Arrhythmias Flashcards

1
Q

What is the pathophysiology of an arrhythmia

A

In disease (e.g. post-MI ventricular ischemia) cells in the myocardium outside the conduction system may inappropriately acquire the property of automaticity and contribute to abnormal depolarization. If these ectopic generators depolarize at a rate greater than the SA node, they assume pacemaking control and become the source of abnormal rhythm. Automaticity can be influenced by:
◆ neurohormonal tone (sympathetic and parasympathetic stimulation)
◆ abnormal metabolic conditions (hypoxia, acidosis, hypothermia)
◆ electrolyte abnormalities
◆ drugs (e.g. digitalis)
◆ local ischemia/infarction
◆ other cardiac pathology

■ this mechanism is responsible for the accelerated idioventricular rhythm and ventricular tachycardia that often occurs 24-72 h post MI

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2
Q

What are the normal pacemaking cells of the heart

A

SA node, AV node, and ventricular conduction system

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3
Q

What is a sinus arrhythmia

A

Normal P waves, with variation of the P-P interval by >120 msec due to varying rate of SA node

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4
Q

What are types of sinus arrhythmia

A

Respiratory SA
• Seen more often in young adults (<30 yr old)
• Normal, results from changes in autonomic tone during respiratory cycle
• Rate increases with inspiration, slows with expiration

Non-Respiratory SA
• Seen more often in the elderly
• Can occur in the normal heart; if marked may be due to sinus node dysfunction (e.g. in heart disease, or after digitalis toxicity)
• Usually does not require treatment

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5
Q

What is early afterdepolarization

A
  1. Early Afterdepolarizations
    ■ occur in the context of action potential prolongation
    ■ consequence of the membrane potential becoming more positive during repolarization (e.g. not returning to baseline)
    ■ result in self-maintaining depolarizing oscillations of action potential, generating a tachyarrhythmia (e.g new baseline voltage is greater than threshold, which automatically triggers a new action potential after the refractory period ends)
    ■ basis for the degeneration of QT prolongation, either congenital or acquired, into Torsades de Pointe
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6
Q

What are delayed afterdepolarizations

A
  1. Delayed Afterdepolarizations
    ■ occur after the action potential has fully repolarized, but before the next usual action potential, thus called a delayed afterdepolarization
    ■ commonly occurs in situations of high intracellular calcium (e.g. digitalis intoxication, ischemia) or during enhanced catecholamine stimulation (e.g. “twitchy” pacemaker cells)
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7
Q

What are re-entry circuits and how do they form

A

the presence of self-sustaining re-entry circuit causes rapid repeated depolarizations in a region of myocardium

◆ e.g. myocardium that is infarcted/ischemic will consist of non-excitable and partially excitable zones which will promote the formation of re-entry circuits

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8
Q

What is conduction block and how does it form

A

■ ischemia, fibrosis, trauma, and drugs can cause transient, permanent, unidirectional or bidirectional block
■ most common cause of block is due to refractory myocardium (cardiomyocytes are in refractory period or zone of myocardium unexcitable due to fibrosis)
■ if block occurs along the specialized conduction system distal zones of the conduction system can assume pacemaking control
■ conduction block can lead to bradycardia or tachycardia when impaired conduction leads to re entry phenomenon

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9
Q

What are bypass tracts in the heart

A

normally the only conducting tract from the atria to the ventricles is the AV node into the HisPurkinje system

■ congenital/acquired accessory conducting tracts bypass the AV node and facilitate premature ventricular activation before normal AV node conduction

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10
Q

Management for sinus bradycardia

A

Atropine

Pacing for sick sinus syndrome

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11
Q

First degree AV block definition

A

Prolonged PR interval (>200 msec)

Frequently found among otherwise healthy adults

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12
Q

Treatment for first degree AV block

A

No treatment required

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13
Q

2nd degree AV block Mobitz 1 definition

A

A gradual prolongation of the PR interval precedes the failure of conduction of a P wave (Wenckebach phenomenon)

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14
Q

2nd degree AV block in AV node (proximal) triggers

A

(usually reversible): increased vagal tone (e.g. following surgery), RCA-mediated ischemia

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15
Q

2nd degree AV block Mobitz 1 usual location

A

AV node

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16
Q

2nd degree AV block Mobitz 2 definition

A

The PR interval is constant; there is an abrupt failure of conduction of a P wave

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17
Q

2nd degree AV block Mobitz 2 location

A

AV block is usually distal to the AV node (i.e. bundle of His)

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18
Q

2nd degree AV block Mobitz 2 increases your risk of what

A

increased risk of high grade or 3rd degree AV block

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19
Q

3rd degree AV block definition

A

Complete failure of conduction of the supraventricular impulses to the ventricles; ventricular depolarization initiated by an escape pacemaker distal to the block

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20
Q

What is the pattern of intervals on ECG seen with 3rd degree AV block

A

Wide or narrow QRS, P-P and R-R intervals are constant, variable PR intervals; no relationship between P waves and QRS complexes (P waves “marching through”)

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21
Q

Presentation for SVT and pre-excitation syndromes

A

Palpitations, dizziness, dyspnea, chest discomfort, presyncope/syncope

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22
Q

What is a potential consequence of untreated tachycardias

A

untreated tachycardias can cause cardiomyopathy (rare, potentially reversible with treatment of SVTs)

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23
Q

Where do superventricular tacchyarrhthmias originate

A

tachyarrhythmias that originate in the atria or AV junction

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24
Q

Supraventricular tacchyarrhythmia definition

A

this term is used when a more specific diagnosis of mechanism and site of origin cannot be made

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25
Q

What is seen on ECG with supraventriular tachyarrhythmia

A

characterized by narrow QRS, unless there is pre-existing bundle branch block or aberrant ventricular conduction (abnormal conduction due to a change in cycle length)

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26
Q

Management of sinus tachycardia

A

Treat underlying cause

BB or CCB if BB is contraindicated

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27
Q

What is a premature atrial contraction and how can it be identified on ECG

A

Ectopic supraventricular beat originating in the atria

■ P wave morphology of the PAC usually differs from that of a normal sinus beat

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28
Q

What is a junctional premature beat and how can it be identified on ECG

A

Ectopic supraventricular beat that originates in the vicinity of the AV node

■ P wave is usually not seen or an inverted P wave is seen and may be before or closely follow the QRS complex (referred to as a retrograde, or “traveling backward” P wave)

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29
Q

Junctional premature beat treatment

A

Usually not required

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30
Q

Atrial flutter origin

A

rapid, regular atrial depolarization from a macro re-entry circuit within the atrium (most commonly the right atrium)

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31
Q

Atrial flutter presentation

A

atrial rate 250-350 bpm

AV block usually occurs; it may be fixed (2:1, 3:1, 4:1, etc.) or variable

ECG: sawtooth flutter waves (most common type of flutter) in inferior leads (II, III, aVF); narrow QRS (unless aberrancy); commonly seen as 2:1 block with HR of 150

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32
Q

Atrial flutter etiology

A
CAD
thyrotoxicosis
mitral valve disease
cardiac surgery
COPD
PE
pericarditis
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33
Q

How to elicit flutter waves in 2:1 AV block

A

Carotid sinus massage (first check for bruits), Valsalva maneuver, or adenosine may decrease AV conduction and bring out flutter waves

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34
Q

Atrial flutter treatment

A

Acute and if unstable (e.g. hypotension, CHF, angina) electrical cardioversion

If unstable (e.g. hypotension, CHF, angina): electrical cardioversion

If stable:

  1. rate control: β-blocker, diltiazem, verapamil, or digoxin
  2. chemical cardioversion: sotalol, amiodarone, type I antiarrhythmics, or electrical cardioversion

■ anticoagulation guidelines same as for patients with AFib

Treatment of long-term atrial flutter:
Antiarrhythmics
Catheter radiofrequency (RF) ablation (success rate dependent on site of origin of atrial flutter – i.e. whether right-sided isthmus-dependent or leftsided origin)
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35
Q

What is multifocal atrial tachycardia (MAT)

A

irregular rhythm caused by presence of 3 or more atrial foci (may mimic AFib)

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36
Q

Presentation of MAT

A

atrial rate 100-200 bpm – 3 or more distinct P wave morphologies and PR intervals vary, some P waves may not be conducted

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37
Q

In what patients does MAT occur

A

occurs more commonly in patients with COPD, and hypoxemia

Less commonly in patients with hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, sepsis, theophylline, or digitalis toxicity

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38
Q

MAT treatment

A
  1. Treat the underlying cause
    calcium channel blockers may be used (e.g. diltiazem, verapamil)
    β-blockers may be contraindicated because of severe pulmonary disease

• no role for electrical cardioversion, antiarrhythmics, or ablation

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39
Q

Rate vs rhythm control outcomes in A fib

A

No difference in mortality

Rate-control was as effective as rhythm-control in AF and was better tolerated. There were more hospitalization incidents in the rhythm-control group.

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40
Q

Atrial fibrillation symptoms

A

palpitations, fatigue, syncope, may precipitate or worsen heart failure

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41
Q

Atrial fibrillation classification

A

■ lone: occurs in persons younger than 60 yr and in whom no clinical or echocardiographic causes are found

■ nonvalvular: not caused by valvular disease, prosthetic heart valves, or valve repair

■ paroxysmal: episodes that terminate spontaneously

■ persistent: AFib sustained for more than 7 d or AFib that terminates only with cardioversion

■ permanent/chronic: continuous AFib that is unresponsive to cardioversion or in which clinical judgement has led to a decision not to pursue cardioversion

■ recurrent: two or more episodes of AFib

■ secondary: caused by a separate underlying condition or event (e.g. myocardial infarction, cardiac surgery, pulmonary disease, hyperthyroidism)

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42
Q

What does atrial fibrillation increase the risk of and how can you calculate that risk

A

■ may be associated with thromboembolic events (stroke risk can be assessed by CHADS2 score in nonvalvular AFib; CHA2DS2-VASc if the former gives a score of 0 or 1)

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43
Q

Source of atrial fibrillation

A

single circuit re-entry and/or ectopic foci act as aberrant generators producing atrial tachycardia (350-600 bpm)

impulses conduct irregularly across the atrial myocardium to give rise to fibrillation

in some cases, ectopic foci have also been mapped to the pulmonary vein ostia and can be ablated

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44
Q

Long term consequences of a fib

A

the tachycardia causes atrial structural and electrophysiological remodelling changes that further promote AFib; the longer the patient is in AFib the more difficult it is to convert back to sinus rhythm

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45
Q

Consequences of a fib

A

The AV node irregularly filters incoming atrial impulses producing an irregular ventricular response of <200 bpm and the tachycardia leads to suboptimal cardiac output

fibrillatory conduction of the atria promotes blood stasis increasing the risk of thrombus formation – AFib is an important risk factor for stroke

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46
Q

CHADS risk prediction for non valvular a fib

A
Congestive heart failure 
Hypertension 
Age >75 
Diabetes 
Stroke or prior TIA (2 points, all others 1 point)
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47
Q

A fib ECG findings

A

No organized P waves due to rapid atrial activity (350-600 bpm) causing a chaotic fibrillatory baseline

■ irregularly irregular ventricular response (typically 100-180 bpm), narrow QRS (unless aberrancy or previous BBB)

■ wide QRS complexes due to aberrancy may occur following a long-short cycle sequence (“Ashman phenomenon”)

■ loss of atrial contraction, thus no “a” wave seen in JVP no S4 on auscultation

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48
Q

Lenient vs strict afib rate control outcomes

A

Lenient control (resting HR<110) was equivalent to strict control (resting HR <80) for prevention of primary outcomes in patients with atrial fibrillation. Furthermore, lenient control was more easily achieved.

