Departure Flashcards
Discuss 14 CFR 91.3, “Responsibility and authority of the PIC”
The PIC is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as too the operation of that AC. You, and only you are responsible for the operational and safety related decisions pertaining to your flight. No one else shares the responsibility. The decision to begin, cancel, divert, or terminate the flight determine the airworthiness, or make any other safety or operational decisions are yours.
What are the right-of-way rules pertaining to IFR flights?
When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether an operation is under VFR or IFR, vigilance shall be maintained by each person operating an aircraft so as to see and avoid other AC.
What are the required reports for equipment malfunction under IFR in controlled airspace?
You must report:
A. Any loss in controlled airspace of VOR, TACAN, ADF, or low-frequency navigation receiver capability
B. GPS anomalies while using installed IFR-certified GPS/GNSS receivers
C. Complete or partial loss of ILS receiver capability
D. Impairment of air/ground comms capability
E. Loss of any other equipment installed in the AC which may impair safety and/or the ability to
operate under IFR
How can your IFR clearance be obtained?
A. At airports with an ATC tower in operation, clearances may be received from either ground control or a specific clearance delivery frequency, when available.
B. For departures from airports without an operating control tower, or in an outlying area:
- Over the radio through a RCO or, in some cases, over the telephone - In some areas, a clearance delivery frequency is available that is usable at different airports within a particular geographic area, for example, Class B airspace - Over a GCO (Ground Communication Outlet), which is an unstaffed, remove controlled ground-to-ground comm facility that provides pilots with the capability to contact ATC/FSS via VHF to a telephone connection - If above not available, your clearance can be obtained from ARTCC once you are airborne, provided you remain VFR in Class E airspace
What does “cleared as filed” mean?
ATC will issue an abbreviated IFR clearance based on the route of flight as filed in the IFR flight plan, provided the filed route can be approved with little or no revision.
What clearance items are given in an abbreviated IFR clearance?
Clearance limit (destination airport or fix) Route (initial heading) Altitude (initial altitude) Frequency (departure) Transponder
What does “Clearance Void Time” mean?
When operating from an airport without a tower, a pilot may receive a clearance containing a provision that if the flight has not departed by a specific time, the clearance is void.
A pilot who does not depart prior to the clearance void time must advise ATC ASAP of their intentions. ATC will normally notify the pilot of the time allotted to notify ATC. This time cannot exceed 30 minutes.
What is the purpose of the term “hold for release” when included in an IFR clearance?
ATC may issue “hold for release” instructions in a clearance to delay an AC’s departure for traffic management reasons (weather, traffic, volume, etc.). A pilot may not depart utilizing that IFR clearance until a release time or additional instructions are received from ATC.
What IFR minimums are necessary for IFR takeoff under 14 CFR Part 91?
For Part 91, none.
Under Part 121, 125, 129, or 135, if takeoff minimums are not prescribed under Part 97for a particular airport, the following minimums apply to takeoffs under IFR for aircraft operating under those parts:
A. For AC having two engines or less - 1SM visibility
B. For AC having more than two engines - 1/2SM visibility
What is considered “good operating practice” in determining takeoff minimums for IFR flight?
If an IAP has been prescribed for that airport, use the minimums for that approach for takeoff. If no IAP is available, basic VFR minimums are recommended (1,000 feet and 3 SM)
What are DP’s and why are they necessary?
DP’s are preplanned IFR procedures that provide obstruction clearance from the terminal area to the appropriate enroute structure.
The primary reason that are established is to provide obstacle clearance protection. Also, at busier airports, they increase efficiency and reduce comms and departure delays. Pilots operating under Part 91 are strongly encouraged to file and fly a DP at night, when marginal VMC and IMC, when one is available.
What are the two types of DP’s?
Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODP) and Standard Instrument Departures (SID)
A. ODP: Printed textually or graphically, provide obstruction clearance via the least onerous route from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure. ODP’s are recommended for obstruction clearance and may be flown without ATC clearance unless and alternate departure procedure (SID or radar vectors) has been specifically assigned by ATC. ODP’s are published when obstructions penetrate 40:1 departure obstacle clearance surface (OCS).
