decks)

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