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49
Q

A fib management

A

major objectives (RACE): all patients with AFib (paroxysmal, persistent, or permanent), should be stratified using a predictive index for stroke risk and for the risk of bleeding, and most patients should receive either an oral anticoagulant or ASA (see below)

  1. Rate control: β-blockers, diltiazem, verapamil (in patients with heart failure: digoxin, amiodarone) – digoxin can be considered as a therapeutic option to achieve rate control in patients whose response to beta-blockers and/or calcium channel blockers is inadequate or contraindicated
2. Anticoagulation: use either warfarin or NOACs e.g. apixaban, dabigatran, rivaroxaban to prevent thromboembolism for patients with non-valvular AF (NVAF)
oral anticoagulant (OAC) is recommended for most patients aged >65 yr or CHADS2 >= 1. 
ASA 81 mg is recommended only for patients with none of the risk outlined in the CCS algorithm (age <65 and no CHADS2 risk factors) who have arterial disease (coronary, aortic, or peripheral)
Novel oral anticoagulant (NOAC) is to be used in preference to warfarin 
  1. Cardioversion (electrical) –
    if AFib <24-48 h, can usually cardiovert without anticoagulation
    if AFib >24-48 h, anticoagulate for 3 wk prior and 4 wk after cardioversion due to risk of unstable intra-atrial thrombus – if patient unstable (hypotensive, active angina due to tachycardia, uncontrolled heart failure) should cardiovert immediately
  2. Etiology – HTN, CAD, valvular disease, pericarditis, cardiomyopathy, myocarditis, ASD, postoperative PE, COPD, thyrotoxicosis, sick sinus syndrome, alcohol (“holiday heart”) – may present in young patients without demonstrable disease (“lone AFib”) and in the elderly without underlying heart disease
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50
Q

Rivaroxaban vs warfarin in a fib for stroke prevention

A

In patients with AFib, rivaroxaban is non-inferior to warfarin for stroke prevention and major and non-major bleeding

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51
Q

When should patients with a fib be cardioverted as soon as possible

A

Unstable patients

Many patients with a significant underlying structural heart lesion (e.g. valve disease, cardiomyopathy) will not tolerate AFib well (since may be dependent on atrial kick) and these patients should be cardioverted (chemical or electrical) as soon as possible

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52
Q

Management of newly discovered afib

A

anticoagulants may be beneficial if high risk for stroke

◆ if the episode is self-limited and not associated with severe symptoms, no need for antiarrhythmic drugs

◆ if AFib persists, 2 options

  1. rate control and anticoagulation (as indicated above)
  2. cardioversion (as above)
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53
Q

Management of recurrent afib

A

If episodes are brief or minimally symptomatic, antiarrhythmic drugs may be avoided; rate control and anticoagulation are appropriate

Patients who have undergone at least one attempt to restore sinus rhythm may remain in AFib after recurrence; permanent AFib may be accepted (with rate control and antithrombotics as indicated by CHADS2 score) in certain clinical stuations

if symptoms are bothersome or episodes are prolonged, antiarrhythmic drugs should be used
– no or minimal heart disease: flecainide, propafenone once proven to have no underlying CAD (usu. by exercise stress testing)
– LV dysfunction: amiodarone
– CAD: β-blockers, amiodarone

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54
Q

AVNRT definition

A

re-entrant circuit using dual pathways (fast conducting β-fibres and slow conducting α-fibres) within or near the AV node; often found in the absence of structural heart disease – cause is commonly idiopathic, although familial AVNRT has been reported

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55
Q

AVNRT presentation

A
  • sudden onset and offset
  • fast regular rhythm: rate 150-250 bpm
  • usually initiated by a supraventricular or ventricular premature beat
  • AVNRT accounts for 60-70% of all paroxysmal SVTs
  • retrograde P waves may be seen but are usually lost in the QRS complex
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56
Q

AVNRT treatment

A

acute:
- Valsalva maneuver or carotid sinus pressure technique
- adenosine is first choice if unresponsive to vagal maneuvers
- if no response, try metoprolol, digoxin, diltiazem
- electrical cardioversion if patient hemodynamically unstable (hypotension, angina, or CHF)

long-term:
1st line – β-blocker, diltiazem, digoxin

2nd line – flecainide, propafenone

3rd line – catheter ablation

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57
Q

What are ventricular pre-excitation syndromes

A

refers to a subset of SVTs mediated by an accessory pathway which can lead to ventricular pre-excitation

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58
Q

What is Wolff-Parkinson White Syndrome

A

an accessory conduction tract (Bundle of Kent; can be in right or left atrium) abnormally allows early electrical activation of part of one ventricle impulses travel at a greater conduction velocity across the Bundle of Kent thereby effectively ‘bypassing’ AV node

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59
Q

What is the presentation of WPW syndrome

A

since the ventricles are activated earlier, the ECG shows early ventricular depolarization in the form of initial slurring of the QRS complex – the so-called “delta wave”

• atrial impulses that conduct to the ventricles through both the Bundle of Kent and the normal AV node/His-Purkinje system generate a broad “fusion complex”

• ECG features of WPW
■ PR interval <120 msec
■ delta wave: slurred upstroke of the QRS (the leads with the delta wave vary with site of bypass)
■ widening of the QRS complex due to premature activation
■ secondary ST segment and T wave changes
■ tachyarrhythmias may occur – most often AVRT and AFib

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60
Q

Why does afib happen in WPW patients

A

rapid atrial depolarizations in AFib are conducted through the bypass tract which is not able to filter impulses like the AV node can

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61
Q

What is a common arrhythmia that occurs in WPW patients

A

A fib

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62
Q

What is the ECG presentation of afib in WPW patients

A

the ventricular rate becomes extremely rapid (>200 bpm) and the QRS complex widens because there is no filtration of impulses

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63
Q

Treatment of afib in WPW patients

A

electrical cardioversion, IV procainamide, or IV amiodarone

■ do not use drugs that slow AV node conduction (digoxin, β-blockers) as this may cause preferential conduction through the bypass tract and precipitate VF

■ long-term: ablation of bypass tract if possible

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64
Q

What are the supraventricular tacchyarrhythmias

A
  1. Sinus tach
  2. Premature beats (atrial, junctional)
  3. Atrial flutter
  4. MAT
  5. Atrial fibrillation
  6. AVNRT
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65
Q

What is orthodromic AVRT

A

stimulus from a premature complex travels up the bypass tract (V to A) and down the AV node (A to V) with narrow QRS complex (no delta wave because stimulus travels through normal conduction system)

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66
Q

What is AV re-entrant tachycardia

A
  • re-entrant loop via accessory pathway and normal conduction system
  • initiated by a premature atrial or ventricular complex
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67
Q

What is antidromic AVRT

A

more rarely the stimulus goes up the AV node (V to A) and down the bypass tract (A to V); wide and abnormal QRS as ventricular activation is only via the bypass tract

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68
Q

What is the treatment for AVRT

A

■ acute: similar to AVNRT except avoid long-acting AV nodal blockers (e.g. digoxin and verapamil)

■ long-term: for recurrent arrhythmias ablation of the bypass tract is recommended

■ drugs such as flecainide and procainamide can be used

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69
Q

What is a premature ventricular contraction or premature ventricular beat

A

QRS width >120 msec, no preceding P wave, bizarre QRS morphology

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70
Q

PVCs may be benign but are usually significant in the following situations

A

■ consecutive (≥3 = VT) or multiform (varied origin)

■ PVC falling on the T wave of the previous beat (“R on T phenomenon”): may precipitate ventricular tachycardia or VF

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71
Q

Accelerated idioventricular rhythm definition

A

ectopic ventricular rhythm with rate 50-100 bpm

• more frequently occurs in the presence of sinus bradycardia and is easily overdriven by a faster supraventricular rhythm

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72
Q

Accelerated idioventricular rhythm population

A

• frequently occurs in patients with acute MI or other types of heart disease (cardiomyopathy, hypertensive, valvular) but it does not affect prognosis

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73
Q

Accelerated idioventricular rhythm treatment

A

Usually not required

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74
Q

Ventricular tachycardia definition

A

3 or more consecutive ectopic ventricular complexes wide regular QRS tachycardia (QRS usually >140 msec)
■ rate >100 bpm (usually 140-200)

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75
Q

Ventricular flutter definition

A

if rate >200 bpm and complexes resemble a sinusoidal pattern

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76
Q

Sustained VT definition

A

lasts longer than 30 s

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77
Q

Monomorphic VT usual source and causes

A

identical complexes with uniform morphology
■ more common than polymorphic VT
■ typically result from intraventricular re-entry circuit
■ potential causes: chronic infarct scarring, acute MI/ischemia, cardiomyopathies, myocarditis, arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia, idiopathic, drugs (e.g. cocaine), electrolyte disturbances

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78
Q

Polymorphic VT pattern

A

complexes with constantly changing morphology, amplitude, and polarity

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79
Q

Type of VT more frequently associated with hemodynamic instability

A

■ polymorphic VT more frequently associated with hemodynamic instability due to faster rates (typically 200-250 bpm) vs. monomorphic VT

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80
Q

polymorphic VT potential causes

A

■ potential causes: acute MI, severe or silent ischemia, and predisposing factors for QT prolongation

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81
Q

VT treatment

A

sustained VT (>30 s) is an emergency, requiring immediate treatment

■ hemodynamic compromise: electrical cardioversion

■ no hemodynamic compromise: electrical cardioversion, lidocaine, amiodarone, type Ia agents (procainamide, quinidine)

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82
Q

You have a wide complex tachycardia. How do you differentiate VT vs SVT with aberrancy

A

Presenting symptoms - not helpful

History of CAD and previous MI - VT

Physical exam

Cannon “a” waves, variable S1 - VT

Carotid sinus massage/adenosine terminates arrhythmia - SVT (can be VT if no structural heart disease)

AV dissociation - VT

Capture or fusion beats - VT

QRS width >140 msec - VT

Extreme axis deviation (left or right superior axis) - VT

Positive QRS concardance (R wave arss chest leads) - VT

Negative QRS conordance (S wave across chest leads) - may suggest VT

Axis shift during arrhythmia - VT (polymorphic)

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83
Q

Torsades de Pointes definition

A

a variant of polymorphic VT that occurs in patients with baseline QT prolongation – “twisting of the points”

• looks like usual VT except that QRS complexes “rotate around the baseline” changing their axis and amplitude

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84
Q

Torsades de Point rate

A

Ventricular rate >100 bpm, usually 150-300 bpm

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85
Q

Torsades de Point etiology

A
etiology: predisposition in patients with prolonged QT intervals  
■ congenital long QT syndromes  
■ drugs: e.g. class IA (quinidine), class III (sotalol), phenothiazines (TCAs), erythromycin, quinolones, antihistamines  
■ electrolye disturbances: hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia 
■ nutritional deficiencies causing above electrolyte abnormalitie
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86
Q

Torsades de Pointes treatment

A

IV magnesium, temporary pacing, isoproterenol and correct underlying cause of prolonged QT, electrical cardioversion if hemodynamic compromise

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87
Q

Arrhythmias that may present as a wide QRS tachycardia

A
  • VT
  • SVT with aberrant conduction (rate related)
  • SVT with preexisting BBB or nonspecific intraventricular conduction defect
  • AV conduction through a bypass tract in WPW patients during an atrial tachyarrhythmia (e.g. atrial flutter, atrial tachycardia) Antidromic AVRT in WPW patients
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88
Q

Assessment of the cardiac patient for fitness to drive and fly

A

following an appropriate shock these patients are at an increased risk to cause harm to other road users and therefore should be restricted to drive for a period of 2 and 4 mo, respectively. In addition, all ICD patients with commercial driving licenses have a substantial elevated risk to cause harm to other road uses during the complete follow-up after both implantation and shock and should therefore be restricted to drive permanently.