B. SID: Always printed graphically. SID’s are ATC procedures printed for pilot/controller use in graphic for to provide obstruction clearance and a transition from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure. SID’s are primarily designed for system enhancement and to reduce pilot/controller workload.
ATC clearance must be received prior to flying a SID.
What are two types of SIDs?
Categorized by the type of navigation used to fly the departure, so they are considered either pilot navigation or vector SIDs.
A. Pilot navigation: Designed to allow you to provide your own navigation with minimal radio comms. This type of procedure usually contains an initial set of departure instructions followed by one or more transition routes.
B. Vector: Usually require ATC to provide radar vectors from just after takeoff (ROC is based on a climb to 400 feet above the DER elevation before making the initial turn) until reaching the assigned route or a fix depicted on the SID chart.
What criteria are used to provide obstruction clearance during departure?
Unless specified otherwise, required obstacle clearance for all departures, including diverse, is based on the pilot crossing the departure end of the runway at least 35 feet above the departure end of the runway elevation, climbing 400 feet above the departure end of the runway before making the initial turn, and maintaining a minimum climb gradient of 200 feet per nautical mile, unless required to level off by a crossing restriction, until the minimum IFR altitude. A greater climb gradient may be specified in the DP to clear obstacles or to achieve an ATC crossing restriction.
Where are DP’s located?
DPs will be listed by airport in the IFR Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures section, Section L, of the Terminal Procedures Publications. SID’s and complex ODP’s will be published graphically and given procedure titles.
Must you accept a SID if assigned one?
If you cannot comply with a SID, you do not possess the charted SID procedure, or you simply do not wish to use a SID, include the statement “No SIDs” in the remarks section of your flight plan.
How does a pilot determine if takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published for an airport?
If an airport has non-standard takeoff minimums, a triangle “T” symbol - that is, a black triangle with a T inside it, will be placed in the notes section of the instrument procedure chart
Prior to departing an airport on an IFR flight, a pilot should determine whether they will be able to ensure adequate separation from terrain and obstacles. What information should this include?
A. The type of terrain and other obstacles on or in the vicinity of the departure airport
B. Whether an ODP is available
C. If obstacle avoidance can be maintained visually or if the ODP should be flown
D. The effect of degraded climb performance and the actions to take in the event of an engine loss during the departure
If an ODP has been published for the RWY you are departing from, are you required to follow it?
No - if a Part 91 pilot is not given a clearance containing an ODP, SID, or radar vectors and an ODP exists, compliance with such a procedure is the pilot’s choice.
When a DP specifies a climb gradient in excess of 200 feet per NM, what significance should this have to the pilot?
If an AC may turn in any direction from a RWY, an remain clear of obstacles, that RWY passes what is called diverse departure criteria and no ODP will be published. A SID may be published if needed for ATC purposes. However, if an obstacle penetrates what is called the 40:1 slope obstacle identification surface, then the procedure designed chooses whether to:
A. Establish a steeper than normal climb gradient, or
B. Establish a steeper than normal climb gradient with an alternative that increases takeoff minima to allow the pilot to visually remain clear of obstacles, or
C. Design and publish a specific departure route, or
D. A combination or all of the above.
A climb gradient of 300 feet per NM at a ground speed of 100 knots requires what climb rate?
Ground speed divided by 60 minutes times climb gradient = feet per minute; therefore:
(100/60) x 300 = 500 feet per minute
What is the recommended climb rate procedure, when issued a climb to an assigned altitude by ATC?
When ATC has not used the term “at pilot’s discretion” not imposed any climb or descent restrictions, pilot’s should initiate climb or decent promptly on acknowledgement of the clearance. Descend or climb at an optimum rate consistent with the operating characteristics of the AC to 1,000 feet above or below the assigned altitude, and then attempt to climb/descend at a rate of between 500 to 1,500 fpm until assigned altitude is reached.