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89
Q

Sudden cardiac arrest definition

A

unanticipated, non-traumatic cardiac death in a stable patient which occurs within 1 h of symptom onset

VFib is most common cause

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90
Q

Sudden cardiac arrest management

A

acute: resuscitate with prompt CPR and defibrillation

  • investigate underlying cause (cardiac catheterization, electrophysiologic studies, echo)
  • treat underlying cause
  • antiarrhythmic drug therapy: amiodarone, β-blockers
  • implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD)
  • refer to ACLS guidelines
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91
Q

What are electrophysiology studies and what are they used for a

A

invasive test for the investigation and treatment of cardiac rhythm disorders using intracardiac catheters

  • provide detailed analysis of the arrhythmia mechanism and precise site of origin when ECG data are nondiagnostic or unobtainable
  • bradyarrhythmias: define the mechanisms of SA node dysfunction and localize site of AV conduction block
  • tachyarrhythmias: map for possible ablation or to assess inducibility of V
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92
Q

Pacemaker indications

A
  • SA node dysfunction (most common): symptomatic bradycardia ± hemodynamic instability
  • common manifestations include: syncope, presyncope, or severe fatigue
  • SA node dysfunction is commonly caused by: intrinsic disease within the SA node (e.g. idiopathic degeneration, fibrosis, ischemia, or surgical trauma), abnormalities in autonomic nervous system function, and drug effects

• AV nodal-infranodal block: Mobitz II, complete heart block

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93
Q

Pacemaker techniques

A
  • temporary: transvenous (jugular, subclavian, femoral) or external (transcutaneous) pacing
  • permanent: transvenous into RA, apex of RV, or both
  • can sense and pace atrium, ventricle, or both
  • new generation: rate responsive, able to respond to physiologic demand
  • biventricular
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94
Q

What population should ICDs be used in

A

ICDs are safe and effective in reducing mortality in adult patients with LV systolic dysfunction but carry significant risks of inappropriate discharges. Differences between RCTs and observational studies show that improved risk stratification of patients may further improve outcomes and reduce adverse events.

• benefit seen in patients with ischemic and non-ischemic cardiomyopathy, depressed left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF), prolonged QRS

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95
Q

What do ICDs do

A

sudden cardiac death SCD) usually results from ventricular fibrillation (VFib), sometimes preceded by monomorphic or polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (VT) • ICDs detect ventricular tachyarrhythmias and are highly effective in terminating VT/VFib and in aborting SCD • mortality benefit vs. antiarrhythmics in secondary prevention

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96
Q

What is radiofrequency ablation

A

radiofrequency (RF) ablation: a low-voltage high-frequency form of electrical energy (similar to cautery); RF ablation produces small, homogeneous, necrotic lesions

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97
Q

What is cryoablation and what are the pros and cons

A

New technology which uses a probe with a tip that can decrease in temperature to 20˚C and -70˚C. Produces small, necrotic lesions similar to RF ablation; when brought to -20˚C, the catheter tip reversibly freezes the area; bringing the tip down to -70˚C for 5 min permanently scars the tissue

■ advantage: can “test” areas before committing to an ablation

■ disadvantage: takes much longer than RF (5 min per cryoablation vs. 1 min per RF ablation)

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98
Q

Indications for catheter ablation

A

• paroxysmal SVT
■ AVNRT: accounts for more than half of all cases

• accessory pathway (orthodromic reciprocating tachycardia): 30% of SVT
■ re-entrant rhythm, with an accessory AV connection as the retrograde limb
■ corrected by targeting the accessory pathway

  • atrial flutter: re-entry pathway in right atrium
  • AFib: potential role for pulmonary vein ablation
  • ventricular tachycardia: focus arises from the right ventricular outflow tract and less commonly originates in the inferoseptal left ventricle near the apex (note: majority of cases of VT are due to scarring from previous MI and cannot be ablated)
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99
Q

What is the pathophysiology of artherosclerosis

A

Hypertension, DM, smoking, dyslipidemia, RA –>

Endothelial injury –>

Monocyte recruitment
Enhanced LDL permeability –>

Monocytes enter into initial space and differentiate into macrophages - LDL is converted into oxidized LDL –>

Macrophages take up OX-LDL via scavenger receptors to become foam cells (‘fatty streak’ and lipid core of plaque) –>

Cytokine and growth factor signalling from damaged endothelium and macrophages promote medial smooth muscle cell migration into the intima, proliferation (intimal hyperplasia) and release of matrix to form the fibrous cap of plaque - rupture depends on balance of pro-and anti-proteases, magnitude of necrosis and location of plaque (bifurcation sites are exposed to greater shear stress) –>

Calcification -> increased vessel wall rigidity
Plaque rupture -> thrombosis
Hemorrhage into plaque -> lumen narrowing
Fragmentation -> emboli
Wall weakening -> aneurysm

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100
Q

What is the etiology of stable angina vs acute coronary syndromes

A

Chronic stable angina is most often due to a fixed stenosis caused by an atheroma

Acute coronary syndromes are the result of plaque rupture

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101
Q

CCS Classes

A

Class I: ordinary physical activity (walking, climbing stairs) does not cause angina; angina with strenuous, rapid, or prolonged activity

Class II: slight limitation of ordinary activity: angina brought on at >2 blocks on level or climbing >1 flight of stairs or by emotional stress

Class III: marked limitation of ordinary activity: angina brought on at <2 blocks on level or climbing <1 flight of stairs

Class IV: inability to carry out any physical activity without discomfort; angina may be present at rest

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102
Q

What are factors that decrease myocardial oxygen supply

A

■ decreased luminal diameter: atherosclerosis, vasospasm

■ decreased duration of diastole: tachycardia (decreased duration of diastolic coronary perfusion)

■ decreased hemoglobin: anemia

■ decreased SaO2: hypoxemia

■ congenital anomalies

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103
Q

What are factors that increase myocardial oxygen demand

A

■ increased heart rate: hyperthyroidism

■ increased contractility: hyperthyroidism

■ increased wall stress: myocardial hypertrophy, aortic stenosis

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104
Q

What is Levine’s sign

A

clutching fist over sternum when describing chest pain

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105
Q

Typical signs and symptoms of chronic stable angina

A
  1. retrosternal chest pain, tightness or discomfort radiating to left (± right) shoulder/arm/neck/jaw, associated with diaphoresis, nausea, anxiety
  2. predictably precipitated by the “3 Es”: exertion, emotion, eating
  3. brief duration, lasting <10-15 min and typically relieved by rest and nitrates
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106
Q

When should an ECHO be ordered in chronic stable angina

A
  • to assess systolic murmur suggestive of aortic stenosis, mitral regurgitation, and/or HCM
  • to assess LV function in patients with Hx of prior MI, pathological Q waves, signs or symptoms of CHF
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107
Q

Treatment of chronic stable angina

A
  1. General Measures
    ■ goals: to reduce myocardial oxygen demand and/or increase oxygen supply
    ■ lifestyle modification (diet, exercise)
    ■ treatment of risk factors: statins, antihypertensives, etc
    ■ pharmacological therapy to stabilize the coronary plaque to prevent rupture and thrombosis
  2. Antiplatelet Therapy (first-line therapy)
    ■ ASA
    ■ clopidogrel when ASA absolutely contraindicated
  3. β-blockers (first-line therapy – improve survival in patients with hypertension)
    ■ increase coronary perfusion and decrease demand (HR, contractility) and BP (afterload)
    ■ cardioselective agents preferred (e.g. metoprolol, atenolol) to avoid peripheral effects (inhibition of vasodilation and bronchodilation via β2 receptors)
    ■ avoid intrinsic sympathomimetics (e.g. acebutolol) which increase demand
  4. Nitrates (symptomatic control, no clear impact on survival)
    ■ decrease preload (venous dilatation) and afterload (arteriolar dilatation), and increase coronary perfusion
    ■ maintain daily nitrate-free intervals to prevent tolerance (tachyphylaxis)
  5. Calcium Channel Blockers (CCBs, second-line or combination)
    ■ increase coronary perfusion and decrease demand (HR, contractility) and BP (afterload)
    ■ caution: verapamil/diltiazem combined with β-blockers may cause symptomatic sinus bradycardia or AV block
  6. ACE Inhibitors (ACEI, not used to treat symptomatic angina)
    ■ angina patients tend to have risk factors for CV disease which warrant use of an ACEI (e.g. HTN, DM, proteinuric renal disease, previous MI with LV dysfunction)
    ■ benefit in all patients at high risk for CV disease (concomitant DM, renal dysfunction, or LV systolic dysfunction)
  7. Invasive Strategies
    ■ revascularization
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108
Q

Optimal medical therapy with or without PCI for stable coronary disease COURAGE trial

A

PCI as an adjunct in initial management in patients with significant stable coronary artery disease does not reduce mortality, MI, stroke, or hospitalization for ACS, but does provide angina relief and reduced risk of revascularization.

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109
Q

Variant angina (Prinzmetal’s angina)

A
  • myocardial ischemia secondary to coronary artery vasospasm, with or without atherosclerosis
  • uncommonly associated with infarction or LV dysfunction
  • typically occurs between midnight and 8 am, unrelated to exercise, relieved by nitrates
  • typically ST elevation on ECG
  • diagnosed by provocative testing with ergot vasoconstrictors (rarely done)
  • treat with nitrates and CCBs
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110
Q

Syndrome X angina

A
  • typical symptoms of angina but normal angiogram
  • may show definite signs of ischemia with exercise testing
  • thought to be due to inadequate vasodilator reserve of coronary resistance vessels
  • better prognosis than overt epicardial atherosclerosis
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111
Q

Myocardial infarction diagnosis

A

evidence of myocardial necrosis

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112
Q

MI diagnostic criteria

A

Rise/fall of serum markers plus any one of:
◆ symptoms of ischemia (chest/upper extremity/mandibular/epigastric discomfort; dyspnea)
◆ ECG changes (ST-T changes, new BBB or pathological Q waves)
◆ imaging evidence (myocardial loss of viability, wall motion abnormality, or intracoronary thrombus)

◆ if biomarker changes are unattainable, cardiac symptoms combined with new ECG changes is sufficient

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113
Q

What is the difference in the diagnostic characteristics of NSTEMI vs STEMI

A

NSTEMI meets criteria for myocardial infarction without ST elevation or BBB

STEMI meets criteria for myocardial infarction characterized by ST elevation or new BBB

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114
Q

Unstable angina is clinically defined as any of the following

A

■ accelerating pattern of pain: increased frequency, increased duration, decreased threshold of exertion decreased response to treatment

■ angina at rest

■ new-onset angina

■ angina post-MI or post-procedure (e.g. percutaneous coronary intervention [PCI], coronary artery bypass grafting [CABG])

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115
Q

When should biomarkers for myocardial damage be drawn

A

immediately and then repeat 8 h later

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116
Q

When should serum lipids be drawn following MI

A

draw serum lipids within 24-48 h because values are unreliable from 2-48 d post-MI

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117
Q

Management of Acute Coronary Syndromes

A
  1. General Measures
    ■ ABCs, bed rest, cardiac monitoring, oxygen
    ■ nitroglycerin SL followed by IV
    ■ morphine IV
  2. Anti-Platelet and Anticoagulation Therapy
    - ASA chewed

-NSTEMI
◆ ticagrelor in addition to ASA or if ASA contraindicated, SC LMWH or IV UFH (LMWH preferable, except in renal failure or if CABG is planned within 24 h)
◆ clopidogrel used if patient ineligible for ticagrelor

■ if PCI is planned: ticagrelor or prasugrel and consider IV GP IIb/IIIa inhibitor (e.g. abciximab)
◆ clopidogrel used if patient ineligible for ticagrelor and prasugrel
◆ prasugel contraindicated in those with a history of stroke/TIA, and avoidance of or lower dose is recommended for those >75 yr old or weighing under 60 kg

■ anticoagulation options depend on reperfusion strategy:
◆ primary PCI: UFH during procedure; bivalirudin is a possible alternative
◆ thrombolysis: LMWH until discharge from hospital; can use UFH as alternative because of possible rescue PCI
◆ no reperfusion: LMWH until discharge from hospital

■ continue LMWH or UFH followed by oral anticoagulation at discharge if at high risk for thromboembolic event (large anterior MI, AFib, severe LV dysfunction, CHF, previous DVT or PE, or echo evidence of mural thrombus)

  1. β-blockers
    ■ STEMI contraindications include signs of heart failure low output states, risk of cardiogenic shock, heart block, asthma or airway disease; initiate orally within 24 h of diagnosis when indicated
    ■ if β-blockers are contraindicated or if β-blockers/nitrates fail to relieve ischemia, nondihydropyridine CCB (e.g. diltiazem, verapamil) may be used as second-line therapy in the absence of severe LV dysfunction or pulmonary vascular congestion (CCBs do not prevent MI or decrease mortality)
  2. Invasive Strategies and Reperfusion Options
    ■ UA/NSTEMI: early coronary angiography ± revascularization if possible is recommended with any of the following high-risk indicators:
    ◆ recurrent angina/ischemia at rest despite intensive anti-ischemic therapy
    ◆ CHF or LV dysfunction
    ◆ hemodynamic instability
    ◆ high (≥3) TIMI risk score (tool used to estimate mortality following an ACS)
    ◆ sustained ventricular tachycardia
    ◆ dynamic ECG changes
    ◆ high-risk findings on non-invasive stress testing
    ◆ PCI within the previous 6 mo
    ◆ repeated presentations for ACS despite treatment and without evidence of ongoing ischemia or high risk features

◆ note: thrombolysis is NOT administered for UA/NSTEMI

■ STEMI
◆ after diagnosis of STEMI is made, do not wait for results of further investigations before implementing reperfusion therapy
◆ goal is to re-perfuse artery: thrombolysis (“EMS-to needle”) within 30 min or primary PCI (“EMS-to-balloon”) within 90 min (depending on capabilities of hospital and access to hospital with PCI facility)
◆ thrombolysis
– preferred if patient presents ≤12 h of symptom onset, and <30 min after presentation to hospital, has contraindications to PCI, or PCI cannot be administered within 90 min
◆ PCI
– early PCI (≤12 h after symptom onset and <90 min after presentation) improves mortality vs. thrombolysis with fewer intra-cranial hemorrhages and recurrent MIs
– primary PCI: without prior thrombolytic therapy – method of choice for reperfusion in experienced centres
– rescue PCI: following failed thrombolytic therapy (diagnosed when following thrombolysis, ST segment elevation fails to resolve below half its initial magnitude and patient still having chest pain)

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118
Q

TIMI (thrombolysis in myocardial infarction) risk score for UA and NSTEMI and interpretation

A
Historical 
Age ≥65 yr 
≥3 risk factors for CAD 
Known CAD (stenosis ≥50%) 
Aspirin® use in past 7 d

Presentation
Recent (≤24 h) severe angina
ST-segment deviation ≥0.5 mm
Increased cardiac markers

Each is worth one point
If TIMI risk score ≥3, consider early LMWH and angiography

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119
Q

Diagnosis STEMI basic management/reperfusion strategy based on presentation time frame

A

See Tony’s C29

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120
Q

Absolute contraindications for thrombolysis in STEMI

A
Ischemic stroke (≤3 mo) 
Prior intracranial hemorrhage 
Known structural cerebral vascular lesion 
Known malignant intracranial neoplasm 
Significant closed-head or facial trauma (≤3 mo) 

Active bleeding

Suspected aortic dissection

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121
Q

Relative contraindications for thrombolysis in STEMI

A
Chronic, severe, poorly controlled HTN 
Uncontrolled HTN (sBP >180, dBP >110) 

Current anticoagulation
Noncompressible vascular punctures
Recent internal bleeding (≤2-4 wk)

Ischemic stroke (≥3 mo)

Prolonged CPR or major surgery (≤3 wk)

Pregnancy
Active peptic ulcer disease

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122
Q

When is risk of progression to MI or recurrence of MI or death highest

A

Within 1 month

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123
Q

Pre discharge workup following acute coronary syndrome

A

ECG and echo to assess residual LV systolic function

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124
Q

Long term management of ACS

A

drugs required in hospital to control ischemia should be continued after discharge in all patients other medications for long-term management of ACS are summarized below

  1. General Measures ■ education ■ risk factor modification
  2. Antiplatelet and Anticoagulation Therapy
    ■ ECASA 81 mg daily
    ■ ticagrelor 90 mg twice daily or prasugrel 10 mg daily (at least 1 mo, up to 9-12 mo, if stent placed at least 12 mo)
    ■ clopidogrel 75 mg daily can be used as alternatives to ticagrelor and prasugrel when indicated
    ■ ± warfarin x 3 mo if high risk (large anterior MI, LV thrombus, LVEF <30%, history of VTE, chronic AFib)
  3. β-Blockers (eg metoprolol 25-50 mg bid or atenolol 50-100 mg daily)
    - Calcium Channel Blockers (NOT recommended as first line treatment, consider as alternative to β-blockers)
  4. Nitrates
    ■ alleviate ischemia but do not improve outcome
    ■ use with caution in right-sided MI patients who have become preload dependent
  5. Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitors
    ■ prevent adverse ventricular remodelling
    ■ recommended for asymptomatic high-risk patients (e.g. diabetics), even if LVEF >40%
    ■ recommended for symptomatic CHF, reduced LVEF (<40%), anterior MI
    ■ use ARBs in patients who are intolerant of ACEI; avoid combining ACE and ARB
  6. ± Aldosterone Antagonists
    ■ if on ACEI and β-blockers and LVEF <40% and CHF or DM
    ■ significant mortality benefit shown with eplerenone by 30 d
  7. Statins (early, intensive, irrespective of cholesterol level; eg. atorvastatin 80 mg daily)
  8. Invasive Cardiac Catheterization if indicated (risk stratification)
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125
Q

Most accurate clinical exam findings in MI

A

The most compelling features that increase likelihood of an MI are ST-segment and cardiac enzyme elevation, new Q-wave, and presence of an S3 heart sound.

In patients where the diagnosis of MI is uncertain, radiation of pain to the shoulder OR both arms, radiation to the right arm, and vomiting had the best predictive values, while radiation to the left arm is relatively non-diagnostic.

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126
Q

Complications of MI, when do they occur and what is the management

A
CRASH PAD 
Cardiac Rupture - 1-7 days, surgery 
1. LV free wall 
2. Papillary muscle (-> MR) 
3. Ventricular septum (-> VSD) 
Arrhythmia - first 48h
Shock (infarction or aneurysm) - within 48h, inotropes or intra aortic balloon pump 
Hypertension/Heart failure 

Pericarditis - 1-7 days, ASA
Pulmonary emboli - 7-10 days, up to 6 months
Aneurysm
DVT - 7-10 days, up to 6 months
Dressler’s syndrome (autoimmune) - 2-8 weeks

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127
Q

Post MI risk stratification

A

Tony’s C30

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128
Q

LMWH vs UFH with fibrinolysis for STEMI

A

In patients with STEMI receiving thrombolysis, enoxaparin is superior to unfractionated heparin in preventing recurrent nonfatal MI and may lead to a small reduction in mortality.

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129
Q

Intensive vs moderate lipid lowering with statin therapy following ACS

A

In patients who recently experienced an ACS, high dose statin therapy provides greater protection against death and major cardiovascular events than standard dose therapy.

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130
Q

Treatment of NSTEMI

A
BEMOAN 
β-blocker 
Enoxaparin 
Morphine 
O2 
ASA 
Nitrates
131
Q

Management of chest pain

A

Tony’s C31

132
Q

Indications for PCI

A

medically refractory angina

NSTEMI/UA with high risk features (e.g. high TIMI risk score, see sidebar C28)

primary/rescue PCI for STEMI

133
Q

What is a major compliation of balloon angiography and what is done to prevent it

A

major complication is restenosis (approximately 15% at 6 mo), felt to be due to elastic recoil and neointimal hyperplasia

majority of patients receive intracoronary stent(s) to prevent restenosis

134
Q

Complication of placing coronary stent

A

late stent thrombosis

135
Q

What it the difference between bare metal and drug eluting stent and what is the benefit

A

coated with antiproliferative drugs (sirolimus, paclitaxel, everolimus)

reduced rate of neointimal hyperplasia and restenosis compared to BMS (5% vs. 20%)

136
Q

Adjunctive therapies with coronary stenting

A

ASA and heparin decrease post-procedural complications

• further reduction in ischemic complications has been demonstrated using GPIIb/IIIa inhibitors (abciximab, eptifibatide, tirofiban) in coronary angiography and stenting

• following stent implantation
■ dual antiplatelet therapy (ASA and clopidogrel) for 1 mo with BMS or ≥12 mo with DES
■ DAPT study showed benefit of dual antiplatelet therapy beyond 12 mo
■ ASA and prasugrel can be considered for those at increased risk of stent thrombosis

137
Q

Duration of triple therapy in patients requiring oral anticoagulation after drug eluting stent implantation

A

Six weeks of triple therapy is not superior to 6 months. Physician should weigh trade-off between ischemic and bleeding risk when choosing shorter or longer duration of triple therapy

138
Q

PCI vs CABG for severe coronary artery disease

A

In patients with three-vessel or left main coronary artery disease CABG is superior to PCI in preventing major adverse cardiovascular and cerebrovascular events within 12 mo of intervention.

139
Q

Advantages of PCI vs CABG

A

PCI -
Less invasive technique
Decreased periprocedural morbidity and mortality
Shorter periprocedural hospitalization

CABG -
Greater ability to achieve complete revascularization
Decreased need for repeated revascularization procedures

140
Q

Indications for PCI vs CABG

A

PCI -
Single or double-vessel disease
Inability to tolerate surgery

CABG -
Triple-vessel or left main disease
DM
Plaque morphology unfavourable for PCI

141
Q

Safety and efficacy of drug eluting vs bare metal stents

A

DES significantly reduces rates of target vessel revascularization compared to BMS. Although there is no difference in mortality or MI incidence as found by RCTs, observational studies suggest lowered mortality and MI rates in patients with DES over BMS.

142
Q

CABG and antiplatelet regimens

A

Prior to CABG, clopidogrel, and ticagrelor should be discontinued for 5 d and prasugrel for 7 d before surgery

  • dual antiplatelet therapy should be continued for 12 mo in patients with ACS within 48-72 h after CABG
  • ASA (81 mg) continued indefinitely (can be started 6 h after surgery)
  • patients requiring CABG after PCI should continue their dual antiplatelet therapy as recommended in the post-PCI guidelines
143
Q

What is the pathophysiology of heart failure

A

most common causes are ischemic heart disease, hypertension and valvular heart disease

myocardial insult causes pump dysfunction/impaired filling leading to myocardial remodelling
■ pressure overload (e.g. AS or HTN) leads to compensatory hypertrophy (concentric remodelling) and eventually interstitial fibrosis
■ volume overload (e.g. AI) leads to dilatation (eccentric remodelling)

Either high output due to increased cardiac demand

Low output due to decreased cardiac output (systolic vs diastolic)

Both of these lead to increased cardiac workload that activates the SNS (tachycardia) and RAAS (increased Na and water retention, increasing preload and afterload) systems and increases cardiac demand and decompensation

The heart can either compensate (inc heart rate, contractility, blood volume) or decompensate (unable to maintain circulation)

144
Q

Types of decompensation

A
  1. Left sided HF
    Forward Failure
    - Inability to maintain cardiac output
    Backward Failure
    - Elevated ventricular filling pressures
    - Pulmonary vascular congestion
    - Fluid accumulation in lungs, apnea, shortness of breath, fatigue, weakness
  2. Right sided HF
    Backward Failure
    - Elevated ventricular filling pressures
    - Vascular congestion in vena cava
    - Fluid accumulation in lower extremities (edema in feet, ankles, legs, lower back, liver, abdomen), nausea
  3. Biventricular HF
    - Due to long-term left-sided failure leading to right-sided failure
    - Disorders affecting entire myocardium
145
Q

Grading heart failure based on ejection fraction

A

Grade I (EF >60%) (Normal)

Grade II (EF = 40-59%)

Grade III (EF = 21-39%)

Grade IV (EF ≤20)

146
Q

NYHA functional classification of heart failure

A

Class I: ordinary physical activity does not cause symptoms of HF

Class II: comfortable at rest, ordinary physical activity results in symptoms

Class III: marked limitation of ordinary activity; less than ordinary physical activity results in symptoms

Class IV: inability to carry out any physical activity without discomfort; symptoms may be present at rest

147
Q

5 most common causes of CHF

A
  • CAD (60-70%)
  • HTN
  • Idiopathic (often dilated cardiomyopathy)
  • Valvular (e.g. AS, AR, and MR)
  • Alcohol (dilated cardiomyopathy)
148
Q

What are things that can increase cardiac demand and cause high output heart failure

A
anemia
thiamine deficiency (beriberi)
hyperthyroidism
A-V fistula or L-R shunting
Paget’s disease
renal disease
hepatic disease
149
Q

What is your diagnosis for precipitants of symptomatic exaerbations in heart failure

A

■ new cardiac insult/disease: MI, arrhythmia, valvular disease
■ new demand on CV system: HTN, anemia, thyrotoxicosis, infection, etc.
■ medication non-compliance
■ dietary indisretion e.g. salt intake
■ obstructive sleep apnea

or 
HEART FAILED 
Hypertension (common) 
Endocarditis/environment (e.g. heat wave) 
Anemia 
Rheumatic heart disease and other valvular disease 
Thyrotoxicosis 
Failure to take meds (very common) 
Arrhythmia (common) 
Infection/Ischemia/Infarction (common) 
Lung problems (PE, pneumonia, COPD) 
Endocrine (pheochromocytoma, hyperaldosteronism)
Dietary indiscretions (common)
150
Q

Acute treatment of pulmonary edema

A

• treat acute precipitating factors (e.g. ischemia, arrhythmias)

  • L – Lasix® (furosemide) 40-500 mg IV
  • M – morphine 2-4 mg IV: decreases anxiety and preload (venodilation)
  • N – nitroglycerin: topical/IV/SL - use with caution in preload-dependent patients (e.g. right HF or RV infarction) as it may precipitate CV collapse
  • O – oxygen: in hypoxemic patients
  • P – positive airway pressure (CPAP/BiPAP): decreases preload and need for ventilation when appropriate
  • P – position: sit patient up with legs hanging down unless patient is hypotensive

• in ICU setting or failure of LMNOPP, other interventions may be necessary
■ nitroprusside IV
■ hydralazine PO
■ sympathomimetics
◆ dopamine
– low dose: selective renal vasodilation (high potency D1 agonist)
– medium dose: inotropic support (medium potency β1 agonist)
– high dose: increases SVR (low potency β1 agonist) which is undesirable
◆ dobutamine
– β1-selective agonist causing inotropy, tachycardia, hypotension (low dose) or hypertension (high dose); most serious side effect is arrhythmia, especially AF
◆ phosphodiesterase inhibitors (milrinone) – inotropic effect and vascular smooth muscle relaxation (decreased SVR), similar to dobutamine

  • consider pulmonary artery catheter to monitor pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) if patient is unstable or a cardiac etiology is uncertain (PCWP >18 indicates likely cardiac etiology)
  • mechanical ventilation as needed

• rarely used, but potentially life-saving measures:
■ intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) - reduces afterload via systolic unloading and improves coronary perfusion via diastolic augmentation
■ left or right ventricular assist device (LVAD/RVAD)
■ cardiac transplant

151
Q

Features of heart failure on CXR

A
HERB-B 
Heart enlargement (cardiothoracic ratio >0.50) 
Pleural Effusion 
Re-distribution (alveolar edema) 
Kerley B lines 
Bronchiolar-alveolar cuffing
152
Q

Long term management

A

overwhelming majority of evidence-based management applies to HFREF

• currently no proven pharmacologic therapies shown to reduce mortality in HFPEF; control risk factors (e.g. hypertension)

• ACEI* 
• β-blockers* 
• ± Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists* 
• Diuretic 
• ± Inotrope 
• ± Antiarrythmic 
• ± Anticoagulant 
*Mortality benefit
153
Q

Non pharmacological management of heart failure

A

cardiac rehabilitation: participation in a structured exercise program for NYHA class I-III after clinical status assessment to improve quality of life (HF-ACTION trial)

154
Q

Pharmacological management of heart failure

A
  1. Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone blockade
    ■ ACEI: standard of care – slows progression of LV dysfunction and improves survival
    ◆ all symptomatic patients functional class II-IV
    ◆ all asymptomatic patients with LVEF <40%
    ◆ post-MI

■ angiotensin II receptor blockers
◆ second-line to ACEI if not tolerated, or as adjunct to ACEI if β-blockers not tolerated – combination with ACEI is not routinely recommended and should be used with caution as it may precipitate hyperkalemia, renal failure, the need for dialysis

◆ combination angiotensin II receptor blockers with neprilysin inhibitors (ARNI) is a new class of medication that has morbidity and mortality benefit over ACEI alone; it has been recommended to replace ACEI or ARBs for patients who have persistent symptoms (PARADIGM HF)

  1. β-blockers: slow progression and improve survival
    ■ class I-III with LVEF <40%
    ■ stable class IV patients
    ■ carvedilol improves survival in class IV HF (COMET)
    ■ note: should be used cautiously, titrate slowly because may initially worsen CHF
  2. Mineralocorticoid receptor (aldosterone) antagonists: mortality benefit in symptomatic heart failure and severely depressed ejection fraction
    ■ spironolactone or eplerenone symptomatic heart failure in patients already on ACEI, beta blocker and loop diuretic
    ■ note: potential for life threatening hyperkalemia
    ◆ monitor K+ after initiation and avoid if Cr >220 µmol/L or K+>5.2 mmol/L
  3. Diuretics: symptom control, management of fluid overload
    ■ furosemide (40-500 mg daily) for potent diuresis
    ■ metolazone may be used with furosemide to increase diuresis
    ■ furosemide, metolazone, and thiazides oppose the hyperkalemia that can be induced by β-blockers, ACEI, ARBs, and aldosterone antagonists
  4. Digoxin and cardiac glycosides: digoxin improves symptoms and decreases hospitalizations, no effect on mortality
    ■ indications: patient in sinus rhythm and symptomatic on ACEI, or CHF and AFib
    ■ patients on digitalis glycosides may worsen if these are withdrawn
  5. Antiarrhythmic drugs: for use in CHF with arrhythmia
    ■ can use amiodarone, β-blocker, or digoxin
  6. Anticoagulants: warfarin for prevention of thromboembolic events
    ■ prior thromboembolic event or AFib, presence of LV thrombus on echo
155
Q

Resynchronization therapy in heart failure description and indications

A

resynchronization therapy: symptomatic improvement with biventricular pacemaker

  • consider if QRS >130 msec, LVEF <35%, and persistent symptoms despite optimal therapy
  • greatest benefit likely with marked LV enlargement, mitral regurgitation, QRS >150 msec
156
Q

ICD description and indications

A

ICD: mortality benefit in 1° prevention of sudden cardiac death
■ prior MI, optimal medical therapy, LVEF <30%, clinically stable
■ prior MI, non-sustained VT, LVEF 30-40%, EPS inducible VT

157
Q

What are procedural interventions that can be completed in heart failure

A

Resynchronization therapy

ICD

LVAD/RVAD

Cardiac transplantation

Valve repair if patient is surgical candidate and has significant valve disease contributing to CHF

158
Q

Cardiomyopathy definition

A

intrinsic or primary myocardial disease not secondary to congenital, hypertensive, coronary, valvular, or pericardial disease

• functional classification: dilated, hypertrophic, or restrictive

159
Q

Myocarditis definition

A

inflammatory process involving the myocardium ranging from acute to chronic; an important cause of dilated cardiomyopathy

160
Q

Myocarditis signs and symptoms

A
  • constitutional symptoms
  • acute CHF - dyspnea, tachycardia, elevated JVP
  • chest pain – due to pericarditis or cardiac ischemia
  • arrhythmias
  • systemic or pulmonary emboli
  • pre-syncope/syncope/sudden death
161
Q

Most common cause of myocarditis

A

Viral infection

162
Q

Major risk factors for dilated cardiomyopathy

A

Alcohol

Cocaine

Family history

163
Q

Dilated cardiomyopathy definition

A

unexplained dilation and impaired systolic function of one or both ventricles

164
Q

Dilated cardiomyopathy signs and symptoms

A

■ CHF
■ systemic or pulmonary emboli
■ arrhythmias
■ sudden death (major cause of mortality due to fatal arrhythmia)

165
Q

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy definition

A
  • defined as unexplained ventricular hypertrophy

* various patterns of HCM are classified, but most causes involve pattern of septal hypertrophy

166
Q

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy signs and symptoms

A
  • clinical manifestations: asymptomatic (common, therefore screening is important), SOB on exertion, angina, presyncope/syncope (due to LV outflow obstruction or arrhythmia), CHF, arrhythmias, SCD
  • pulses: rapid upstroke, “spike and dome” pattern in carotid pulse (in HCM with outflow tract obstruction)
  • precordial palpation: PMI localized, sustained, double impulse, ‘triple ripple’ (triple apical impulse in HOCM), LV lift
  • precordial auscultation: normal or paradoxically split S2, S4, harsh systolic diamond-shaped murmur at LLSB or apex, enhanced by squat to standing or Valsalva (murmur secondary to LVOT obstruction as compared to AS); often with pansystolic murmur due to mitral regurgitation
167
Q

HCM ECG changes

A

LVH

High voltages across precordium

Prominent Q waves (lead I, aVL, V5, V6)

Tall R wave in V1

P wave abnormalities

168
Q

HCM TTE and Echo Doppler changes

A

Asymmetric septal hypertrophy

Systolic anterior motion (SAM) of mitral valve and MR

LVOT gradient can be estimated by Doppler measurement

169
Q

HCM Management

A
  1. Avoid factors which increase obstruction (ex. volume depletion) - aka avoidance of all competitive sports
  2. Medical agents - Beta blockers, disopyramide, verapamil (started only in monitored setting), phenylephrine (in setting of cardiogenic shock)
  3. For patients with drug-refractory symptoms
    - Surgical myectomy
    - Alcohol septal ablation - percutaneous intervention that ablates the hypertrophic septum with 100% ethanol via the septal artery
  4. For patients with high risk of sudden death ICD
170
Q

HCM Screening

A

First degree relatives should be screened (physical, ECG, 2D ECHO) q12-18 months during adolescence, then serially q5y during adulthood

171
Q

Drugs to avoid in HCM

A

Nitrates

Diuretics

ACEI

These increase LVOT gradient and worsen symptoms

172
Q

What is the major difference between restrictive cardiomyopathy and contrictive pericarditis

A

Present similarly but CP is treatable with surgery

173
Q

HCM potential complications

A

Afib

VT

CHF

Sudden cardiac death 1% risk/year

174
Q

What is the most common cause of SCD in young athletes

A

HCM

175
Q

Major risk factors for SCD in HCM (consider ICD placement)

A

History of survived cardiac arrest/sustained VT

Family history of multiple premature sudden deaths

Syncope arrhythmic in origin, non sustained VT on monitoring, marked ventricular hypertrophy (30 mm +), abnormal BP in response to exercise in patients <40 years

176
Q

Restrictive cardiomyopathy definition

A

Impaired ventricular filling with preserved systolic function in a non-dilated, non-hypertrophied ventricle secondary to factors that decrease myocardial compliance (fibrosis and/or infiltration)

177
Q

RCM etiology

A

Infiltrative - amyloidosis, sarcoidosis

Non-infiltrative - scleroderma, idiopathic myocardial fibrosis

Storage diseases - hemochromatosis, Fabry’s disease, Gaucher’s disease, glycogen storage diseases

Endomyocardial - fibrosis, Loeffler’s endocarditis, eosinophilic endomyocardial disease, radiation heart disease, carcinoid syndrome (may have associated tricuspid valve or pulmonary valve dysfunction)

178
Q

Constrictive pericarditis Key investigations

A

ECHO - may show respiratory variation in blood flow

CT - May show very thickened pericardium and calcification

MRI - best modality to directly visualize pericaridium and myocardium

179
Q

RCM Clinical manifestations

A

CHF (usually preserved LV systolic function)

Atthythmias

Elevated JVP

Kussmaul’s sign

S3, S4, MR, TR

Thromboembolic events

180
Q

RCM Investigations

A

ECG - low voltage, diffuse ST/T changes, non-ischemic Q waves

CXR - cardiac enlargement

ECHO - LAE, RAE, no respiratory variation on doppler

Cardiac cath - increased end-diastolic ventricular pressures

Endomyocardial biopsy - determine etiology for infiltrative

181
Q

RCM Management

A

Exclude constrictive pericarditis

Treat underlying disease - control HR, anticoagulate if AFib

Supportive care and treatment for CHF, arrhythmias

Cardiac transplant might be considered for CHF refractory to medical therapy

182
Q

RCM prognosis

A

Depends on etiology

183
Q

IE prophylaxis

A

For patients with:

  • Prothetic valve material
  • Past history of IE
  • Certain types of congenital heart disease
  • Cardiac transplant recipients who develop valvulopathy
For the following procedures: 
◆ dental  
◆ respiratory tract  
◆ procedures on infected skin/skin structures/MSK structures 
◆ not GI/GU procedures specifically
184
Q

Rheumatic Acute complications

A

• acute complications: myocarditis (DCM/CHF), conduction abnormalities (sinus tachycardia, AFib), valvulitis (acute MR), acute pericarditis (not constrictive pericarditis)

185
Q

Rheumatic fever chronic complications

A

• chronic complications: rheumatic valvular heart disease – fibrous thickening, adhesion, calcification of valve leaflets resulting in stenosis/regurgitation, increased risk of IE ± thromboembolism

186
Q

Rheumatic fever onset of symptoms

A

• onset of symptoms usually after 10-20 yr latency from acute carditis of rheumatic fever

187
Q

Rheumatic fever most commonly affected valve

A

Mitral

188
Q

Valve repair or replacement indications

A

indication for valve repair or replacement depends on the severity of the pathology; typically recommended when medical management has failed to adequately improve the symptoms or reduce the risk of morbidity and mortality

• pathologies that may require surgical intervention include congenital defects, infections, rheumatic heart disease as well as a variety of valve diseases associated with aging

189
Q

Valve repair options

A

valve repair: balloon valvuloplasty, surgical valvuloplasty (commissurotomy, annuloplasty), chordae tendineae shortening, tissue patch

190
Q

Valve replacement options

A

valve replacement: typically for aortic or mitral valves only; mitral valve repair is favoured in younger individuals; percutaneous techniques being established

191
Q

Mitral valve repair vs replacement for severe ischemic mitral regurgitation outcome

A

No significant difference in left ventricular reverse modelling or survival at 12 mo between patients who underwent mitral valve repair or replacement Replacement provided more durable correction of mitral regurgitation, but there were no significant differences in clinical outcomes.

192
Q

Mechanical valve characteristics

A

Good durability

Less preferred in small aortic root sizes

Increased risk of thromboembolism (1-3%/year) and requires long term antioagulation with coumadin

Target INR
Aortic valves 2-3
Mitral valves 2.5-3.5

Increased risk of hemorrhage 1-2% /year

193
Q

Bioprosthetic valve characteristics

A

Limited long term durability (mitral < aortic)

Good flow in small aortic root sizes

Decreased risk of thromboembolism - long-term anticoagulation not needed for aortic valves

Some recommendation for limited anticoagulation for mitral valves

Decrease risk of hemorrhage

194
Q

Aortic stenosis etiology

A

Congenital (bicuspid, unicuspid)

calfication

rheumatic disease

195
Q

AS definition

A

Normal aortic valve area = 3-4 cm2 Mild AS >1.5 cm2 Moderate AS 1.0 to 1.5 cm2 Severe AS <1.0 cm2 Critical AS <0.5 cm2

196
Q

AS pathophysiology

A

Outflow obstruction  increased EDP  concentric LVH  LV failure  CHF, subendocardial ischemia

197
Q

AS symptoms

A

Exertional angina, syncope, dyspnea, PND, orthopnea, peripheral edema

198
Q

AS physical exam

A

Narrow pulse pressure, brachial-radial delay, pulsus parvus et tardus sustained PMI

Auscultation: crescendo-decrescendo SEM radiating to R clavicle and carotid, musical quality at apex (Gallavardin phenomenon), S4, soft S2 with paradoxical splitting, S3 (late)

199
Q

AS Investigations

A

ECG: LVH and strain, LBBB, LAE, AFib

CXR: post-stenotic aortic root dilatation, calcified valve, LVH, LAE, CHF

Echo: reduced valve area, pressure gradient, LVH, reduced LV function

200
Q

AS treatment

A

Asymptomatic: serial echos, avoid exertion

Symptomatic: avoid nitrates/arterial dilators and ACEI in severe AS

Surgery if: symptomatic or LV dysfunction

201
Q

Surgical options for AS

A

Valve replacement: aortic rheumatic valve disease and trileaflet valve

– prior to pregnancy (if AS significant)
– balloon valvuloplasty (in very young)

202
Q

Interventional options for as

A

Percutaneous valve replacement (transfemoral or transapical approach) is an option in selected patients who are not considered good candidates for surgery

203
Q

AR etiology

A

Supravalvular: aortic root disease (Marfan’s, atherosclerosis and dissecting aneurysm, connective tissue disease)

Valvular: congenital (bicuspid aortic valve, large VSD), IE

Acute Onset: IE, aortic dissection, trauma, failed prosthetic valve

204
Q

AR pathophysiology

A

Volume overload  LV dilatation  increased SV, high sBP and low dBP  increased wall tension  pressure overload  LVH (low dBP  decreased coronary perfusion)

205
Q

AR symptoms

A

Usually only becomes symptomatic late in disease when LV failure develops

Dyspnea, orthopnea, PND, syncope, angina

206
Q

AR Physical exam

A

Waterhammer pulse, bisferiens pulse, femoral-brachial sBP >20 (Hill’s test wide pulse pressure), hyperdynamic apex, displaced PMI, heaving apex

Auscultation: early decrescendo diastolic murmur at LLSB (cusp pathology) or RLSB (aortic root pathology), best heard sitting, leaning forward, on full expiration, soft S1, absent S2, S3 (late)

207
Q

AR investigations

A

ECG: LVH, LAE CXR: LVH, LAE, aortic root dilatation

Echo/TTE: quantify AR, leaflet or aortic root anomalies

Cath: if >40 yr and surgical candidate – to assess for ischemic heart disease

Exercise testing: hypotension with exercise

208
Q

AR treatment

A

Asymptomatic: serial echos, afterload reduction (e.g. ACEI, nifedipine, hydralazine)

Symptomatic: avoid exertion, treat CHF

Surgery if: NYHA class III-IV CHF; LV dilatation and/or LVEF <50% with/without symptoms

209
Q

AR surgical options

A

Valve replacement: most patients

Valve repair: very limited role

Aortic root replacement (Bentall procedure): – when ascending aortic aneurysm present valved conduit used

210
Q

MITRAL STENOSIS etiology

A

Rheumatic disease most common cause, congenital (rare)

211
Q

MITRAL STENOSIS definition

A

Severe MS is mitral valve area (MVA) <1.5 cm2

212
Q

MITRAL STENOSIS pathophysiolgy

A

MS  fixed CO and LAE  increased LA pressure  pulmonary vascular resistance and CHF; worse with AFib (no atrial kick) tachycardia (decreased atrial emptying time) and pregnancy (increased preload)

213
Q

MITRAL STENOSIS symptoms

A

SOB on exertion, orthopnea fatigue, palpitations, peripheral edema, malar flush, pinched and blue facies (severe MS)

214
Q

MITRAL STENOSIS physical exam

A

AFib, no “a” wave on JVP, left parasternal lift, palpable diastolic thrill at apex Auscultation: mid-diastolic rumble at apex, best heard with bell in left lateral decubitus position folowing exertion, loud S1, OS following loud P2 (heard best du ing expiration), long dastolic murmur and short A2-OS interval correlate with worse MS

215
Q

MITRAL STENOSIS investigations

A

ECG: NSR/AFib, LAE (P mitrale), RVH, RAD

CXR: LAE, CHF, mitral valve calcification

Echo/TTE: shows restricted opening of mitral valve

Cath: indicated in concurrent CAD if >40 yr (male) or >50 yr (female)

216
Q

MITRAL STENOSIS treatment

A

Avoid exertion, fever (increased LA pressure), treat AFib and CHF, increase diastolic filling time (β-blockers, digitalis) Surgery if: NYHA class III-IV CHF and failure of medical therapy

217
Q

MITRAL STENOSIS invasive options

A

Percutaneous balloon valvuloplasty: young rheumatic pts and good leaflet morphology (can be determined by echo), asymptomatic pts with moderate-severe MS, pulmonary HTN

Contraindication: left atrial thrombus, moderate MR

Open Mitral Commissurotomy: if mild calcification + leaflet/chordal thickening – restenosis in 50% pts in 8 yr

Valve replacement: indicated in moderate-severe calcification and severely scarred leaflets

218
Q

MR etiology

A

Mitral valve prolapse, congenital cleft leaflets LV dilatation/aneurysm (CHF, DCM, myocarditis), IE abscess, Marfan’s syndrome, HOCM, acute MI, myxoma, mitral valve annulus calcification, chordae/papillary muscle trauma/ischemia/rupture (acute), rheumatic disease

219
Q

MR pathophysiolgoy

A

Reduced CO  increased LV and LA pressure  LV and LA dilatation  CHF and pulmonary HTN

220
Q

MR symptoms

A

Dyspnea, PND, orthopnea, palpitations, peripheral edema

221
Q

MR physical exam

A

Displaced hyperdynamic apex, left parasternal lift, apical thrill

Auscultation: holosystolic murmur at apex, radiating to axilla ± mid-diastolic rumble, loud S2 (if pulmonary HTN), S3

222
Q

MR investigations

A

ECG: LAE, left atrial delay (bifid P waves), ± LVH

CXR: LVH, LAE, pulmonary venous HTN

Echo: etiology and severity of MR, LV function, leaflets

Swan-Ganz Catheter: prominent LA “v” wave

223
Q

MR treatment

A

Asymptomatic: serial echos

Symptomatic: decrease preload (diuretics), decrease afterload (ACEI) for severe MR and poor surgical candidates; stabilize acute MR with vasodilators before surgery

Surgery if: acute MR with CHF, papillary muscle rupture, NYHA class III-IV CHF, AF, increasing LV size or worsening LV function, earlier surgery if valve repairable (>90% likelihood) and patient is low-risk for surgery

224
Q

MR surgical options

A

Valve repair: >75% of pts with MR and myxomatous mitral valve prolapse – annuloplasty rings, leaflet repair, chordae transfers/shorten/replacement

Valve replacement: failure of repair, heavily calcified annulus

Advantage of repair: low rate of endocarditis, no anticoagulation, less chance of reoperation

225
Q

TS etiology

A

Rheumatic disease, congenital, carcinoid syndrome, fibroelastosis; usually accompanied by MS (in RHD)

226
Q

TS pathophysiology

A

Increased RA pressure  right heart failure  decreased CO and fixed on exertion

227
Q

tS symptoms

A

Peripheral edema, fatigue, palpitations

228
Q

TS physical exam

A

Prominent “a” waves in JVP, +ve abdominojugular reflux, Kussmaul’s sign, diastolic rumble 4th left intercostal space

229
Q

TS investigations

A

ECG: RAE

CXR: dilatation of RA without pulmonary artery enlargement

Echo: diagnostic

230
Q

TS teatment

A

Preload reduction (diuretics), slow HR

Surgery if: only if other surgery required (e.g. mitral valve replacement)

231
Q

TS surgical options

A

Valve Replacement:
– if severely diseased valve
– bioprosthesis preferred

232
Q

TR etiology

A

RV dilatation, IE (particularly due to IV drug use), rheumatic disease, congenital (Ebstein anomaly), carcinoid

233
Q

TR pathophysiology

A

RV dilatation  TR further RV dilatation  right heart failure

234
Q

TR symptoms

A

Peripheral edema, fatigue, palpitations

235
Q

TR physical exam

A

“cv” waves in JVP, +ve abdominojugular reflux, Kussmaul’s sign, holosystolic murmur at LLSB accentuated by inspiration, left parasternal lift

236
Q

TR investigations

A

ECG: RAE, RVH, AFib CXR: RAE, RV enlargement Echo: diagnostic

237
Q

TR treatment

A

Preload reduction (diuretics) Surgery if: only if other surgery required (e.g. mitral valve replacement)

238
Q

TR surgical options

A

Annuloplasty (i.e. repair, rarely replacement

239
Q

PS etiology

A

Usually congenital, rheumatic disease (rare), carcinoid syndrome

240
Q

PS pathophysiolgoy

A

Increased RV pressure  RV hypertrophy  right heart failure

241
Q

PS symptoms

A

Chest pain, syncope, fatigue, peripheral edem

242
Q

PS physical exam

A

Systolic murmur at 2nd left intercostal space accentuated by inspiration, pulmonary ejection click, right sded S4

243
Q

PS investigations

A

ECG: RVH

CXR: prominent pulmonary arteries enlarged RV

Echo: diagnostic

244
Q

PS treatment

A

Balloon valvuloplasty if severe symptoms

245
Q

PS surgical options

A

Percutaneous or open balloon valvuloplasty

246
Q

PR etiology

A

Pulmonary HTN, IE, rheumatic disease, tetrology of Fallot (post-repair)

247
Q

PR pathophysiology

A

Increased RV volume  increased wall tension  RV hypertrophy  right heart failure

248
Q

PR symptoms

A

Chest pain, syncope, fatigue, peripheral edema

249
Q

PR Physical exam

A

Early diastolic murmur at LLSB, Graham Steell (diastolic) murmur 2nd and 3rd left intercostal space increasing with inspiration

250
Q

PR investigations

A

ECG: RVH

CXR: prominent pulmonary arteries if pulmonary HTN; enlarged RV

Echo: diagnostic

251
Q

PR treatment

A

Rarely requires treatment; valve replacement (rarely done)

252
Q

PR surgical options

A

Pulmonary valve replacement

253
Q

Mitral valve prolapse etiology

A

Myxomatous degeneration of chordae, thick, bulky leaflets that crowd orifice, associated with Marfan’s syndrome, pectus excavatum, straight back syndrome, other MSK abnormalities; <3% of population

254
Q

Mitral valve prolapse pathophysiology

A

Mitral valve displaced into LA during systole; no causal mechanisms found for symptoms

255
Q

Mitral valve prolapse symptoms

A

Prolonged, stabbing chest pain, dyspnea, anxiety/panic, palpitations, fatigue presyncope

256
Q

Mitral valve prolapse physical exam

A

Auscultation: mid-systolic click (due to billowing of mitral leaflet into LA; tensing of redundant valve tissue); mid to late systolic murmur at apex, accentuated by Valsalva or squat-to-stand maneuvers

257
Q

Mitral valve prolapse investigations

A

ECG: non-specific ST-T wave changes, paroxysmal SVT, ventricular ectopy

Echo: systolic displacement of thickened mitral valve leaflets into LA

258
Q

Mitral valve prolapse treatment

A

Asymptomatic: no treatment; reassurance Symptomatic: β-blockers and avoidance of stimulants (caffeine) for significant palpitations, anticoagulation if AFib

259
Q

Mitral valve prolapse surgical options

A

Mitral valve surgery (repair favoured over replacement) if symptomatic and significant MR

260
Q

Etiology of acute pericarditis/pericardial effusion

A

• idiopathic is most common: presumed to be viral

• infectious
■ viral: Coxsackie virus A, B (most common), echovirus
■ bacterial: S. pneumoniae, S. aureus
■ TB • fungal: histoplasmosis, blastomycosis

  • post-MI: acute (direct extension of myocardial inflammation, 1-7 d post-MI), Dressler’s syndrome (autoimmune reaction, 2-8 wk post-MI)
  • post-cardiac surgery (e.g. CABG), other trauma
  • metabolic: uremia (common), hypothyroidism
  • neoplasm: Hodgkin’s, breast, lung, renal cell carcinoma, melanoma
  • collagen vascular disease: SLE, polyarteritis, rheumatoid arthritis, scleroderma
  • vascular: dissecting aneurysm
  • other: drugs (e.g. hydralazine), radiation, infiltrative disease (sarcoid)
261
Q

acute pericarditis/pericardial effusion signs and symptoms

A
  • diagnostic triad: chest pain, friction rub and ECG changes (diffuse ST elevation and PR depression with reciprocal changes in aVR)
  • pleuritic chest pain: alleviated by sitting up and leaning forward
  • pericardial friction rub: may be uni-, bi-, or triphasic; evanescent and rare
  • ± fever, malaise
262
Q

acute pericarditis/pericardial effusion investigations

A
  • ECG: initially diffuse elevated ST segments ± depressed PR segment, the elevation in the ST segment is concave upwards → 2-5 d later ST isoelectric with T wave flattening and inversion
  • CXR: normal heart size, pulmonary infiltrates
  • Echo: performed to assess for pericardial effusion
263
Q

acute pericarditis/pericardial effusion treatment

A
  • treat the underlying disease
  • anti-inflammatory agents (high dose NSAIDs/ASA, steroids use controversial), analgesics
  • colchicine reduces the rate of incessant/recurrent pericarditis (ICAP N Engl J Med 2013; 369:1522-1528
264
Q

acute pericarditis/pericardial effusion complications

A

• recurrent episodes of pericarditis, atrial arrhythmia, pericardial effusion, tamponade, constrictive pericarditis

265
Q

Acute pericarditis triad

A

Chest pain

friction rub

ECG changes

266
Q

Pericardial effusion etiology

A

• transudative (serous) • CHF, hypoalbuminemia/hypoproteinemia, hypothyroidism

• exudative (serosanguinous or bloody)
■ causes similar to the causes of acute pericarditis
■ may develop acute effusion secondary to hemopericardium (trauma, post-MI myocardial rupture, aortic dissection)

• physiologic consequences depend on type and volume of effusion, rate of effusion development, and underlying cardiac disease

267
Q

Pericardial effusion signs and symptoms

A
  • may be asymptomatic or similar to acute pericarditis
  • dyspnea, cough
  • extra-cardiac (esophageal/recurrent laryngeal nerve/tracheo-bronchial/phrenic nerve irritation)
  • JVP increased with dominant “x” descent
  • arterial pulse normal to decreased volume, decreased pulse pressure
  • auscultation: distant heart sounds ± rub
  • Ewart’s sign
268
Q

Pericardial effusion investigations

A

• ECG: low voltage, flat T waves, electrical alternans (classic, but not sensitive to exclude effusion)
■ be cautious in diagnosing STEMI in a patient with pericarditis and an effusion - antiplatelets may precipitate hemorrhagic effusion

  • CXR: cardiomegaly, rounded cardiac contour
  • ER: bedside ultrasound with subxiphoid view showing fluid in pericardial sac
  • Echo (procedure of choice): fluid in pericardial sac
  • pericardiocentesis: definitive method of determining transudate vs. exudate, identify infectious agents, neoplastic involvement
269
Q

Pericardial effusion treatment

A
  • mild: frequent observation with serial echos, treat underlying cause, anti-inflammatory agents
  • severe: treat as in tamponade
270
Q

What is Ewart’s sign

A

Bronchial breathing and dullness to percussion at the lower angle of the left scapular in pericardial effusion due to effusion compressing left lower lobe of lung

271
Q

Cardiac tamponade etiology

A
  • major complication of rapidly accumulating pericardial effusion
  • cardiac tamponade is a clinical diagnosis
  • any cause of pericarditis but especially trauma, malignancy, uremia, proximal aortic dissection with rupture
272
Q

Cardiac tamponade pathophysiology

A

high intra-pericardial pressure → decreased venous return → decreased diastolic ventricular filling → decreased CO → hypotension and venous congestion

273
Q

Cardiac tamponade signs and symptoms

A
  • tachypnea, dyspnea, shock, muffled heart sounds
  • pulsus paradoxus (inspiratory fall in systolic BP >10 mmHg during quiet breathing)
  • JVP “x descent only, blunted “y” descent
  • hepatic congestion/peripheral edema
274
Q

Cardiac tamponade investigations

A
  • ECG: electrical alternans (pathognomonic variation in R wave amplitude), low voltage
  • echo: pericardial effusion, compression of cardiac chambers (RA and RV) in diastole
  • cardiac catheterization
275
Q

Cardiac tamponade treatment

A
  • pericardiocentesis: Echo-guided
  • pericardiotomy
  • avoid diuretics and vasodilators (these decrease venous return to already under-filled RV → decrease LV preload → decrease CO)
  • IV fluid may increase CO
  • treat underlying cause
276
Q

Cardiac tamponade classi quartet

A

Hypotension

Increased JVP

Tachycardia

Pulsus paradoxus

277
Q

What is Beck’s triad

A

Hypotension

Increased JVP

Muffled heart sounds

278
Q

Constrictive pericarditis etiology

A
  • chronic pericarditis resulting in fibrosed, thickened, adherent, and/or calcified pericardium
  • any cause of acute pericarditis may result in chronic pericarditis
  • major causes are idiopathic, post-infectious (viral, TB), radiation, post-cardiac surgery, uremia, MI, collagen vascular disease
279
Q

Constrictive pericarditis signs and symptoms

A
  • dyspnea, fatigue, palpitations
  • abdominal pain

• may mimic CHF (especially right-sided HF)
■ ascites, hepatosplenomegaly, edema

  • increased JVP, Kussmaul’s sign (paradoxical increase in JVP with inspiration), Friedreich’s sign (prominent “y” descent)
  • BP usually normal (and usually no pulsus paradoxus)
  • precordial examination: ± pericardial knock (early diastolic sound)
280
Q

Constrictive pericarditis investigations

A
  • ECG: non-specific – low voltage, flat T wave, ± AFib
  • CXR: pericardial calcification, effusions
  • echo/CT/MRI: pericardial thickening, ± characteristic echo-Doppler findings
  • cardiac catheterization: equalization of end-diastolic chamber pressures (diagnostic)
281
Q

Constrictive pericarditis treatment

A
  • medical: diuretics, salt restriction
  • surgical: pericardiectomy (only if refractory to medical therapy)
  • prognosis best with idiopathic or infectious cause and worst in post-radiation; death may result from heart failure
282
Q

DDX of pulsus paradoxus

A

Constrictive pericarditis (rarely)

Severe obstrcitve pulmonary disease

Tension pneumothorax

PE

Cardiogenic shock

Cardiac tamponade

283
Q

Constrictive pericarditis characteristics vs cardiac tamponade

A

JVP
y>x vs x>y

Kussmaul’s sign
present vs absent

pulsus paradoxus
uncommon vs always

pericardial knock
present vs absent

hypotension
variable vs severe

284
Q

ACEI examples

A

enalapril (Vasotec®), perindopril (Coversyl®), ramipril (Altace®), lisinopril (Zestril®)

285
Q

ACEI MOA

A

Inhibit ACE-mediated conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II (AT II), causing peripheral vasodilation and decreased aldosterone synthesis

286
Q

ACEI indications

A

HTN, CAD, CHF, post-MI, DM

287
Q

ACEI contraindications

A

Bilateral renal artery stenosis

pregnancy

caution n decreased GFR

288
Q

ACEI side effects

A

Dry cough

10% hypotension

fatigue

hyperkalemia

renal insufficiency

angioedema

289
Q

ARB examples

A

candesartan, irbesartan, valsartan

290
Q

ARB MOA

A

Block AT II receptors, causing similar effects to ACEI

291
Q

ARB indications

A

Same as ACEI, although evidence is generally less for ARBs; often used when ACEI are not tolerated

292
Q

ARB contraindications

A

Same as ACEI

293
Q

ARB side effects

A

Similar to ACEI, but do not cause dry cough

294
Q

Direct renin inhibitors (DRIs) examples

A

aliskiren

295
Q

Direct renin inhibitors (DRIs) moa

A

Directly blocks renin thus inhibiting the conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I; this also causes a decrease in AT II

296
Q

Direct renin inhibitors (DRIs) indications

A

HTN (exact role of this drug remains unclear)

297
Q

Direct renin inhibitors (DRIs)contraindications

A

Pregnancy, severe renal impairmen

298
Q

Direct renin inhibitors (DRIs) side effects

A

Diarrhea, hyperkalemia (higher risk if used with an ACEI), rash, cough, angioedema, reflux, hypotension, rhabdomyolysis, seizure

299
Q

BBlockers examples

A

β1 antagonists - atenolol, metoprolol, bisoprolol

β1/β2 antagonists - propranolol

α1/β1/β2 antagonists - labetalol, carvedilol

β1 antagonists with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity - acebutalol

300
Q

BBlockers moa

A

Block β-adrenergic receptors, decreasing HR, BP, contractility, and myocardial oxygen demand, slow conduction through the AV node

301
Q

BBlockers indications

A

HTN, CAD, acute MI, post-MI, CHF (start low and go slow), AFib, SVT

302
Q

BBlockers contraindications

A

Sinus bradycardia,

2nd or 3rd degree heart block

hypotension

WPW

Caution in asthma, claudication, Raynaud’s phenomenon, and decompensated CHF

303
Q

BBlockers side effects

A

Hypotension

fatigue

lightheadedness

depression

bradycardia

hyperkalemia

bronchospasm

impotence

depression of counterregulatory response to hypoglycemia

exacerbation of Raynaud’s phenomenon, and claudication

304
Q

CCB examples

A

Benzothiazepines Phenylaklylamines (non dihydropyridines) - diltiazem, verpamil

Dihydropyridines - amlodipine (Norvasc), nifedipine (Adalat), felodipine (Plendil)

305
Q

CCB moa

A

Non- dihydropyridines - Block smooth muscle and myocardial calcium channels causing effects similar to β-blockers Also vasodilate

Dihydropyridines - Block smooth muscle calcium channels causing peripheral vasodilation

306
Q

CCB indications

A

Non - DH - HTN, CAD SVT, diastolic dysfunction

DH - HTN, CAD

307
Q

CCB contraindications

A

Non-DH - Sinus bradycardia, 2nd or 3rd degree heart block, hypotension, WPW, CHF

DH - Severe aortic stenosis and liver failure

308
Q

CCB side effects

A

Non-DH - Hypotension, bradycardia, edema Negative inotrope

DH - hypotension, edema, flushing, headache, light-headedness

309
Q

Thiazide diuretics examples

A

hydrochlorthiazide, chlorthalidone, metolazone

310
Q

Thiazide diuretics moa

A

Reduce Na+ reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule (DCT)

311
Q

Thiazide diuretics indications

A

HTN (drugs of choice for uncomplicated HTN)

312
Q

Thiazide diuretics contraindications

A

Sulfa allergy, pregnancy

313
Q

Thiazide diuretics side effects

A

Hypotension, hypokalemia, polyuria

314
Q

Loop diuretics examples

A

furosemide

315
Q

Loop diuretics moa

A

Blocks Na+/K+-ATPase in thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle

316
Q

Loop diuretics indications

A

CHF, pulmonary or peripheral edema

317
Q

Loop diuretics contraindications

A

Hypovolemia, hypokalemia

318
Q

Loop diuretics side effects

A

Hypovolemia, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

319
Q

Aleosterone receptor antagonists examples

A

spironolactone, eplenerone

320
Q

Aleosterone receptor antagonists moa

A

Antagonize aldosterone receptors

321
Q

Aleosterone receptor antagonists indications

A

HTN, CHF, hypokalemia

322
Q

Aleosterone receptor antagonists contraindications

A

Renal insufficiency, hyperkalemia, pregnancy

323
Q

Aleosterone receptor antagonists side effects

A

Edema, hyperkalemia, gynecomastia